Agile Team Coaching Flashcards
According to the Agile Alliance, a Team is a ___________ group of people who assigned to the same________ or ___________
small
project
effort
What is the recommended Agile team size?
No more than 12 members, typically closer to 7 +/- 2 team members for optimal Agile team performance, communication and collaboration.
An Agile team has a ___________ approach and a common ___________ and _____________ goals
Common
Project
Performance
Which of the following best describes the attributes of a high-performing Agile team?
A) Hierarchical, dependent on management, individual-focused, risk-averse
B) Self-organizing, trusting, committed, consensus-driven, empowered, decision owners, problem solvers, constructive
C) Micromanaged, skeptical, disengaged, directive, resistant to change
D) Rule-bound, approval-seeking, reactive, isolated, constrained
B
Which of the following correctly represents Patrick Lencioni’s Five Dysfunctions of a Team?
A) Lack of trust, fear of conflict, lack of commitment, avoidance of accountability, inattention to results
B) Poor communication, weak leadership, individualism, lack of vision, fear of failure
C) Lack of transparency, micromanagement, resistance to change, low engagement, poor decision-making
D) Conflict avoidance, excessive structure, lack of delegation, unclear roles, lack of innovation
Correct Answer: A
What is the primary cause of an absence of trust in a team?
A) Lack of technical skills
B) Fear of losing job security
C) Failure to be vulnerable with one another
D) Too many team meetings
C – Failure to be vulnerable with one another prevents trust from developing.
A team suffering from fear of conflict is most likely to:
A) Engage in open, productive debates
B) Avoid difficult conversations and pretend disagreements don’t exist
C) Hold frequent brainstorming sessions to explore all ideas
D) Encourage constructive criticism and challenge each other’s opinions
B – Teams that fear conflict avoid difficult conversations, leading to unresolved issues.
Which of the following is a sign of lack of commitment in a team?
A) Clear alignment on decisions and shared goals
B) Team members hesitating to take decisive action
C) Everyone enthusiastically contributing their ideas
D) Setting ambitious goals with full team support
B – A lack of commitment leads to indecisiveness and hesitation in action.
What happens when team members avoid accountability?
A) They hold each other responsible for meeting goals
B) Poor performance and missed deadlines go unaddressed
C) Team members constructively challenge each other’s ideas
D) High performers stay motivated and engaged
B – Avoidance of accountability results in unchecked poor performance and a lack of responsibility.
A team that suffers from inattention to results is most likely to:
A) Prioritize personal success over team goals
B) Celebrate collective achievements and progress
C) Stay focused on measurable team objectives
D) Track and evaluate key performance metrics regularly
A – Inattention to results leads individuals to prioritize their own status or ego over team success.
The Shu-Ha-Ri model describes three stages of learning and mastery in Agile teams.
Shu – Follow the rules and ________.
Ha – Adapt the rules and ________.
Ri – Transcend the rules and ________.
Shu – Follow the rules and learn from the master.
Ha – Adapt the rules and experiment with variations.
Ri – Transcend the rules and innovate beyond existing practices.
Which stage of the Shu-Ha-Ri model is characterized by breaking away from traditional techniques and creating new approaches?
A) Shu
B) Ha
C) Ri
D) None of the above
C – Ri is the stage where mastery is achieved, allowing for innovation beyond the original rules.
True or False: In the Shu-Ha-Ri model, the “Ha” stage is about strict rule-following without questioning the process.
False – The “Ha” stage is about questioning and adapting the rules to improve and innovate while still respecting the foundation.
Which of the following best describes a Novice in the Dreyfus Model?
A) They rely on rules and step-by-step instructions to complete tasks.
B) They intuitively understand complex situations and adapt fluidly.
C) They make decisions based on experience rather than fixed rules.
D) They can flexibly apply skills and reflect on their performance.
A – Novices depend on clear rules and guidelines, lacking deep understanding.
True or False: An Advanced Beginner in the Dreyfus Model can apply rules but struggles to see the broader context.
True – Advanced Beginners start recognizing patterns but still rely on rules and struggle to see the bigger picture.
In the Dreyfus Model of Team Development, a Competent team member moves beyond rule-following by applying _______ to make decisions and prioritize tasks more effectively.
Experience – They begin using past experiences to guide their decisions rather than strictly following rules.
Match the Proficient team member’s characteristics with their descriptions:
- Sees the big picture
- Uses intuition to guide decisions
- Adjusts based on past experiences
A) Can anticipate outcomes rather than just reacting
B) Recognizes patterns and context
C) Relies less on strict rules and more on judgment
1 → B (Sees the big picture → Recognizes patterns and context)
2 → A (Uses intuition → Can anticipate outcomes)
3 → C (Adjusts based on past experiences → Relies less on strict rules)
A senior Agile coach is mentoring a new Scrum Master. Rather than following a specific framework rigidly, they adapt their approach dynamically, offering insights and adjusting strategies based on the unique needs of the team.
Which stage of the Dreyfus Model does this describe?
Expert – Experts rely on deep intuition and fluid decision-making rather than predefined rules.
True or False: In the Katzenback and Smith Model, a Pseudo-Team appears to be a team but lacks a common purpose and does not collaborate effectively.
True – A Pseudo-Team does not work together effectively because members do not commit to shared goals or accountability.
According to Katzenbach and Smith, a Potential Team lacks ________, which prevents it from reaching full team effectiveness.
Discipline and commitment – Potential Teams recognize the need for collaboration but haven’t fully developed the discipline and commitment required to be effective.
A group of employees regularly meets to share updates but does not have shared goals or mutual accountability. Each person focuses only on their own work without collaboration.
According to Katzenbach and Smith, what type of group is this?
Working Group – A Working Group consists of individuals who exchange information but do not work toward a common goal or rely on each other.
Match the team type to its description:
- Potential Team
- Real Team
- Pseudo-Team
A) Functions as a team in name only, lacking commitment or collaboration.
B) Has begun working together but lacks full discipline or accountability.
C) Works toward a common goal with shared accountability and effective collaboration.
1 → B (Potential Team → Lacks full discipline and accountability)
2 → C (Real Team → Works toward a common goal with shared accountability)
3 → A (Pseudo-Team → Lacks real commitment and collaboration)
Put the following team types in the correct order of development, from least effective to most effective, based on the Katzenbach and Smith Model:
Potential Team
High-Performance Team
Pseudo-Team
Real Team
Working Group
Working Group → Pseudo-Team → Potential Team → Real Team → High-Performance Team
During the Forming stage of team development, team members are most likely to:
A) Experience conflict and struggle for leadership
B) Begin working effectively with high trust and collaboration
C) Focus on understanding goals, roles, and expectations while being polite
D) Hold each other accountable and work with minimal supervision
C – In the Forming stage, team members are getting to know each other, understanding roles, and avoiding conflict.
True or False: In Tuckman’s Model of team development, the Storming stage is where teams experience high trust, strong collaboration, and effective decision-making.
False – The Storming stage is characterized by conflicts, power struggles, and challenges in team dynamics.
In Tuckman’s model, in the Norming stage, team members develop ________ and begin working more collaboratively with improved communication.
Cohesion and trust – The Norming stage is when relationships strengthen, roles become clearer, and teamwork improves.
Match the Performing stage characteristics with their descriptions:
- High efficiency
- Autonomous decision-making
- Strong collaboration and trust
A) Team members make decisions with minimal supervision.
B) The team operates effectively with little conflict or friction.
C) Members work together smoothly and support each other.
1 → B (High efficiency → Team operates smoothly)
2 → A (Autonomous decision-making → Minimal supervision)
3 → C (Strong collaboration and trust → Teamwork and support)
Put the following team development stages in the correct order according to Tuckman’s Model:
Performing
Forming
Adjourning
Storming
Norming
Forming → Storming → Norming → Performing → Adjourning
Match each leadership style to its correct description:
- Directing (Telling)
- Coaching (Selling)
- Supporting (Participating)
- Delegating
A) High direction, low support – Best for inexperienced individuals needing clear instructions.
B) High direction, high support – Encourages skill growth while still providing oversight.
C) Low direction, high support – Encourages autonomy but remains available for guidance.
D) Low direction, low support – Ideal for highly skilled and self-motivated individuals.
1 → A (Directing – High direction, low support)
2 → B (Coaching – High direction, high support)
3 → C (Supporting – Low direction, high support)
4 → D (Delegating – Low direction, low support)
A newly formed Agile team consists of enthusiastic but inexperienced members. The team is eager to contribute, but they lack the technical skills to work independently. As their leader, you want to maximize productivity while ensuring they develop necessary competencies.
Which leadership style from the Hersey-Blanchard Model is most effective in this situation?
A) Delegating – Give them autonomy and minimal guidance
B) Supporting – Focus on motivation while letting them self-organize
C) Coaching – Provide both guidance and encouragement to help them develop
D) Directing – Give clear instructions and closely monitor their progress
D – Directing is most effective because the team members have low competence but high commitment, requiring structured guidance and close supervision.
In the Hersey-Blanchard Model, the most effective leadership style depends on the team’s development level, which is based on two factors: competence and ________.
Commitment (or motivation/confidence) – The model assesses both skill level (competence) and willingness/engagement (commitment) to determine the right leadership approach.
Which of the following combines the most effective factors for motivating a team and ensuring alignment with organizational goals?
A) Financial compensation, opportunity to help others, recognition and rewards
B) Desire to learn/improve, financial compensation, personal passions/time
C) Recognition and rewards, financial compensation, desire to learn/improve, personal passions/time, opportunity to help others
D) Opportunity to help others, financial compensation, recognition and rewards, personal passions/time
C – The most effective team motivation strategies combine both intrinsic factors (desire to learn/improve, personal passions/time, opportunity to help others) and extrinsic factors (financial compensation, recognition, rewards), providing a balance between personal fulfillment and external recognition.
Which of the following correctly describes the key differences between training, mentoring, and coaching in an Agile team context?
A) Training provides direct instructions and skills transfer, mentoring focuses on long-term career development through advice, and coaching encourages self-reflection to solve specific problems.
B) Training is one-on-one guidance, mentoring focuses on team collaboration, and coaching offers advice for technical skills.
C) Training involves long-term, one-on-one guidance, mentoring provides problem-solving for immediate goals, and coaching teaches technical skills.
D) Training emphasizes technical expertise, mentoring is hands-off advice-giving, and coaching is focused on offering solutions for personal development.
A – Training provides structured learning and skills transfer, mentoring offers career guidance and development, while coaching focuses on helping individuals identify and solve problems themselves through self-reflection.
Which of the following best describes the Self-Awareness quadrant of Goleman’s Emotional Intelligence Model?
A) Recognizing and managing your own emotions, controlling emotional reactions
B) Understanding others’ emotions and responding empathetically
C) Building relationships and developing social skills
D) Recognizing and understanding your own emotions, and how they affect others
D - Self-Awareness involves recognizing and understanding your own emotions and how they impact your thoughts and behavior.
True or False: Self-Regulation in Goleman’s Emotional Intelligence Model refers to the ability to understand your emotions but not necessarily control them in difficult situations.
False – Self-Regulation involves not only understanding but also managing your emotions, particularly in stressful or challenging situations, to maintain control and act thoughtfully.
The Social Awareness quadrant of Goleman’s Emotional Intelligence Model involves recognizing and understanding the emotions of others, particularly in terms of ________.
Social Awareness requires empathy, which allows you to understand others’ emotions and respond appropriately to their feelings and needs.
Match the Relationship Management concepts to their descriptions:
- Conflict Management
- Teamwork and Collaboration
- Inspirational Leadership
- Influence
A) Working well with others to achieve common goals.
B) Guiding and motivating others with a shared vision.
C) Managing disagreements in a constructive way.
D) Using emotional intelligence to persuade and motivate others.
1 → C (Conflict Management → Managing disagreements constructively)
2 → A (Teamwork and Collaboration → Working well with others)
3 → B (Inspirational Leadership → Guiding and motivating others)
4 → D (Influence → Persuading and motivating others using emotional intelligence)
Which of the following best describes the Open Area in the Johari Window Model of Emotional Intelligence?
A) Information about you that others know but you are unaware of.
B) Information that both you and others are aware of, contributing to mutual understanding.
C) Information that you are aware of, but others are not.
D) Information about you that you hide from others intentionally.
B – The Open Area represents information, feelings, and experiences that are openly shared and known by both yourself and others.
The Hidden Area in the Johari Window represents information you are aware of but choose to keep hidden from others.
True – The Hidden Area contains information that you are aware of but intentionally keep private or concealed from others.
