Agreement, Consideration and Intention Flashcards
In order for there to be a binding contract, what must be present?
(i) offer and acceptance;
(ii) intention to create legal relations; and
(iii) consideration.
For an agreement to exist, what must be present?
(i) a clear and certain offer displaying an intention to be bound; as well as
(ii) the offeree’s unequivocal acceptance.
If A says to B that they are “prepared to sell”, would this constitute a clear and certain offer and why?
No, it is not sufficiently clear and certain to constitute an offer. There would be no binding contract as a result.
If A says to B: “if you will sign the agreement and return it to me I will send you the agreement signed on behalf of the corporation in exchange”, does this indicate an intention to be legally bound and why?
Yes, the wording would be deemed sufficient to show an intention to be bound. Accordingly, an offer could be made out.
B approaches A to ascertain if they will sell a laptop and at the same time asks A what the lowest price would be. A replies with: “lowest price is £500”. B responded attempting to accept. Would this constitute an offer and why?
No, as A did not answer the first question regarding whether he would he sell the laptop. Accordingly, the lowest price stated would be deemed a mere response to a request for information. Consequently, B could not have accepted as there existed no offer.
Mark and Melissa were out drinking in a pub, when the topic of Mark’s business came up. Mark said to Mellisa that if his shares in the business increased in value, he would be very wealthy, saying “how about £400,000”. Melissa responded by saying “let’s call it £500,000”. Could this be deemed a valid offer (and subsequent contract) and why?
No, as Mark and Mellisa did not show an intention to be bound - it was made in a jovial context where it could not have been considered reasonable for one to make an offer and the other subsequently accepting it. Furthermore, there existed no specific terms.
What are the two types of contract?
Bilateral contracts - quid pro quo, one party makes a promise to do something in exchange for the other party’s payment (here, there’s mutual promises)
Unilateral contracts - where one party makes an offer / proposal in terms which call for an act to be performed by one or more parties.
What is an invitation to treat and how is it different from an offer?
An invitation to treat is the first step in negotiations, while an offer is an undertaking to be contractually bound by its terms.
Are advertisements regarded as invitations to treat? Why? Are there any exceptions?
The general rule is that advertisements are regarded as statements inviting further negotiations (or invitations to treat), because it would be commercially unworkable if all advertisements were considered legally binding offers.
The exception to this general rule is if the advertisement amounts to a unilateral offer. So, if ABC Ltd advertised that they would pay £100 to anyone who used their weight loss machine for 6 weeks and did not lose weight, this unilateral offer would likely constitute a valid offer.
Are price-marked goods displayed in a shop window or on a website considered invitations to treat? Why?
Yes, they are considered invitations to treat because it would be commercially unworkable if every price-marked good amounted to an offer.
When a company/public body wishes to purchase a major item or service, they often use tenders. Would a request for a tender be considered an invitation to treat? Why? Are there any exceptions?
Requests for tenders are generally deemed an invitation to treat because it would be commercially unworkable if every request formed an offer. The action of inviting parties to a tender means that the requestor can accept or reject any tender.
However, if the invitation to tender contains an undertaking to accept the highest or lowest bid (a form of unilateral contact), this would constitute an offer - the required act being to make the highest or lowest bid and when this is carried out the other party is bound.
Is an auctioneer’s request for bids considered an invitation to treat? Why? Any exceptions?
General rule is that an auctioneer’s request for bids is an invitation to treat as the bider makes an offer which auctioneer is free to accept or reject. Acceptance is indicated by the fall of the hammer.
The exception to this rule is auctions ‘without reserve’. Auctions typically have a ‘reserve’ price so that if no bid above the this price is made the seller keeps the goods. In an auction without reserve, the seller promises to sell to the highest bidder.
When does an offer become incapable of acceptance?
An offer can come to end by (i) rejection; (ii) lapse of time; or (iii) revocation
When an offer is rejected, and a counter-offer is made, can the original offer be accepted?
No, the original offer is deemed to have been rejected and cannot be subsequently accepted.
Aliyah offered to sell Leo 5 tons of coal at £4000 by email, noting that offer was open until Monday. Leo responded asking whether Aliyah would accept £3900. Aliyah never replied and Leo tried to accept the original offer. Has a contract been formed by Leo’s acceptance and why?
Yes, because Leo’s response was not a counter-offer but an enquiry which did not serve to reject the offer. A binding contract was thus made when Leo sent the email accepting the offer.
When will an offer lapse and become incapable of acceptance?
By (i) passage of time; or (ii) the death of one of the parties.
If Paul knows that Priyanka (who had made an offer) has died, will the offer lapse? Would the answer be the same if the Paul was not aware? What if Priyanka lives and Paul has died?
If the offeree (Paul) is aware that the offeror (Priyanka) has passed away, the offer will lapse.
However, if Paul is not aware that the offeror has passed, will probably not lapse.
And if the offeree dies, then the offer lapses as it is incapable of being accepted by the offeree’s representatives.
When can an offer be revoked?
Anytime BEFORE acceptance.
When does revocation communicated by post take effect?
The moment it is received by the offeree, not from time of posting.
Will revocation be effective if communicated by a third party?
Yes, provided the information from the third party is reliable.
Selmin entered into a unilateral contract with her father Nick, where Selmin was obligated to pay off the mortgage in order to be given the house. Selmin started off paying the mortgage when Nick decided to revoke the offer. Could the promise be revoked and why?
No, because if the offeree (Selmin) partly performs the obligations and is willing and able to complete, the offeror is under an implied obligation not to revoke the offer once performance has commenced.
What are the four rules in relation to acceptance?
(i) Acceptance must be in response to the offer;
(ii) Acceptance must be unqualified;
(iii) It may be necessary to follow a prescribed mode of acceptance; and
(iv) Acceptance must be communicated.
What does the first rule of acceptance (i.e. acceptance must be in response to the offer) mean?
Only the person / people whom an offer is made can accept the offer. It would not be possible to accept an offer that one had overheard.
When an offer is made generally to the world at large (like unilateral adverts for e.g.), how does the position of acceptance change?
Everyone with notice of the offer would be deemed an ‘offeree’ and valid acceptance may be made by any person with notice of the offer (e.g. Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball).