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CASA ATPL NAVIGATION > AFT REVISION > Flashcards

AFT REVISION Flashcards

1
Q

Side bands (USB or LSB) are often used with AM radio propagation. An advantage of utilising sideband transmissions is -

a. external noise and interference are reduced

b. the carrier does not have to be so powerful

c. different information can be transmitted simultaneously on both bands

d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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2
Q

The VOR operates on the principle of -

a. frequency differential

b. amplitude modulation

c. phase differential

d. frequency modulation

A

c. phase differential

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3
Q

A common error to both the ADF/NDB and VOR navigation systems is -

a. vertical polarisation

b. night effect

c. coastal refraction

d. terrain effect

A

d. terrain effect

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4
Q

VOR radials are calibrated for the magnetic variation that exists -

a. at the station installation

b. at the aircraft

c. midway between the station and the aircraft

d. at the nearer pole

A

a. at the station installation

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5
Q

An error or limitation commonly associated with the VOR system is -

a. co-channel interference

b. coastal refraction

c. night effect

d. site error

A

d. site error

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6
Q

Aircraft bonding refers to -

a. the relationship between aeroplanes and pilots

b. preventing static electricity buildup on the airframe

c. ensuring an even electrical potential between different parts on the airframe

d. advanced composite glues used in modern aircraft manufacture

A

c. ensuring an even electrical potential between different parts on the airframe

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7
Q

At ranges greater than line of sight, the type of radio wave propagation on which the ADF/NDB system relies to provide accurate information is -

a. the direct wave

b. the sky wave

c. the ground wave

d. a combination of ground and sky wave

A

c. the ground wave

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8
Q

Bending and scalloping are terms used when describing errors in -

a. VOR

b. GPS

c. ADF

d. DME

A

a. VOR

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9
Q

When you select a DME frequency you are -

a. selecting a pulsed paired frequency

b. selecting a VHF phase differential between transmitter and receiver

c. selecting a VLF wave guide

d. selecting a VHF primary radar frequency

A

a. selecting a pulsed paired frequency

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10
Q

The ADF Sense antenna -

a. resolves the 180 degree ambiguity

b. fine tunes the NDB frequency

c. identifies the maximum signal position

d. identifies the null position

A

a. resolves the 180 degree ambiguity

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11
Q

An advantage of the secondary radar system over the primary radar system is that the return signal -

a. is reflected more strongly by the target

b. allows contouring of weather returns

c. is not subject to attenuation

d. may contain coded information

A

d. may contain coded information

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12
Q

You are at FL270 and 30 DME, tracking to a destination along a track which is aligned with an NDB, LOC (not approved for extended range fixing) and a VOR radial from the destination. Your aircraft has both VHF, NAV and ADF equipment. The aid you should use for tracking is -

a. the LOC

b. the VOR

c. the NDB

d. the LOC, if you intend to carry out an ILS or LOC approach, otherwise the VOR

A

b. the VOR (AIP ENR 1.1-27 para 17.4.3 and GEN 1.5-5 para2.2c)

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13
Q

The theoretical range of a VOR at a receiver height of 12000 ft is -

a. 134 nm

b. 110 nm

c. 100 nm

d. 150 nm

A

a. 134 nm

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14
Q

An advantage of the secondary radar system over the primary radar system is that the return signal -

a. is reflected more strongly by the target

b. allows contouring of weather returns

c. is not subject to attenuation

d. eliminates unwanted returns (clutter)

A

d. eliminates unwanted returns (clutter)

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15
Q

At ranges up to line of sight, the type of radio wave propagation on which the ADF/NDB system relies to provide accurate information is -

a. the direct wave

b. the sky wave

c. the ground wave

d. a combination of ground and sky wave

A

a. the direct wave

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16
Q

The error or limitation commonly associated with the NDB system is -

a. vertical polarisation

b. ground station error

c. scalloping and bending

d. terrain effect

A

d. terrain effect

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17
Q

An aircraft is being navigated solely by reference to radio navigation aids. The maximum permissible time interval between positive radio fixes is -

a. one hour

b. two hours

c. three hours

d. a variable time calculated according to expected tracking error

A

b. two hours (AIP ENR 1.1-25 para 19.1.1b)

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18
Q

An aircraft is operating under the IFR. It is exempted from the requirement to obtain fixes at the specified intervals when -

a. equipped with an approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route

b. it carries a three member crew

c. GPS equipped

d. using VFR procedures

A

a. equipped with an approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route

(AIP ENR 1.1-25 para 19.1.1a/b)

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19
Q

The ADF loop antenna -

a. resolves the 180 degree ambiguity

b. fine tunes the NDB frequency

c. identifies the maximum signal position

d. identifies the null position

A

d. identifies the null position

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20
Q

HF radio waves primarily propagate by -

a. ground waves

b. diffracting ground waves

c. direct waves

d. single and multi-hop sky waves

A

d. single and multi-hop sky waves

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21
Q

Your VOR OBS is set to a required track of 090, and you have a from flag displayed. The CDI has moved 4 degrees to the right. DME distance from the station is 45 nm. The distance off the required track you are is -

a. 2 nm

b. 4 nm

c. 3 nm

d. 6 nm

A

c. 3 nm

(DIST OFF TR = DIST TRAVELLED * ANGLE OFF TR / 60)

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22
Q

The centre line of the localiser of an ILS is determined by -

a. phase comparison of the signal modulation radiated from each side of the centreline

b. a locus of points of equal signal modulation radiated from each side of the centreline

c. frequency comparison of signal modulation radiated from each side of the centreline

d. the doppler shift of the signal modulation radiated from each side of the centreline

A

b. a locus of points of equal signal modulation radiated from each side of the centreline

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23
Q

In an ILS display, full deflection of the glide path needle occurs when the aircraft is -

a. 0.5 degrees above or below the glide path

b. 0.7 degrees above or below the glide path

c. 1.0 degrees above or below the glide path

d. 1.4 degrees above or below the glide path

A

b. 0.7 degrees above or below the glide path

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24
Q

As an aircraft approaches an enroute DME station when overflying, the DME distance readout will -

a. reduce at an increasing rate to zero overhead, then increase at an increasing rate back to the correct value after station passage

b. reduce at an decreasing rate to read height in nm overhead, then increase at an increasing rate after station passage

c. reduce at an increasing rate to read height in nm overhead, then increase at an decreasing rate after station passage

d. reduce at an increasing rate to zero overhead, then increase at a decreasing rate back to the correct value after station passage

A

b. reduce at an decreasing rate to read height in nm overhead, then increase at an increasing rate after station passage

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25
Q

The wavelength of a radio signal is defined as -

a. the number of wavelengths passing a given point in one second

b. the length of a radio wave from any point to the same point on the next cycle

c. the number of wavelengths passing a given point in one minute

d. amplitude divided by frequency

A

b. the length of a radio wave from any point to the same point on the next cycle

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26
Q

The microwave landing system (MLS) has the advantage of -

a. curved approaches

b. multiple runway coverage

c. greater traffic capacity

d. GPS coupling

A

a. curved approaches

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27
Q

The nearest to the maximum altitude a continuous wave RADALT will usually indicate is -

a. 20000 ft

b. 10000 ft

c. 5000 ft

d. 2500 ft

A

d. 2500 ft

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28
Q

Advantages of the gyrostabilised remote indicating compass over the direct reading magnetic compass are -

a. no errors, output can be connected to other flight instruments

b. low power operation, simple and economical

c. reliable, reduced errors and not reliant on external power supply

d. reduced turning and acceleration errors, reduced deviation and slaveable output

A

d. reduced turning and acceleration errors, reduced deviation and slaveable output

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29
Q

Advantages of the direct reading magnetic compass over the gyrostabilised remote indicating compass are -

a. minimal errors, effective anywhere on the globe

b. not reliant on external power, simple construction and economical

c. output can be slaved to other instruments, stable readout in turbulence

d. unaffected by latitude, inexpensive and lightweight

A

b. not reliant on external power, simple construction and economical

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30
Q

Aircraft weather radar suffers from attenuation. The term ‘attenuation’ means -

a. mixing of ground clutter with cloud returns

b. weakening of the radar transmissions and returns

c. unwanted returns from side lobes

d. distortion of the beam width and pulse length

A

b. weakening of the radar transmissions and returns

31
Q

The principal advantage of an IVSI over a conventional VSI is that it -

a. is more accurate during a steady climb or descent

b. does not rely on air pressure from the static source

c. utilises an electrical servo to assist indication of climb and descent

d. utilises an inertial system to assist indication of climb and descent

A

d. utilises an inertial system to assist indication of climb and descent

32
Q

One advantage of the gyrostabilised remote indicating compass over the direct reading compass is -

a. it is not affected by magnetic variation

b. turning and acceleration errors are minimised

c. it is not affected by magnetic influences in the aircraft

d. the complete system can be mounted behind the instrument panel

A

b. turning and acceleration errors are minimised

33
Q

A Flux Valve for a RMI is usually located -

a. in a remote location such as the wing tip or tail section of an aircraft

b. behind the instrument panel in the overhead console

c. IAS corrected for pressure, instrument and compressibility errors

d. in the nose cone

A

a. in a remote location such as the wing tip or tail section of an aircraft

34
Q

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is -

a. IAS corrected for pressure, instrument and compressibility errors

b. IAS corrected for pressure and instrument errors, for practical purposes IAS approximates CAS

c. EAS corrected for density error

d. TAS corrected for compressibility errors

A

b. IAS corrected for pressure and instrument errors, for practical purposes IAS approximates CAS

35
Q

With regard to RMI, constant oscillation of the annunciator indicates

a. the gyro cannot be aligned and the system has failed

b. the gyro is being realigned, so the system can’t be used until realignment is complete

c. the flux valve is unable to correctly sense the earth’s magnetic field

d. the system is operating normally and the gyro is ‘hunting’ about the mean position

A

d. the system is operating normally and the gyro is ‘hunting’ about the mean position

36
Q

Q10 A blocked static vent on descent will cause the ASI to -

a. overread

b. underread

c. read zero

d. read correctly

A

a. overread

PUDSUC

37
Q

The worst error in a gyro stabilised magnetic compass is -

a. deviation

b. transport error

c. turning and acceleration

d. earth rate wander

A

a. deviation

38
Q

When using a weather radar, the most turbulent areas are identified by -

a. the centre of the avoid area

b. the closest contours, nearest the avoid zone

c. the outer edge of the avoid area

d. the position where the contours are at the greatest spacing

A

b. the closest contours, nearest the avoid zone

39
Q

During a descent the pitot tube of an ASI becomes blocked. As a result the ASI will -

a. read zero

b. underread

c. continue to read the same airspeed as before the blockage occurred

d. overread

A

b. underread

PUDSUC

40
Q

The ability of airborne weather radar to distinguish between targets at the same altitude and bearing but at different ranges (range resolution) is determined by -

a. transmitter power

b. antenna size

c. wave length

d. pulse length

e. beam width

A

d. pulse length

41
Q

With regard to continuous wave and pulsed wave altimeters -

a. Radar Altimeters (pulsed) are used for low level indications, while Radio Altimeters (continuous wave) are used for high level indications

b. Radar Altimeters (pulsed) are used for high level indications, while Radio Altimeters (continuous wave) are used for low level indications

c. both types have the same useful range of operation

d. it is the type of terrain (eg. water, sand or snow) that determines the range of the system, not the method used to transmit the signal

A

b. Radar Altimeters (pulsed) are used for high level indications, while Radio Altimeters (continuous wave) are used for low level indications

42
Q

An aircraft is descending on the glide path of an ILS. The QNH is 1013 HPA and the temp is ISA-15 at all levels.

