Agency and Negligence & Company formation Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following does NOT need to be shown by the claimant in order to succeed in an action for negligence?

a) That the defendant owed them a duty of care.
b) That the defendant was in breach of a duty of care.
c) That the claimant suffered injury, damage or loss as a result of a breach of a duty of care.
d) That the damage was not too remote.

A

d) That the damage was not too remote.

This is a matter for the court to decide in assessing damages once negligence has been shown (ie once the claimant has proved all other statements satisfactorily).

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2
Q

Define the features of the following ways agency can be c #reated:

a) By Consent

b) By Estoppel

c) By Necessity

d) By Ratification

A

a) Agency agreed on orally or in writing. Exception: power of attorney has to be in writing

b) Estoppel: Principal allows agent to act without authority

c) Necessity: Agent can act for principal in an emergency only if:
There is a pre-existing relationship
The agent has no way of contacting principal
Agent acts prudently and in good faith

d) Ratification: Principal can retrospectively approve the actions of an agent only if:
Principal (company) was formed at time
Principal has capacity at time of action and at time of ratification
Agent makes TP aware of P at time of contract
Principal ratifies within a reasonable time

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3
Q

What duties does the law imply on an agent?

A

Avoid conflicts of interest

Perform their contracted obligations and obey the principal’s instructions

Act in person - NOT ALLOWED TO DELEGATE without permission

Maintain confidentiality for principal

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4
Q

What are the rights of an agent?

A

To claim remunerations;
To reclaim expenses incurred when carrying out contract;
Lien - to retain assets until paid

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5
Q

Match the term with the definition;

a) Actual express authority

b) Implied authority

c) Apparent or ostensible authority

  1. Agent has previously represented Principal to a TP. (Estopple)
  2. Authority agreed between principal and agent
  3. Authority implied by the position held
A

a) 2
b) 3
c) 1

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6
Q

When might an agent incur personal liability in a contract?

A

If they do not name the principal or are not known to TP to be an agent

Where an agents name is added to a contract

If they make a contract on behalf of P with no authority - whether mistaken or knowingly done

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7
Q

What are the three factors that constitute a case of negligence

A
  1. A duty of care exists
  2. There has been a breach of that duty of care
  3. Damages were incurred as a result of that breach
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8
Q

What are the four features that imply a duty of care exists?

A
  1. Reasonable foreseeability of consequence
  2. Proximity of claimant to defendant in time and place
  3. It is fair, just and reasonable to impose a duty of care
  4. Not contrary to public policy
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9
Q

When is the reasonable man test applied and when may this test be altered?

A

When determining whether there has been a breach of duty of care. Has the defendant failed to act reasonably by falling below the standards reasonably expected.

Factors that alter the reasonable man test:

A higher expectation will be placed on someone who has more qualifications, skills or knowledge in a particular area - but - the expectations will not be lowered for trainees/those will less skills.

The test will not factor in knowledge that only came available after the fact - no hindsight

If the defendant can rely on a body of professional opinion that supports the approach taken then there will be no breach

If defendant was acting in an emergency. There will be a weigh up of the advantage of the risk taken.

If defendant knew about claimants vulnerability, a higher duty of care is expected

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10
Q

What is the ‘but for’ test?

A

The claimant must prove that the damage would not have occurred but for the defendants actions

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11
Q

When is the chain of causation broken?

A

When a new act occurs after the defendant’s breach that caused or contributed to the damage. Defendant’s liability ceases at this point

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12
Q

What factors are used to determine whether accountants and auditors are in sufficient proximity to the claimant to permit a negligence claim?

Special relationship formation

A
  1. A client requests a professional opinion
  2. The accountant/auditor gives a professional opinion acting in a professional capacity
  3. The client relies upon the opinion
  4. the claimant suffers an economic loss as a result of reliance on the opinion

Only occurs if the defendant is in the business of giving professional advice and acts within that context

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13
Q

a) Does a duty of care exist if an individual relies on audited accounts to invest, unknown to the professional who prepared them?

b) Does a special relationship (and thus a duty of care) exist of an accountant prepares information in the knowledge that the claimant is contemplating an investment/takeover

A

a) No - could make accountants liable to whole world

b) yes

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14
Q

True or false;

a) An auditor who recklessly prepares an auditors report that contains materially misleading information is punishable by a fine

b) Auditors can enter into a provision that exempts their liability for negligence in relation to the audited accounts

A

a) True

b) False - this would be void. Instead, auditors can enter into a liability limitation agreement that limits the auditors liability for negligence to a fair and reasonable amount

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15
Q

In what situations may courts lift the veil of incorporation?

