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CASA ATPL A/C SYSTEMS & AERODYNAMICS > AFT FINAL REVISION TESTS > Flashcards

AFT FINAL REVISION TESTS Flashcards

1
Q

A function of a pressure relief valve in a transport category jet hydraulic system is -

a. to regulate normal system pressure
b. to prevent hydraulic seals from blowing out
c. to prevent hydraulic lock
d. to prevent jack stall

A

b. to prevent hydraulic seals from blowing out.

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2
Q

The function of the rear turbine support struts in the exhaust system of a turbojet engine is -

a. to reduce axial velocity in the jet pipe
b. to support the propelling nozzle
c. to straighten the airflow in the jet pipe
d. to increase the surface area of the exhaust cone

A

c. to straighten the airflow in the jet pipe

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3
Q

In a gas turbine engine the start bleed valve is open at idle RPM. The RPM is then increased to maximum with the bleed valve still open.

Regarding this situation -

a. this is the normal situation and would result in maximum thrust
b. the EGT will be higher that normal with reduced thrust output
c. the EGT will be lower than normal with reduced thrust output
d. the EGT will be lower than normal with increased thrust output
e. the EGT will be higher than normal with increased thrust output

A

b. the EGT will be higher that normal with reduced thrust output

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4
Q

The nozzle guide vanes (NGVs) in a gas turbine are located -

a. at the compressor inlet
b. at the compressor outlet
c. at the turbine inlet
d. at the turbine outlet

A

c. at the turbine inlet

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5
Q

Regarding the gas flow in the combustion section of a GTE -

a. pressure and temperature increase
b. pressure and temperature decrease
c. pressure is constant and temperature increases
d. pressure increases and temperature remains constant

A

c. pressure is constant and temperature increases

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6
Q

Concerning the characteristics of the airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave -

a. pressure and temperature increase
b. pressure and temperature decrease
c. pressure is constant and temperature increases
d. pressure increases and temperature remains constant

A

a. pressure and temperature increase

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7
Q

The hot gas in a jet aircraft APU for bleed air supply is taken from -

a. the compressor outlet
b. the compressor inlet
c. the combustion section
d. the exhaust section

A

a. the compressor outlet

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8
Q

The effect of CoG position on the cruise speed of an aircraft for a given power setting and weight in level flight is -

a. no effect regardless of trim position
b. a forward CoG results in a higher cruise speed
c. a rearward CoG results in a higher cruise speed
d. no effect if trimmed correctly

A

c. a rearward CoG results in a higher cruise speed

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9
Q

A constant supply of fluid from the reservoir in a jet aircraft hydraulic system is ensured by -

a. backup air driven demand pumps
b. constant delivery type pumps
c. venting the reservoir to the ambient atmosphere
d. pressurizing the reservoir with bleed air

A

d. pressurizing the reservoir with bleed air

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10
Q

On a turbojet powered aircraft the front engine pressure ratio (EPR) probes are blocked.

As the pilot advances the thrust levers to take off EPR, the EPR gauge will -

a. under read and the thrust will be less than takeoff thrust
b. over read and the thrust will be less than takeoff thrust
c. under read and the thrust will be more than takeoff thrust
d. over read and the thrust will be more than takeoff thrust

A

b. over read and the thrust will be less than takeoff thrust

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11
Q

As an aircraft altitude increases, the spiral stability will -

a. increase
b. decrease
c. not change
d. increase if IAS is increased but decrease if IAS is decreased

A

a. increase

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12
Q

In a GTE powered aircraft, less thrust is available for takeoff with -

a. high density altitude
b. low density altitude
c. high atmospheric pressure
d. low outside air temperature

A

a. high density altitude

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13
Q

In a gas turbine, engine thrust is produced -

a. by the force required to accelerate the mass of air through the engine
b. by the reaction to the impingement of exhaust gases against the outside air
c. by the reaction of the pressure difference between inlet and exhaust gases
d. by the energy of the temperature difference between inlet and exhaust gases

A

a. by the force required to accelerate the mass of air through the engine

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14
Q

In passing through the turbine section of a GTE the airflow -

a. temperature and pressure decrease
b. temperature and pressure increase
c. temperature and volume decrease
d. temperature and volume increase

A

a. temperature and pressure decrease

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15
Q

The maximum gas temperature in a GTE occurs -

a. in the combustion chamber dilution zone
b. in the combustion chamber primary zone
c. at the combustion chamber outlet
d. at the combustion chamber inlet
e. at the turbine entry

A

b. in the combustion chamber primary zone

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16
Q

The purpose of a divergent shaped inlet duct on a turbofan engine is to -

a. reduce the temperature at the engine inlet
b. increase the velocity at the engine inlet
c. increase static pressure at the engine inlet
d. increase the by-pass ratio at low forward speed

A

c. increase static pressure at the engine inlet

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17
Q

The greatest reduction in takeoff distance of a GTE powered aircraft would occur with -

a. low OAT, low QNH and low humidity
b. high OAT, high QNH and high humidity
c. high OAT, low QNH and low humidity
d. low OAT, high QNH and low humidity
e. low OAT, low QNH and high humidity

A

d. low OAT, high QNH and low humidity

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18
Q

The bypass ratio of a GTE is best described as -

a. the ratio of bypass air to total air
b. the ratio of total air to bypass air
c. the ratio of core air to bypass air
d. the ratio of bypass air to core air

A

d. the ratio of bypass air to core air

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19
Q

The least significant tyre variable relating to hydroplaning is -

a. tread pattern
b. wear
c. pressure
d. size

A

d. size

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20
Q

An advantage of nickel cadmium (NiCad) batteries compared to lead acid type batteries in a jet transport aircraft installation is -

a. less corrosion hazard
b. faster recharge
c. higher load capacity
d. no ventilation required