The Blind Spot in the Johari Window refers to information that others know about you, but you are ________ of.
Unaware – The Blind Spot consists of traits, behaviors, or information about you that others perceive but you are not conscious of.
Match the Johari Window quadrants to their descriptions:
- Open Area
- Hidden Area
- Blind Spot
- Unknown Area
A) Information that you and others are both aware of, contributing to mutual understanding.
B) Information you are aware of, but others are not.
C) Information others know about you, but you are unaware of.
D) Information that is unknown to both you and others, often requiring self-reflection or feedback to uncover.
1 → A (Open Area → Information known to both)
2 → B (Hidden Area → Information you know but hide)
3 → C (Blind Spot → Information others know but you are unaware of)
4 → D (Unknown Area → Information unknown to both you and others)
How does Emotional Intelligence (EI) help individuals expand into the Open Area of the Johari Window?
A) By increasing self-awareness and encouraging individuals to reveal more about themselves to others.
B) By helping individuals conceal their emotions to maintain control over their personal information.
C) By improving their ability to keep personal feelings and thoughts hidden from others for strategic purposes.
D) By pushing individuals to remain unaware of their emotional states while focusing on external perceptions.
A – Emotional Intelligence (EI) enhances self-awareness and empathy, which encourages individuals to share more openly, thereby expanding the Open Area of the Johari Window. This leads to increased trust and mutual understanding within teams.
Question:
Which of the following DISC dimensions focuses on an individual’s ability to stay calm, patient, and supportive, particularly in the face of change or conflict?
A) Dominance
B) Influence
C) Steadiness
D) Conscientiousness
Correct Answer: C – Steadiness focuses on qualities such as patience, calmness, and the ability to support others, especially during times of change or conflict.
True or False: In the DISC Emotional Intelligence model, individuals with a Dominant (D) style are typically more emotionally intelligent because they can easily empathize with others.
False – While Dominant (D) individuals are often assertive and results-driven, they may not always be the most empathetic. Emotional intelligence in the DISC model varies across the styles, with Influence (I) and Steadiness (S) generally being more aligned with higher empathy and emotional awareness.
Which of the following best describes the three levels of active listening: Level 1 Internal Listening, Level 2 Focused Listening, and Level 3 Global Listening?
A) Level 1 focuses on internal thoughts, Level 2 requires full concentration on the speaker’s words, and Level 3 focuses on the context, emotions, and broader understanding.
B) Level 1 is about understanding context, Level 2 requires listening for key details, and Level 3 involves multi-tasking while listening.
C) Level 1 involves hearing the words only, Level 2 involves distracted listening, and Level 3 involves selective listening based on your agenda.
D) Level 1 focuses on giving advice, Level 2 is about passive listening, and Level 3 involves ignoring non-verbal cues.
A – Level 1 Internal Listening involves focusing on your internal thoughts or reactions, Level 2 Focused Listening demands full concentration on the speaker’s words and message, and Level 3 Global Listening considers the broader context, emotions, and deeper meaning behind the message.
Which of the following best describes the four core actions of a facilitator, according to the International Association of Facilitators (IAF)?
A) Design, Plan, Monitor, Evaluate
B) Initiate, Guide, Evaluate, Close
C) Prepare, Enable, Support, Monitor
D) Create, Lead, Facilitate, Review
C – The four core actions of a facilitator according to the IAF are Prepare, Enable, Support, and Monitor. These actions ensure the facilitator is well-prepared, supports the group’s engagement, and manages the process effectively.
True or False: In the Thumbs Up/Down/Sideways decision-making model, a thumb sideways indicates a team member is neutral or has no strong opinion about the decision.
True – A thumbs sideways indicates neutrality or indecision, where the team member neither supports nor opposes the decision.
Pros: Fast, clear, and easy to understand.
Cons: May not provide enough insight into team members’ reasons for their decision.
What does Participatory Decision Making Involve?
That stakeholders are part of the decision making process and this is critical for engagement and information exchange.
Which of the following is a key advantage of the Simple Voting decision-making model?
A) It provides quick and easy consensus on decisions.
B) It allows for in-depth discussion before making a decision.
C) It requires all team members to vote for the same option.
D) It works well for complex decisions with many variables.
A – The Simple Voting model is quick and easy, allowing teams to make decisions rapidly, but it may lack deeper engagement or consensus.