Assuming that the aircraft is exactly on the glide path, that the equipment is accurate and that the QNH is correctly set, the altimeter indication in relation to the glide path would be -

a. above the glide path

b. on the glide path

c. below the glide path

d. unable to determine without a radar altimeter

A

a. above the glide path

43
Q

Aircraft weather radar suffers from attenuation. The term ‘attenuation’ means -

a. mixing of ground clutter with cloud returns

b. weakening of the radar transmissions and returns

c. unwanted returns from side lobes

d. distortion of the beam width and pulse length

A

b. weakening of the radar transmissions and returns

44
Q

If an aircraft heading South over continental Australia suddenly decelerates, the compass reading will initially -

a. turn East

b. turn West

c. will remain steady

d. oscillate then return to its original heading

A

c. will remain steady

45
Q

If an aircraft heading East over continental Australia suddenly decelerates, the compass reading will initially -

a. turn North

b. turn South

c. will remain steady

d. oscillate then return to its original heading

A

a. turn North

46
Q

In a vertical axis gyroscope at the South pole -

a. drift and topple due to Earth rate rotation will be at the maximum values

b. drift and topple due to Earth rate rotation will be zero

c. drift will be zero and topple will be maximum

d. drift will be maximum and topple will be zero

A

b. drift and topple due to Earth rate rotation will be zero

47
Q

In a horizontal axis gyroscope at the South pole -

a. drift and topple due to Earth rate rotation will be at the maximum values

b. drift and topple due to Earth rate rotation will be zero

c. drift will be zero and topple will be maximum

d. drift will be maximum and topple will be zero

A

d. drift will be maximum and topple will be zero

48
Q

An aircraft is parked on the ground at a position of 30°S latitude with all electrical and avionics systems operating. The most correct statement with regards to the error in a directional gyroscope is -

a. it would have no error

b. it would have half the error as in flight

c. it would have the same error as in flight

d. it would have twice the error as in flight

A

c. it would have the same error as in flight

49
Q

An aircraft with a latitude compensated directional gyro is flown to the equivalent latitude in the opposite hemisphere. The error experienced at this new latitude, compared to an uncompensated gyro will be

a. the same

b. doubled

c. halved

d. inversely proportional to the square of the cosine of the latitude

A

b. doubled

50
Q

For accurate altitude measurements, the number of channels a GPS receiver needs is -

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

A

d. 4

51
Q

The minimum number of satellites required to eliminate GPS receiver clock error is -

a. 4

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

A

a. 4

52
Q

The most significant GPS error is caused by -

a. thunderstorms

b. the ionosphere

c. solar flares

d. micro meteors

A

b. the ionosphere

53
Q

The minimum number of satellites needed for an accurate 3D GPS fix is -

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

A

d. 4

54
Q

Use of the pseudo-random code allows -

a. each satellite to transmit on the same frequency

b. each satellite to transmit on the same code

c. each satellite to transmit on both AM and FM

d. each satellite to transmit in turn

A

a. each satellite to transmit on the same frequency

55
Q

In the GPS, the error called ‘geometric dilution of precision’ (GDOP or PDOP) is caused by -

a. a wide angle between satellites

b. a small distance between satellites

c. ionospheric slowing

d. receiver aerial at the wrong angle

A

b. a small distance between satellites

56
Q

GPS works on the principle of -

a. doppler shift

b. time signals

c. distance measuring

d. time difference

A

d. time difference

57
Q

The GPS pseudo-random code allows for-

a. geosynchronous satellite orbits

b. powerful transmitters

c. military messages to be transmitted secretly

d. low power operation

A

d. low power operation

58
Q

The following one which is not a characteristic of the GPS ‘P’ code is

a. it is for use only by US Department of Defence authorised users

b. it can be encrypted

c. it is on a higher frequency than the C/A code

d. it is theoretically more accurate than the C/A code

A

c. it is on a higher frequency than the C/A code

59
Q

GPS receivers can reduce the magnitude of GDOP (PDOP) error -

a. by automatic signal reprocessing

b. by going into memory mode until the error is resolved

c. by selecting the four best spaced satellites available

d. they cannot reduce this error

A

c. by selecting the four best spaced satellites available

60
Q

In relation to background radio noise, the GPS signal is -

a. stronger

b. weaker

c. the same

d. on a different frequency

A

b. weaker

61
Q

Inputs required to be entered into an Inertial Reference System (IRS) by the crew preflight are -