A

b. faster recharge

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21
Q

The electrical connection of ground AC power to the electrical system of a jet transport aircraft may be prevented when -

a. the aircraft APU is running
b. the aircraft engines are running
c. the aircraft generators are powering the electrical system
d. the aircraft is not correctly earthed

A

c. the aircraft generators are powering the electrical system

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22
Q

If an aircraft generator constant speed drive (CSD) is disconnected in flight, the correct method for reconnection is -

a. electrically, inflight
b. mechanically, on the ground
c. electrically, on the ground
d. mechanically, inflight

A

b. mechanically, on the ground

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23
Q

When a generator field relay (generator field switch) is tripped in a jet aircraft electrical system -

a. the generator is disconnected from the CSD
b. the generator excitation field is disconnected from the synchronizing bus
c. the voltage regulator is disconnected from the excitation field
d. the generator excitation field is disconnected from its bus
e. the frequency controller is disconnected from the excitation field

A

c. the voltage regulator is disconnected from the excitation field

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24
Q

The initial source of field excitation current for a 3 phase alternator in a jet transport aircraft electrical system is -

a. the main exciter
b. the main generator
c. the permanent magnet generator (PMG)
d. the voltage regulator

A

c. the permanent magnet generator (PMG)

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25
Q

In a constant frequency generator electrical system, the voltage regulator function is -

a. to control the pilot exciter field current
b. to control the PMG voltage
c. to control the voltage of the main exciter
d. to control the current of the main exciter

A

d. to control the current of the main exciter

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26
Q

The main function of the reduction drive in a turboprop installation is -

a. to convert low engine SHP to the high SHP required by the propeller
b. to convert high engine SHP to the low SHP required by the propeller
c. to convert low engine RPM to the high RPM required by the propeller
d. to convert high engine RPM to the low RPM required by the propeller

A

d. to convert high engine RPM to the low RPM required by the propeller

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27
Q

Regarding the operation of a hot battery bus in a jet aircraft electrical system -

a. a hot battery bus is powered by switching the battery switch on
b. a hot battery bus is powered whenever a charged battery is installed in the aircraft
c. a hot battery bus is only powered when the battery switch is off
d. a hot battery bus operates a higher temperature than other aircraft busses

A

b. a hot battery bus is powered whenever a charged battery is installed in the aircraft

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28
Q

An advantage of the use of AC in a large aircraft electrical system is high voltage transmission.

This permits -

a. high current levels
b. low current levels
c. minimal insulation
d. no power loss

A

b. low current levels

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29
Q

The means by which 115VAC electrical power is converted into 28VDC in a large aircraft electrical system is a -

a. IRU
b. CDU
c. TRU
d. CSD

A

c. TRU

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30
Q

Regarding the influence of ram effect on GTE thrust output -

a. ram effect results in a partial recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases
b. ram effect results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases
c. ram effect results in a partial recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed decreases
d. ram effect results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed decreases

A

b. ram effect results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases

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31
Q

In a GTE, combustion occurs at constant -

a. pressure
b. temperature
c. volume
d. velocity

A

a. pressure

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32
Q

In a typical turboprop installation, the function of the propeller brake is to -

a. control propeller RPM on descent with the engine at idle RPM
b. permit the propeller to rapidly enter beta range after landing
c. to prevent the propeller from wind milling when feathered
d. to prevent the propeller from rotating until self sustaining speed is reached on start up

A

c. to prevent the propeller from wind milling when feathered

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33
Q

A pressurized aircraft on climb reaches the maximum permitted differential pressure.

If the aircraft continues the climb -

a. the maximum differential pressure would be exceeded
b. the differential pressure would remain constant
c. the cabin altitude will remain constant
d. the cabin altitude will decrease at a rate proportional to the aircraft rate of climb

A

b. the differential pressure would remain constant

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34
Q

An advantage of constant frequency alternators in a jet transport aircraft electrical system is -

a. they do not require a voltage regulator
b. they do not require a CSD
c. they are capable of load sharing
d. they are capable of constant current output

A

c. they are capable of load sharing

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35
Q

The function of a servo tab in a flight control system is to -

a. provide trim control
b. reduce control loads
c. prevent servo runaway
d. increase control force feedback

A

b. reduce control loads

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36
Q

The aileron lockout system on a jet transport aircraft displays an “AILERON LOCKOUT” message on EICAS.

This is likely to result in -

a. poor aircraft maneuverability at low speed
b. poor aircraft maneuverability at high speed
c. over responsive roll characteristics at low speeds
d. over responsive roll characteristics at high speeds

A

a. poor aircraft maneuverability at low speed

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37
Q

Regarding the difference between kerosene and wide cut type aviation fuels -

a. kerosene has a higher volatility than wide cut type fuel
b. kerosene has a lower flashpoint than wide cut type fuel
c. kerosene has a higher specific gravity than wide cut type fuel
d. kerosene has a higher spontaneous ignition temperature than wide cut type fuel

A

c. kerosene has a higher specific gravity than wide cut type fuel

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38
Q

An input to the auto-throttle system of a jet aircraft flight management system is -

a. pressure altitude
b. TAS
c. IAS
d. density altitude

A

c. IAS

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39
Q

If a pilot selects maximum autobrakes for a landing and then subsequently applies brakes manually during the landing roll -

a. the autobrakes will override manual braking
b. the autobrakes will disarm
c. the autobrakes and manual braking will both contribute to total deceleration
d. the autobrake pressure will reduce to equal the manual brake pressure

A

b. the autobrakes will disarm

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40
Q

When flying on a long range cruise schedule, as jet aircraft gross weight reduces in cruise in level flight as fuel is consumed, the LRC Mach number will -

a. not change at a constant power setting
b. increase at a reduced power setting
c. reduce at a constant power setting
d. reduce at a reduced power setting
e. not change at a reduced power setting