Cons: May not achieve consensus, can lead to divided groups.
In the Fist of Five decision-making model, a fist (zero fingers) indicates a complete ____________ of the decision, while five fingers indicates full ____________ of the decision.
Opposition, support – A fist means full opposition to the decision, while five fingers indicate complete support.
Pros: Allows for more nuanced feedback, encouraging team members to express varying levels of agreement.
Cons: Can be time-consuming and may still lack the depth of understanding for reasons behind disagreements.
A team needs to quickly decide on a location for a team-building event. They use the Simple Voting model and after voting, one option has a majority of votes, but a significant minority opposes it. What is a potential downside of this outcome?
A) The decision was made without any feedback.
B) The minority may feel unheard, potentially creating division within the team.
C) The decision-making process took too long.
D) The team spent too much time discussing the options.
B – Simple Voting may lead to a decision where the minority feels ignored, potentially creating division or disengagement within the team.
Match each decision-making model with its pro and con:
- Simple Voting
- Thumbs Up/Down/Sideways
- Fist of Five
A) Pro: Easy and quick to use. Con: May result in divisiveness and lack of in-depth discussion.
B) Pro: Allows for quick decisions with clear visual feedback. Con: May not capture the depth of team members’ opinions.
C) Pro: Enables more detailed feedback on the level of support. Con: May be time-consuming and can still lack context.
1 → A (Simple Voting → Easy and quick, but can be divisive)
2 → B (Thumbs Up/Down/Sideways → Quick with clear feedback, but may lack detail)
3 → C (Fist of Five → Detailed feedback on support levels, but may take time)
Which of the following correctly lists the five levels of conflict resolution as described in the book Coaching Agile Teams by Lyssa Adkins?
A) Problem to solve, Disagreement, Contest, Crusade, World War
B) Problem to solve, Debate, Contest, Conflict, War
C) Disagreement, Contest, Collaboration, Crusade, World War
D) Problem to solve, Competition, Disagreement, Collaboration, World War
A – The five conflict resolution levels as described by Lyssa Adkins are Problem to solve, Disagreement, Contest, Crusade, and World War.
Match each conflict resolution level with its corresponding description:
1. Level 1: Problem to Solve; 2. Level 2: Disagreement; 3. Level 3: Contest; 4. Level 4: Crusade; 5. Level 5: World War
A) The conflict has escalated to a point where individuals see their position as a moral cause, leading to factions and polarization.
B) At this level, there is a collaborative effort to solve the issue, with open communication and shared solutions.
C) The conflict has become deeply entrenched, with communication and trust broken down, and the focus is on “winning at all costs.”
D) Individuals are defending their positions strongly, and the conversation turns competitive, often focusing on winning rather than resolving the issue.
E) Differences in opinion arise, but the conflict is still manageable with open discussion and some emotional tension.
1 → B (Problem to Solve → Collaborative problem-solving)
2 → E (Disagreement → Manageable tension and differing opinions)
3 → D (Contest → Competitive, focused on winning)
4 → A (Crusade → Moral cause, factions, ideological conflict)
5 → C (World War → Breakdown of trust, entrenched positions)
Which of the following correctly orders the steps in the conflict resolution process to help effectively resolve conflicts?
A) Identification, Prioritization, Strategy Decision, Analysis, Implementation, Evaluation
B) Analysis, Prioritization, Identification, Strategy Decision, Evaluation, Implementation
C) Identification, Prioritization, Analysis, Strategy Decision, Implementation, Evaluation
D) Strategy Decision, Evaluation, Analysis, Implementation, Identification, Prioritization
The correct order of the conflict resolution process is Identification, Prioritization, Analysis, Strategy Decision, Implementation, and Evaluation.
Which of the following best describes the Withdrawing conflict resolution strategy?
A) Win/Win, typically used when the issue is minor or when time is needed for reflection, and it is most often seen at Level 1: Problem to Solve.
B) Win/Lose, used when one party needs to assert control or dominance, and it is common at Level 3: Contest.
C) Lose/Lose, often seen in highly emotional and entrenched conflicts, typically found at Level 5: World War.
D) Lose/Lose, used when avoiding a situation or person is the best course of action, and it often appears at Level 2: Disagreement.