A

To produce a tax liability/prevent evasion of tax

To give compensation

To reveal member’s national identity

If a director is disqualified

If a Plc trades without a certificate

Fraudulent trading - intending to defraud by trading an insolvent company

Wrongful trading - not taking all steps to minimise losses to creditors when trading an insolvent co.

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16
Q

Indicate whether the following types of company are public or private:

a) Plc

b) Ltd

c) Companies limited by guarantee

d) Companies limited by shares

e) Unlimited liability companies

A

a) Public

b) Private

c) Private

d) Both - public can trade shares on stock exchange whereas private companies have to find private buyers.

e) Private

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17
Q

What is the memorandum of association?

A

A list of initial formers of the company - take at least one share each

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18
Q

True or false;

a) When forming a company, if articles of association are not supplied, then default articles will apply

b) When forming a company, if articles of association are not supplied, then the company formation cannot be completed

A

a) True

b) False

19
Q

Are promoters entitled to reclaim expenses incurred during formation?

A

Not automatically - needs to be expressly agreed

20
Q

In what circumstances can a company omit Ltd from their name?

A

If they promote cultural, religious or educational activities and the profits are applied to such activities - NFP

21
Q

Within how many days must a copy of amended articles of association be sent to the Registrar?

A

15 days

22
Q

True or false;

a) The articles of association of a company and cannot be changed

b) The articles of association can bind members to buy more shares

A

a) False - can be changed by special resolution. Entrenchment refers to a situation where the articles can be harder to change, e.g. weighted voting rights

b) false

23
Q

How often are directors remunerations voted on for listed companies?

A

Every 3 years

24
Q

How often is a confirmation statement updated?

A

Every year

25
Q

In what situations can a company be exempt from an audit?

A

Micro and small companies (unless insurance or banking)

Dormant cos

Subsidiaries if parent guarantees their liabilities

26
Q

On 10 April, Lucy offered to sell her flute to Harriet for £300. Harriet said she’d pay £275 for it. Lucy said she’d take £285 and Harriet should let her know (in writing) by lunchtime Friday 14 April if she agreed to that price, because she was attending an orchestra rehearsal on the Friday evening and, if Harriet didn’t want it, she might sell it there. Harriet posted her reply along with a cheque for £285 in the 7am post on Friday. On Friday evening, Lucy sold the flute to Alice. The next day, Lucy receives Harriet’s cheque.

Which of the following best describes the legal position?

a) A valid contract exists at 7am on Friday when Harriet posts her acceptance of Lucy’s offer.

b) A valid contract exists on Saturday when Lucy receives Harriet’s cheque and Lucy is in breach of contract.

c) There is no valid contract because Lucy impliedly revokes her offer when she sells the flute to Alice.

d) There is no valid contract because Harriet does not effect a valid acceptance of it while the offer remains open and capable of acceptance.

A

d) There is no valid contract because Harriet does not effect a valid acceptance of it while the offer remains open and capable of acceptance.

Lucy required written notice to have reached her by lunchtime on Friday. This means that the postal rule is not effective to render the acceptance valid when posted. By the time Harriet’s ‘acceptance’ is communicated, the offer has lapsed.

27
Q

Cogs Ltd has been a manufacturer of parts for mill wheels for over 100 years. It has recently contracted to supply several parts to Wheatmagic Ltd, following the liquidation of that company’s regular supplier. Each party argues that its own standard terms and conditions apply to the contract between them.

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false;

a) The term used to describe such a situation is ‘the battle of the forms’

b) In such a situation, the rule is that the terms and conditions most recently sent from one party to the other will apply to the contract.

A

a) True.
b) False.

It may be that neither party’s standard terms and conditions will apply. It will be a question of fact in all the circumstances.