A

d. reduce at a reduced power setting

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41
Q

Changes in aircraft gross weight and load factor resulting in a reduced maneuver ceiling (lower coffin corner) are -

a. lower gross weight and reduced g-load
b. lower gross weight and increased g-load
c. higher gross weight and increased g-load
d. high gross weight and reduced g-load

REDUCED = bad

A

c. higher gross weight and increased g-load

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42
Q

The secondary flight control which enhances lateral control is -

a. yaw dampers
b. leading edge flaps
c. trailing edge flaps
d. leading edge slats
e. spoilers

A

e. spoilers

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43
Q

Spiral divergence (spiral instability) is increased when -

a. lateral and directional stability are weak
b. lateral and directional stability are strong
c. lateral stability is weak and directional stability is strong
d. lateral stability is strong and directional stability is weak

A

c. lateral stability is weak and directional stability is strong

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44
Q

Vortex generators fitted to the horizontal stabilizer of a jet transport aircraft are used to -

a. reduce turbulent flow in the boundary layer at low speeds
b. reduce induced drag at low speeds
c. reduce skin friction at low speeds
d. reduce flow separation at high speeds

A

d. reduce flow separation at high speeds

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45
Q

Pneumatic actuating systems are not widely used in jet transport systems because -

a. pneumatic systems are heavier than the equivalent hydraulic system
b. compressed air is difficult to control precisely
c. the fire risk is increased
d. the reservoir must be larger

A

b. compressed air is difficult to control precisely

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46
Q

In a B767 aircraft equipped with a FMS incorporating EFIS with two electronic attitude direction indicators (EADIs) and two electronic horizontal situation indicators (EHSIs), the number of symbol generators (SGs) fitted is -

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

c. 3

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47
Q

The statement which does not describe a correct function of a line select key on a control display unit (CDU) of a flight management computer (FMC) is -

a. if the line next to a key specifies a page, function or procedure, that operation is selected by pushing the line select key
b. if the line next to a key contains data which can be copied, that data is copied to the scratch pad by pushing the line select key
c. if data is entered into the scratch pad which may be copied to a line, pushing the line select key will copy the scratch pad data to the line
d. if the line next to a key is blank, the associated line select key function depends on the CDU page in use

A

d. if the line next to a key is blank, the associated line select key function depends on the CDU page in use

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48
Q

Various warnings and cautions are announced to the pilot by aurals and the illumination of the master warning or master caution lights.

Concerning the operation of the master warning /caution system for system faults -

a. warnings and cautions cannot be cancelled as long as the associated faults still exist
b. warnings can be cancelled but a caution cannot be cancelled as long as the associated fault still exists
c. cautions can be cancelled but a warning cannot be cancelled as long as the associated fault still exists
d. warnings and cautions can be cancelled by pressing the master warning/caution caption even if the associated faults still exist

A

d. warnings and cautions can be cancelled by pressing the master warning/caution caption even if the associated faults still exist

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49
Q

The cabin pressurization control system in a jet transport aircraft typically operates in two ranges.

They are -

a. the isobaric and differential ranges
b. the positive and differential ranges
c. the positive and isobaric ranges
d. the negative and isobaric ranges
e. the positive and negative ranges

A

a. the isobaric and differential ranges

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50
Q

The autopilot systems require protection against malfunctions such as control runaways.

The item which is not an example of an autopilot protection system is -

a. torque limiters
b. rate dampeners
c. control column cutout
d. interlocks
e. feedback loops

A

e. feedback loops

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51
Q

The landing gear lever lock override switch in a jet aircraft undercarriage system is located -

a. in the nose wheel compartment
b. on the gear panel in the cockpit
c. in the undercarriage up-lock system
d. in the undercarriage down-lock system

A

b. on the gear panel in the cockpit

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52
Q

A constant delivery hydraulic system requires -

a. a pressure accumulator
b. a pressure regulator
c. a shuttle valve
d. a hydraulic fuse

A

b. a pressure regulator

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53
Q

The coldest air in an air cycle machine of a jet aircraft air conditioning system is found in the -

a. expansion turbine
b. condenser
c. compressor
d. ram duct

A

a. expansion turbine

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54
Q

Selecting bleed air on in a jet engine with no change in power lever setting will result in -

a. RPM decrease
b. RPM increase
c. no RPM change
d. EGT decrease

A

a. RPM decrease

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55
Q

Reverse thrust during the landing roll on a transport jet is most effective at -

a. high speed high RPM
b. high speed low RPM
c. low speed low RPM
d. low speed high RPM

A

a. high speed high RPM

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56
Q

Vents in the fuel tanks of a transport jet aircraft are used to -

a. defuel the aircraft
b. dump fuel in an emergency
c. refuel the aircraft
d. decrease pressure between tanks

A

d. decrease pressure between tanks

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57
Q

Cockpit window heating systems on a jet transport aircraft use laminated glass with a middle layer of -

a. hot bleed air
b. electrically conductive material
c. hot oil
d. insulating rubber

A

b. electrically conductive material

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58
Q

The purpose of compressor bleed air vented overboard in a jet engine is to assist operations at -

a. high RPM
b. all RPM ranges
c. design RPM
d. low RPM

A

d. low RPM

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59
Q

The MAP mode of a jet equipped with an EFIS shows -

a. a static map
b. engine and system status
c. waypoints
d. fuel quantity

A

c. waypoints

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60
Q

An example of a conditional waypoint in the database of a FMS is -

a. an altitude
b. a latitude and longitude
c. a place bearing/distance
d. a place bearing/place bearing

A

a. an altitude

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61
Q

A heavy 4 engined jet aeroplane with a TAS of 450kts at FL350 has a turn radius of 11nm at 20 degrees AoB.

The turn radius of a light twin jet at the same angle of bank, speed and altitude would be -

a. larger
b. the same
c. smaller
d. dependent on temperature

A

b. the same

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62
Q

Your aircraft is at an unusually high flight level for the current gross weight and is cruising at normal cruise speed. During a maneuver you feel airframe buffet.

The likely cause is -

a. high speed buffet because of the altitude
b. low speed buffet because of the altitude
c. either low speed or high speed buffet
d. clear air turbulence (CAT)

A

c. either low speed or high speed buffet

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63
Q

In supersonic airflow, static pressure behind an expansion wave will -

a. increase relative to pressure ahead of the wave
b. decrease relative to pressure ahead of the wave
c. stay the same
d. either increase or decrease depending on the direction of the flow

A

b. decrease relative to pressure ahead of the wave

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64
Q

Regarding a flap load relief system (flap limiter) in a jet transport category aircraft -

a. it senses the airspeed and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive without moving the flap lever in the cockpit
b. it senses the airspeed and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive by moving the flap lever in the cockpit
c. it senses the g-load and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive without moving the flap lever in the cockpit
e.it senses the g-load and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive by moving the flap lever in the cockpit

A

a. it senses the airspeed and retracts one stage of flap if the speed is excessive without moving the flap lever in the cockpit

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65
Q

A flight director vertical (pitch) mode is -

a. HDG HOLD
b. LOC
c. SPD
d. LNAV

A

c. SPD

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66
Q

During TCAS operations, if a RA is inhibited by selecting TA only, RAs appear -

a. as a RA
b. as a TA
c. as a hollow outlined diamond
d. as a filled outlined diamond

A

b. as a TA

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67
Q

The device which automatically feathers the propeller in the event of engine failure during takeoff is the -

a. NTS (negative torque system)
b. beta range
c. safety coupling
d. propeller brake
e. TSS (torque sensing system)

A

e. TSS (torque sensing system)

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68
Q

When a pilot selects autobrakes 3 for a landing in a jet transport category aircraft, the system -

a. will provide constant braking pressure to a complete stop or until disengaged
b. will provide constant deceleration to a complete stop or until disengaged
c. cannot be overridden by the pilot
d. cannot be adjusted to a different setting during the landing roll

A

b. will provide constant deceleration to a complete stop or until disengaged

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69
Q

The action (if any) that can override the antiskid system in a jet transport category aircraft is -

a. positioning the system to AUTO
b. positioning the system to RTO
c. manual braking
d. antiskid cannot be overridden by the pilot

A

d. antiskid cannot be overridden by the pilot

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70
Q

The function of the pressure relief valve in a jet aircraft pressurization system is -

a. to regulate cabin differential pressure within the normal range
b. to keep the cabin altitude below the aircraft altitude at all times
c. to protect the cabin from over-pressurization
d. to prevent inadvertent pressurization on the ground

A

c. to protect the cabin from over-pressurization

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71
Q

In order to avoid aeration of the fuel lines in a jet transport aircraft, the fuel system incorporates -

a. fuel tank vents
b. standpipes
c. baffles
d. boost pumps
e. engine pumps

A

d. boost pumps

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72
Q

Jet aircraft are commonly fitted with inboard and outboard ailerons and spoilers for roll control.

Regarding ailerons -

a. the inboard ailerons are always active
b. the inboard ailerons are active only at low speeds
c. the inboard ailerons are active only at high speeds
d. the inboard ailerons are active only in combination with spoiler activity

A

a. the inboard ailerons are always active

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73
Q

The yaw damper of a jet transport aircraft receives its yaw information for control from -

a. the attitude gyro
b. the directional gyro
c. the rate gyro
d. the azimuth gyro

A

c. the rate gyro

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74
Q

The most likely cause of a hot start in a gas turbine engine is -

a. headwind
b. tailwind
c. hot fuel
d. cold fuel

A

b. tailwind

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75
Q

The transition in airflow speed marked by a normal shockwave, and any accompanying change in airflow direction is -

a. from supersonic to subsonic, with no change in direction
b. from subsonic to supersonic, with a change in direction
c. from subsonic to supersonic, with no change in direction
d. from supersonic to subsonic, with a change in direction

A

a. from supersonic to subsonic, with no change in direction

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76
Q

For a large jet transport aeroplane, the change in aircraft weight and acceleration (g-load) which will cause the maneuver ceiling (coffin corner) to lower is -

a. higher weight and a decrease in acceleration
b. higher weight and an increase in acceleration
c. lower weight and a decrease in acceleration
d. lower weight and an increase in acceleration

LOW = bad

A

b. higher weight and an increase in acceleration

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77
Q

Spiral divergence (spiral instability) will occur -

a. with strong directional and weak lateral stability
b. with strong lateral and weak directional stability
c. with strong lateral and strong directional stability
d. with weak lateral and weak directional stability

A

a. with strong directional and weak lateral stability

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78
Q

Approaching Mcrit a nose down trim change is caused by -

a. a loss of lift and rise in parasite due to shockwave formation
b. a rearward CP shift and reduced tail plane download
c. reduced pitch stability caused by the transonic shockwave
d. a pitch command from the Mach trimmer to compensate for wave

A

b. a rearward CP shift and reduced tail plane download

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79
Q

A jet transport aircraft demonstrates positive oscillatory stability at 1000ft but instability at 9000ft.