D – Withdrawing is a Lose/Lose strategy, used to avoid the conflict, often when the issue is not worth addressing. It is commonly seen at Level 2: Disagreement.
True or False: The Forcing conflict resolution strategy is a Win/Lose strategy and is most likely used in Level 3: Contest, where one party aims to dominate the situation and win at the other’s expense.
True – Forcing is a Win/Lose strategy, typically used in more competitive situations, where one party seeks to win at the expense of the other, and this is often found at Level 3: Contest.
The Smoothing conflict resolution strategy is a ________ strategy, where one party attempts to downplay differences and prioritize harmony. This strategy is most commonly used in Level 2: Disagreement.
Win/Lose
Match each conflict resolution strategy with its corresponding win/lose type and conflict level:
- Withdrawing (AKA Avoiding)
- Forcing (AKA Competing)
- Smoothing (AKA Accommodating)
- Compromising (AKA Bargaining/Sharing)
- Collaboration (AKA Problem Solving or Confrontation)
A) Win/Lose, Level 4: Crusade
B) Win/WIn, Level 1: Problem to Solve or Level 2: Disagreement
C) Lose/Lose, Level 5: World War
D) Win/Lose, Level 3: Contest
E) Win/Win or Lose/Lose Level 2: Disagreement
1 → C (Withdrawing → Lose/Lose, Level 5: World War)
2 → A (Forcing → Win/Lose, Level 4: Crusade)
3 → D (Smoothing → Win/Lose, Level 3: Contest)
4 → E (Compromising → Win/WIn or Lose/Lose Level 2: Disagreement)
5 → B (Collaboration → Win/Win, Level 1: Problem to Solve or Level 2: Disagreement)
In a team that is facing a problem to solve (Level 1), which conflict resolution strategy is most appropriate to ensure both parties’ needs are met and a win/win solution is achieved?
A) Forcing – To ensure a decisive and quick resolution
B) Smoothing – To avoid escalation and maintain peace
C) Compromising – To find a middle ground
D) Collaboration – To work together and find a solution that benefits everyone
D – Collaboration is the best approach in a problem-solving scenario (Level 1) as it ensures both parties’ needs are met and results in a win/win solution.
True or False: The Teaching (Training/Mentoring) competency is considered to be content-oriented, as it focuses on transferring knowledge and skills to others.
True – The Teaching (Training/Mentoring) competency focuses on content, imparting knowledge and skills to others.
The Agile-Lean Practitioner competency is characterized by a combination of both __________ and __________ orientations, as it requires both understanding content (tools, frameworks) and knowing how to apply them in practice.
Content-Oriented and Process-Oriented
In an Agile team, a coach focuses on guiding the team through their challenges by asking open-ended questions, helping the team members reflect on their goals, and facilitating discussions. This activity represents which competency in the Agile Coaching Competency Framework?
A) Teaching (Training/Mentoring)
B) Agile-Lean Practitioner
C) Professional Coaching/Facilitating
D) Mastery: Technical/Business Transformation
C – This scenario represents Professional Coaching/Facilitating, which is process-oriented and focuses on guiding and supporting the team’s decision-making process.
Match the Agile Coaching Competency with its focus and orientation:
- Teaching (Training/Mentoring)
- Agile-Lean Practitioner
- Professional Coaching/Facilitating
- Mastery: Technical/Business Transformation
A) Focuses on guiding individuals or teams through their challenges and enhancing their process skills.
B) Involves deep expertise in technical and business transformation, with a strong content-oriented approach.
C) Focuses on imparting knowledge and skills, content-oriented.
D) Involves both content and process application, often including tools and frameworks.
1 → C (Teaching (Training/Mentoring) → Content-Oriented)
2 → D (Agile-Lean Practitioner → Both Content-Oriented and Process-Oriented)
3 → A (Professional Coaching/Facilitating → Process-Oriented)
4 → B (Mastery: Technical/Business Transformation → Content-Oriented)
Which competency in the Agile Coaching Competency Framework is primarily focused on technical/business transformation and is content-oriented?
A) Teaching (Training/Mentoring)
B) Agile-Lean Practitioner
C) Professional Coaching/Facilitating
D) Mastery: Technical/Business Transformation
D – Mastery: Technical/Business Transformation focuses on deep expertise in technical or business changes and is content-oriented.