a. magnetic variation

b. initial position

c. planned groundspeed

d. TAS

A

b. initial position

62
Q

An Inertial Reference System (IRS) will accept automatic position updates from -

a. enroute NDBs at station passage

b. NDB bearing lines intersecting at not less than 45 degrees within 30 nm

c. only co located VOR/DME

d. VOR or DME

A

d. VOR or DME

63
Q

Flight Crew using INS/IRS for navigation in CTA must advise ATC when times between updates exceed -

a. 2 hours

b. 5 hours for a single unit or 12 hours for multiple units

c. 3 hours for a single unit or 5 hours for multiple units

d. 30 min

A

c. 3 hours for a single unit or 5 hours for multiple units (AIP GEN 1.5 para 8.3.1)

64
Q

On a Lambert’s conformal conic projection, a straight line is drawn from 35 deg * S 139 ^ 0 * E to the destination at 38 deg * S 145 deg * E The Rhumb line track for the same trip would be -

a. coincident with the great circle track

b. left of the straight line track

c. right of the straight line track

d. on the straight line track

A

b. left of the straight line track

65
Q

On a Lambert’s conformal conic projection, a straight line is drawn from 35 deg * S 139 ^ 0 * E to the destination at 28 deg * S * 139 deg * E The Rhumb line track for the same trip would be -

a. equal to the great circle track only at half way

b. left of the straight line track

c. right of the straight line track

d. on the straight line track

A

d. on the straight line track

66
Q

On a polar stereographic chart, meridians appear as -

a. straight lines

b. curves concave to the pole

c. curves concave to the equator

d. curves concave to the point of origin

A

a. straight lines

67
Q

On a Lambert’s conformal conical projection, a Great Circle track away from the parallel of origin appears -

a. concave to the parallel of origin

b. straight

c. concave to the nearer pole

d. concave to the nearer standard parallel

A

a. concave to the parallel of origin

68
Q

On a Mercator’s projection a straight line represents -

a. a rhumb line

b. a great circle

c. an isogonal

d. the shortest path between two points

A

a. a rhumb line

69
Q

On a Polar Stereographic projection, rhumb lines are

a. represented by straight lines at high latitude, and increasingly concave to the pole at lower latitudes

b. curved concave to the equator

c. curved concave to the pole

d. straight

A

c. curved concave to the pole

70
Q

On a Polar Stereographic projection, great circles are -

a. represented by straight lines if they cross the pole, otherwise increasingly concave to the pole at lower latitudes

b. curved concave to the equator

c. curved concave to the pole

d. straight

A

a. represented by straight lines if they cross the pole, otherwise increasingly concave to the pole at lower latitudes

71
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the great circle track bearing decreases when flying -

a. North

b. South

c. East

d. West

A

d. West

72
Q

On a Lambert’s projection, the distance scale is expanded -

a. outside the standard parallels

b. between the standard parallels

c. North of the parallel of origin

d. South of the parallel of origin

A

a. outside the standard parallels

73
Q

On a Lambert’s projection a line is drawn from a point at 26°S 153°E to 26°S 143°E. The standard parallels are 24°S and 34°S. The great circle track for this flight will be -

a. North of the straight line track

b. South of the straight line track

c. on the straight line track

d. on the opposite side of the straight line track to the rhumb line

A

a. North of the straight line track

CASA ATPL NAVIGATION (1 decks)

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