The change in aerodynamic damping and associated speed change which causes this is -

a. reduced aerodynamic damping due to increased TAS
b. increased aerodynamic damping due to increased TAS
c. reduced aerodynamic damping due to increased EAS
d. increased aerodynamic damping due to increased EAS

A

a. reduced aerodynamic damping due to increased TAS

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80
Q

The purpose of an internal flexible seal attached to the leading edge of a control surface is to -

a. vary control forces with variations in aircraft speed
b. transmit feel forces back to the pilot
c. aerodynamically balance the control by reducing hinge movements
d. increase stick forces as load factor increases during maneuvers

A

c. aerodynamically balance the control by reducing hinge movements

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81
Q

The most common type of high pressure fuel pumps used in GTE fuel systems are -

a. centripetal
b. centrifugal
c. impeller
d. swash plate (variable displacement piston type)
e. constant displacement

A

d. swash plate (variable displacement piston type)

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82
Q

The most common type of ice protection used on modern turboprop propeller blades is -

a. pneumatic boots
b. thermal-electrical
c. thermal-hot air
d. anti-ice fluid

A

b. thermal-electrical

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83
Q

The function of the water separator in the cabin air conditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is -

a. to remove excess moisture in the ambient air prior to entry to the cabin compressor
b. to remove excess moisture in the conditioned air prior to entry to the cabin compressor
c. to prevent icing of the air in a vapor cycle system
d. to prevent icing of the cooling turbine in an air cycle system

A

b. to remove excess moisture in the conditioned air prior to entry to the cabin compressor

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84
Q

Problems related to undissolved water in the fuel system of a GTE include -

a. icing, corrosion and a lower specific gravity
b. corrosion, lower specific gravity and microbial growth
c. icing, lower specific gravity and microbial growth
d. icing, corrosion and microbial growth

A

d. icing, corrosion and microbial growth

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85
Q

A jet fuel with a specific gravity of 0.80 at a given temperature will -

a. have a weight of 80kg for 100L and weigh less per unit volume at higher temperature
b. have a weight of 100kg for 80L and weigh less per unit volume at higher temperature
c. have a weight of 80kg for 100L and weigh more per unit volume at higher temperature
have a weight of 100kg for 80L and weigh more per unit volume at higher temperature

A

a. have a weight of 80kg for 100L and weigh less per unit volume at higher temperature

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86
Q

To control cabin pressurization in a standby mode, the pressure controller of an air conditioning and pressurization system requires inputs of -

a. maximum differential pressure and cabin rate of change
b. desired aircraft altitude and aircraft rate of climb
c. desired cabin altitude and cabin rate of change
d. desired cabin altitude and aircraft rate of climb

A

c. desired cabin altitude and cabin rate of change

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87
Q

The function of a static inverter in a constant frequency AC power generating system in a large jet transport aircraft is -

a. to provide 115VAC 400Hz power in the event of a total generator failure
b. to provide 28VAC 400Hz power to selected instruments under normal conditions
c. to provide 115VAC 400Hz power to selected instruments under normal conditions
d. to provide 28VDC power in the event of total generator failure
e. to provide 28VDC power to selected instruments under normal conditions

A

a. to provide 115VAC 400Hz power in the event of a total generator failure

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88
Q

Total Air Temperature (TAT) is used for thrust management on modern jet aircraft and is displayed on EICAS.

TAT is comprised of the static OAT plus an additional factor caused mainly by -

a. instrument and position errors
b. ISA deviation
c. adiabatic compression
d. turbine inlet temperature
e. compressor inlet temperature

A

c. adiabatic compression

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89
Q

When LNAV is used to program a route within Australia between two waypoints in the database, the track the aircraft will follow is -

a. a rhumb line
b. a great circle
c. a constant magnetic heading
d. a constant bearing

A

b. a great circle

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90
Q

An incorrect function of a line select key on the CDU of a flight management system is -

a. if the line adjacent to the key contains data which can be copied, that data is copied to the scratch pad when the key is pressed
b. if the line adjacent to the key specifies a procedure, page or function, that procedure, page or function is selected when the key is pressed
c. if the line adjacent to the key is blank, that line is assigned a function depending on the CDU page in use
d. if the line adjacent to the key is blank, valid data from the scratch pad is copied to the line if the scratch pad contains appropriate data

A

c. if the line adjacent to the key is blank, that line is assigned a function depending on the CDU page in use

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91
Q

The purpose of a hydraulic accumulator is -

a. to measure fluid pressure
b.to facilitate fluid flow
c. to dampen out pressure fluctuations
d. to store reserve fluid supply

A

c. to dampen out pressure fluctuations

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92
Q

The purpose of a hydraulic pressure priority valve is -

a. to provide part of the sequencing valve
b. to shed non essential service due to a loss of system fluid
c. to shed non essential services due to a loss of system pressure
d. to select an alternate source of system pressure in the event of primary pressure loss

A

c. to shed non essential services due to a loss of system pressure

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93
Q

The purpose of a spring loaded relief valve in an inline fuel filter is -

a. to provide constant fuel pressure supply
b. to provide fuel supply in the event of the filter becoming blocked
c. to decrease fuel pressure at high power
d. to reduce fluid flow rate

A

b. to provide fuel supply in the event of the filter becoming blocked

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94
Q

The type of low pressure fuel boost pumps in a GTE fuel system are usually -

a. variable displacement
b. swash plate
c. impeller
d. variable RPM

A

c. impeller

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95
Q

A purpose of variable inlet guide vanes in a GTE is -

a. to equalize the mass flow between the compressor, combustion chamber and turbine
b. to increase the mass flow in the compressor for a given mass flow in the combustion chamber and turbine
c. to reduce the angle of attack on the front compressor blades at low engine RPM
d. to increase the angle of attack on the rear turbine blades at high RPM

A

c. to reduce the angle of attack on the front compressor blades at low engine RPM

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96
Q

A purpose of bleed valves in a GTE is -

a. to equalize the mass flow between the compressor, combustion chamber and turbine
b. to increase the mass flow in the compressor for a given mass flow in the combustion chamber and turbine
c. to reduce the angle of attack on the front compressor blades at low engine RPM
d. to increase the angle of attack on the rear turbine blades at high RPM

A

b. to increase the mass flow in the compressor for a given mass flow in the combustion chamber and turbine

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97
Q

A compressor surge is described as -

a. a stall
b. an instability of air flow through the compressor
c. pressure rise in the compressor
d. RPM loss

A

b. an instability of air flow through the compressor

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98
Q

An advantage of a centrifugal compressor over an axial compressor in a GTE is -

a. increased power output
b. reduced weight
c. greater efficiency
d. simplicity

A

d. simplicity

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99
Q

Two 12V 36A/H batteries are connected together in parallel, the result will be an output of -

a. 24V 36A/H
b. 12V 36A/H
c. 24V 72A/H
d. 12V 72A/H

A

d. 12V 72A/H

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100
Q

A generator in an aircraft electrical system is connected to a synchronizing bus via the -

a. bus tie breaker
b. split system breaker
c. field relay switch
d. generator control breaker

A

a. bus tie breaker

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101
Q

During flight planning, the pilot enters a holding pattern into the FMC flight plan for an approach to an airport.