28
Q

Where there has been anticipatory breach of contract the injured party is entitled to sue:

a) After a reasonable time.

b) Only from the moment the other party actually breaches a contractual condition.

c) From the moment the other party indicates that they do not intend to be bound.

d) From the moment the injured party has fulfilled their obligations but the other party indicates that they do not intend to be bound

A

c) From the moment the other party indicates that they do not intend to be bound.

Anticipatory breach or repudiation occurs when one party, expressly or by implication, indicates that they do not intend to be bound by an agreement. The injured party is entitled to sue immediately, though they may elect to allow the contract to continue until there is actual breach: Hochster v De La Tour. Because the right to sue is instantaneous, the injured party need not complete their obligations nor wait a reasonable time in order to effect their intentions.

29
Q

Are the following statements true or false?

a) The relationship between a principal and their agent is a fiduciary one.

A

a) True.

b) False.

Duties may be implied by common law and by statute.

30
Q

What type of resolution is required to alter a company’s name?

a) Special resolution.

b) Ordinary resolution.

c) Ordinary resolution with special notice.

d) Special resolution with special notice.

A

a) Special resolution.

A special resolution of 75% or more is required.

31
Q

Which of the following changes must always be made to an off-the-shelf company when it is purchased from a formation agent?

a) Changing its register of members.

b) Restricting its objects.

c) Changing its articles.

d) Changing its name.

A

a) Changing its register of members.

The original members will be the formation agents, and when the company is purchased, the purchasers will want to become members themselves. None of the other changes is compulsory, though in practice all would generally occur.

32
Q

How long after the anniversary date does a company have to file its next annual return?

a) 7 days.

b) 14 days.

c) 21 days.

d) 28 days.

A

d) 28 days.

Companies have 28 days to file their annual return.

33
Q

Sally and Petra run a business jointly. They each have £5,000 of capital in the business and decide to form a registered company in which they will be the sole shareholders.

What type of company should they form if they wish to protect their other assets?

a) A private company limited by shares.

b) A public company limited by shares.

c) A private company limited by guarantee.

d) An unlimited private company.

A

a) A private company limited by shares.

The capital available is below the lower limit for a plc. They wish to protect their other assets, so should not form an unlimited company. They cannot be shareholders and give a guarantee.

34
Q

How should an auditor be removed?

A

By ordinary resolution with special notice (28 days)

35
Q

a) Must an agent have full contractual capacity when forming a contract with a third party?

b) Must the Principal have full contractual capacity when the agent is forming a contract with the third party?

A

a) No

b) Yes

36
Q

In what instances must agency be created by deed?

A

When dealing with land or a lease of 3+ years

37
Q

What are the necessary conditions for ratification?

A

Principal must have been in existence at the time of the agent’s act

Principal must have had legal capacity to make the contract at the time it was formed and at time of ratification

Agent must name principal at time

Ratification must occur within a reasonable time

Ratification of part of the contract will ratify the whole contract

Inactivity does not amount to ratification

38
Q

Does a duty of care from auditors extend to existing shareholders increasing their stakes?

A

No - the duty is owed to shareholders as a whole and not to give advice on the merits of investment in the company

39
Q

Sandy is disqualified from being a directors for 5 years. After 3 years he sets up Beach Holidays Ltd, of which he is a director and a 95% shareholder. Beach holidays collapses and goes into insolvent liquidation.

a) Sandy is liable for Beach Holidays debts as a 95% shareholder and the veil will be lifted to reveal the company as a sham

b) The veil will be lifted on a statutory basis because Sandy is disqualified and he will be solely liable for the debts of Beach Holidays Ltd

c) The veil will be lifted because Sandy was acting whilst disqualified and both he and Beach Holidays Ltd will be liable for the debts on a joint and several basis

A

c

40
Q

How many times may a company alter its status; from limited to unlimited or visa versa

A

once

41
Q

How can ‘provisions for entrenchment’ be altered?

A

By approval of all company members or court order

42
Q

What is the minimum level of shares or voting rights for someone to be considered as a person with significant control?

A

25%

43
Q

If a company is exempt from an audit based on size, how many of its members need to agree to request an audit?

A

10%