Upon arrival at the holding fix with LNAV engaged, the FMC will command an entry to the holding pattern based on the -

a. planned aircraft HDG, at the fix
b. planned aircraft TRK, at the fix
c. actual aircraft HDG, at the fix
d. actual aircraft TRK, at the fix

A

d. actual aircraft TRK, at the fix

102
Q

In an aircraft EFIS with three symbol generators (SGs), the failure of the captain’s symbol generator would require -

a. the captain to manually switch to the standby SG
b. the copilot to manually switch to the standby SG
c. no direct action as the switching to standby is automatic with 3 SGs
d. the captain to select the same EADI and EHSI settings as the copilot

A

a. the captain to manually switch to the standby SG

103
Q

During a flight over continental Australia in a high capacity RPT aircraft equipped with EFIS and a FMS, the reference for the MAP mode of the EHSI would be -

a. magnetic HDG
b. magnetic TRK
c. true HDG
d. true TRK

A

b. magnetic TRK

104
Q

For the park brake to work effectively following the shutdown of all hydraulic systems, at the time of shutdown the brake accumulator pressure must be -

a. above maximum brake operating pressure
b. above the maximum pre-charge pressure
c. below the minimum pre-charge pressure
d. above the minimum brake operating pressure

A

d. above the minimum brake operating pressure

105
Q

Items monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system in a high capacity jet transport aircraft include -

a. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabilizer trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position
b. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabilizer trim position, spoiler lever position and the cargo doors
c. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabilizer trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position
d. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabilizer trim position

A

c. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabilizer trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position

106
Q

During the ROLLOUT sub-mode of an auto-land, the IDLE mode of the auto-throttle will be -

a. engaged until touchdown
b. engaged until 5 foot radio altitude
c. disengaged 5 seconds after touchdown
d. disengaged when selecting reverse thrust

A

d. disengaged when selecting reverse thrust

107
Q

Conditional waypoints are entered into the FMC via the -

a. arrivals or departures page
b. init/ref page
c. route legs page
d. ident page

A

a. arrivals or departures page

108
Q

Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience -

a. an increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity
b. constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity
c. constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure
d. a decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

A

b. constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity

109
Q

Supersonic flow through a divergent duct will experience -

a. an increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity
b. constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity
c. constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure
d. a decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

A

d. a decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity

110
Q

In a free power turbine type engine (turboprop), the free power turbine is -

a. connected to the high pressure compressor
b. connected to the low pressure compressor
c. connected to the high pressure turbine
d. not connected to any other turbine shaft

A

d. not connected to any other turbine shaft

111
Q

During a CAT III ILS multi-autopilot approach, in the rollout the thrust setting will be -

a. flight idle for 5 seconds after touchdown then ground idle
b. ground idle from 5 feet radio altitude
c. thrust hold
d. N1 limit thrust for GA

A

a. flight idle for 5 seconds after touchdown then ground idle

112
Q

The GTE design feature which decreases the occurrence of compressor stall is -

a. multiple spools
b. variable inlet guide vanes
c. nozzle guide vanes
d. the NTS

A

b. variable inlet guide vanes

113
Q

In terms of SFC, a turboprop would be more efficient than a turbojet during -

a. low speed flight
b. low altitude flight
c. high speed flight
d. high altitude flight

A

a. low speed flight

114
Q

Pressing the CANCEL switch on EICAS control panel will -

a. remove all warning and cautions from the screen
b. remove only advisories from the screen
c. remove only cautions from the screen
d. select the next page

A

d. select the next page

115
Q

In an aircraft with two separate independent hydraulic systems -

a. all systems are supplied by both systems simultaneously
b. no systems are supplied simultaneously by both systems
c. the second system is a backup to the primary system and will only be used following the failure of the primary system
d. some systems are powered by both systems simultaneously

A

d. some systems are powered by both systems simultaneously

116
Q

On an aircraft equipped with both outboard and inboard ailerons, the inboard ailerons operate -

a. at all times
b. only at high speed
c. only at low speed
d. only when selected by the pilot

A

a. at all times

117
Q

During TCAS operation in TA only mode, RAs are -

a. not shown at all
b. shown as TAs
c. shown on the EHSI only
d. removed from the EADI

A

b. shown as TAs

118
Q

In a GTE combustion system, the hottest gas temperature is found in -

a. the primary zone of the combustion chamber
b. the back of the combustion chamber
c. the front of the compressor
d. the back of the compressor

A

a. the primary zone of the combustion chamber

119
Q

The benefit of a split bus type aircraft electrical system is -

a. other generator can take up excess loads
b. the system can evenly share the load between generators
c. there is a reduced need for frequency matching
d. more systems can be powered from the one bus

A

c. there is a reduced need for frequency matching

120
Q

Engine bleed air may be used for -

a. reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, pitot heat, and to power the RAT
b. reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning, and to power the RAT
c. reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurization
d. pitot heat, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurization

A

c. reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurization

121
Q

Inflight, engine bleed air for anti-icing the wing leading edges in known icing conditions is -

a. used continuously
b. used for short periods only
c. used for long period cycles
d. not used

A

a. used continuously

122
Q

The radio altimeter display on the EADI is blank when -

a. above 2500ft
b. at low level over smooth water
c. indications are below 0ft
d. unserviceable

A

a. above 2500ft

123
Q

When climbing at a constant Mach number, TAS will -

a. increase through all levels
b. decrease through all levels
c. decrease in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause
d. increase in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause

A

c. decrease in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause

124
Q

The reference for the heading display on the EFIS MAP and FMC is -

a. always true with the heading reference switch in the normal position
b. always magnetic with the heading reference switch in the normal position
c. never true with the heading reference switch in the normal position
d. either true or magnetic as selected by the pilot or determined by latitude

A

d. either true or magnetic as selected by the pilot or determined by latitude

125
Q

On an aircraft with a conventional flight instrument panel with two compass systems, the captains HSI displays a HDG flag.

In this situation another expected indication would be -

a. a HDG flag on the captains RMI
b. a HDG flag on the FOs HSI
c. a HDG flag on the FOs RMI
d. an off flag on the captains flight director

A

c. a HDG flag on the FOs RMI

126
Q

An aircraft with a TAS of 300kts has a fuel burn of 3000kg/hr.

The specific air range (SAR) as a ratio distance travelled per tonne of fuel used would be most correctly expressed as ratio of -

a. 30kg/3nm
b. 1kg/10nm
c. 30nm/300kg
d. 100nm/1000kg

A

d. 100nm/1000kg

127
Q

The EPR of a GTE may be defined as -

a. the ratio between the gas temperature and gas pressure of the engine
b. the ratio between the total jet pipe pressure and the total engine inlet pressure
c. the ratio between the fan (N1) RPM and the N2 RPM
d. the ratio between the static pressure and the dynamic pressure in the compressor

A

b. the ratio between the total jet pipe pressure and the total engine inlet pressure

128
Q

The EGT of a GTE may be defined as -

a. the ratio between the engine inlet pressure and the exhaust duct pressure
b. the temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the combustion chamber
c. the temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the last turbine stage
d. the temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the compressor

A

c. the temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the last turbine stage

129
Q

Windscreen rain repellent fluid is used in some installations to assist visibility.

A limitation on its use is -

a. it should not be used in conjunction with windscreen heating systems
b. it should not be used on a dry windscreen as it could smear and reduce forward vision
c. it should not be used in conjunction with wipers
d. it should only be used airborne

A

b. it should not be used on a dry windscreen as it could smear and reduce forward vision

130
Q

The first indication of a successful light off (light up) in a GTE is -

a. increasing N1 RPM
b. increasing N2 RPM
c. increasing TOT
d. increasing EPR

A

c. increasing TOT

131
Q

As a flight progresses and weight reduces as fuel is burnt in a large transport category aircraft -

a. optimum speed decreases, max altitude decreases and buffet boundaries increase
b. optimum speed increases, max altitude increases and buffet boundaries increase
c. optimum speed increases, max altitude decreases and buffet boundaries decrease
d. optimum speed decreases, max altitude increases and buffet boundaries increase

A

d. optimum speed decreases, max altitude increases and buffet boundaries increase

132
Q

A pressurized aircraft on climb maintains its cabin altitude at that of the departure aerodrome until it reaches its maximum cabin pressure differential .

If the climb is continued -

a. the cabin altitude will decrease as the aircraft climbs
b. the aircraft cannot climb as it has reached its service ceiling
c. the cabin altitude will climb as the system maintains maximum pressure differential
d. the cabin pressure will rise to protect the seals in the pressure vessel

A

c. the cabin altitude will climb as the system maintains maximum pressure differential

133
Q

In level flight an AP/FDS mode control panel shows a selected IAS of 280kts in ALT HLD mode. The flight director, autopilot and auto-throttle are then all turned off.

In this case the 280 IAS indication will -

a. be blanked off and not displayed
b. remain as before but will have no significance on the speed tape display
c. remain as a reminder to the pilot that the system is still in altitude hold
d. remain displayed in the window and as the command airspeed bug on the speed tape

A

d. remain displayed in the window and as the command airspeed bug on the speed tape

134
Q

Reverse thrust is most useful on large transport turbine aircraft -

a. at high forward speed in the landing roll
b. at low forward speed in the landing roll
c. inflight to increase breaking effectiveness
d. late in the landing roll

A

a. at high forward speed in the landing roll

135
Q

In a GTE, compressor surge can be recognized by -

a. rapidly increasing N1 RPM
b. a sharp rise in thrust
c. fluctuating RPM and high EGT
d. low TOT

A

c. fluctuating RPM and high EGT

136
Q

If a reduced thrust takeoff is programmed into a FMC using the assumed temperature method, regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1 -

a. the pilot must manually increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance
b. the auto-throttle will automatically increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance
c. the reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will provide net obstacle clearance at all temperatures below ISA
d. the reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust output

A

d. the reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust output

137
Q

The use of sweepback as a design feature of a jet transport aircraft wing will result in -

a. a decrease in Mcdr
b. an increase in lift
c. an increase of Mcdr
d. a decrease in Mcrit

A

c. an increase of Mcdr

138
Q

On a conventional ASI/Mach meter the Mach readout is covered by a red flag indicating loss of altitude sensing.

This means the Mach display is unreliable and -

a. the command airspeed bug is also unreliable
b. no other element is affected
c. the VMO pointer is also probably unreliable
d. the command airspeed bug is removed from view and the command airspeed select knob is also inoperative

A

c. the VMO pointer is also probably unreliable

139
Q

An IVSI differs from a conventional VSI in that it has -

a. accelerometers or dashpots to give an immediate indication of climb or descent
b. no moving parts
c. electric amplification for greater accuracy
d. laser beams to register displacement

A

a. accelerometers or dashpots to give an immediate indication of climb or descent

140
Q

An autopilot hardover means -

a. full servomotor deflection
b. partial servomotor deflection
c. an unserviceable servomotor
d. full scale trunion servo actuator deflection

A

a. full servomotor deflection

141
Q

The purpose of a propeller brake in a turboprop installation is to -

a. reduce speed on descent
b. decelerate the propeller into the ground range after landing
c. prevent the propeller from rotating until self sustaining speed is reached
d. stop the propeller from wind milling when in feather on the ground

A

d. stop the propeller from wind milling when in feather on the ground

142
Q

In normal operation of an aircraft electrical system with a bus tie, the generators are operated -

a. in series
b. as a split bus system
c. independently to avoid frequency and phase matching problems
d. in parallel

A

d. in parallel

143
Q

In an aircraft electrical system with two engine driven generators and an APU generator, none of which can be synchronized -

a. with one engine driven generator connected to the system, the APU generator can supply either TRU
b. in normal operation, the system operates as a split bus system
c. in normal operation bus 1 and 2 act as a single bus
d. in normal operation, the generators are paralleled

A

b. in normal operation, the system operates as a split bus system

144
Q

An advantage of an axial compressor in a GTE is -

a. annular thrust
b. centrifugal thrust
c. axial thrust
d. conical thrust

A

c. axial thrust

145
Q

When the residual voltage of a large aircraft AC generator decreases to zero and no battery power is available -

a. no AC generator can be restarted airborne
b. it can be restarted if it is a PMG
c. it can be restarted if it is a field excitation generator
d. all AC generators can be restarted from zero voltage airborne

A

b. it can be restarted if it is a PMG

146
Q

When an Integrated Drive Generator (IDG or CSD) suffers an internal failure the unit -

a. will disconnect from the engine automatically
b. will change the output power frequency, causing problems with AC powered systems
c. if manually disconnected, cannot be reconnected inflight
d. all of the above

A

c. if manually disconnected, cannot be reconnected inflight

147
Q

With a multiple battery installation in an aircraft, the batteries are usually connected in -

a. parallel, to give increased current output at constant voltage
b. parallel, to give increased voltage output at constant current
c. series, to give increased current output at constant voltage
d. series, to give increased voltage output at constant current

A

a. parallel, to give increased current output at constant voltage

148
Q

The combustion chamber design which is most cost effective and efficient is the -

a. multiple chamber design
b. can-annular (tubo-annular) design
c. annular design
d. vaporizer design

A

c. annular design

149
Q

The percentage of the mass airflow through a GTE entering the combustion chamber through the swirl vanes is -

a. 2%
b. 12%
c. 20 %
d. 50%

A

b. 12%

150
Q

When the THR HLD mode of the auto-throttle is active and annunciated on the auto-throttle flight mode annunciator on the EADI -

a. the auto-throttle is de-energized
b. the thrust levers advance to takeoff thrust
c. the thrust levers retard to idle
d. the auto-throttle will adjust thrust hold to the current airspeed

A

a. the auto-throttle is de-energized

151
Q

With regard to the speed stability characteristics of a jet transport aircraft when operating in the region of reverse command (slower than Vimd) -

a. any decrease in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while an increase in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude
b. any increase in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while a decrease in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude
c. small power increases will lead to a rapid decrease in speed while large power increases will result in a slow decrease in speed
d. small power increases will lead to a rapid increase in speed while large power increases will result in a slow increase in speed

A

a. any decrease in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while an increase in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude

152
Q

When flying a jet transport on an approach with steep wind gradients or wind shear and/or gusts the approach speed should be modified accordingly to provide protection against sudden airspeed loss. As a rule of thumb, the approach speed may be increased to a maximum value of Vref+15kts for wind gradients by adding half the wind speed to the normal approach speed. In gusty conditions the approach speed may be increased to a maximum of Vref+20kts by adding half the wind speed and half the gust value.

If the reported wind speed was 20kts gusting to 30kts the appropriate speed would be -

a. Vref+15
b. Vref+20
c. Vref+25
d. Vref+30

A

a. Vref+15

153
Q

The measurement of temperature in a GTE is one of the most critical items of information the pilot needs for safe operation of the engine. The type of thermocouple used in the measurement of turbine temperature varies with engine type and design.

The usual application of various thermocouple probe types is -

a. rapid response probes are used primarily in a turbojet and turbofan installations while the stagnation type probes are used mainly in turboprop installations.
b. rapid response probes are used primarily in turboprop installations while the stagnation type probes are used mainly in turbojet and turbofan installations.
c. surface probes measure gas temperature while immersion probes measure engine temperature.
d. TIT probes measure compressor temperature rise while EGT probes measure temperature at the very first set of nozzle guide vanes

A

b. rapid response probes are used primarily in turboprop installations while the stagnation type probes are used mainly in turbojet and turbofan installations.

154
Q

The antiskid brake system on a jet transport aircraft allows maximum braking without loss of traction.

If, during operation of the antiskid braking system, the pilot feels a rapid oscillation through the pedals, the probable cause is -

a. antiskid brake system failure and wheel lockup
b. excessive pedal pressure
c. normal operation of the system
d. nose wheel shimmy

A

c. normal operation of the system

155
Q

The element of the antiskid brake system providing protection for the hydraulic system against damage from antiskid brake operation is -

a. the hydraulic shut off valve
b. the modulator valve
c. the non return valve
d. the accumulator

A

b. the modulator valve

156
Q

If the wings are levelled with rudder in steady asymmetric flight in a multi-engine aircraft, the balance ball will be -

a. displaced fully toward the live engine
b. in the center
c. displaced fully towards the dead engine
d. displaced partially towards the live engine

A

b. in the center

157
Q

With reference to the B767 EHSI display, in MAP mode the altitude range arc shows -
a. the FMC flight plan computed top of climb position based on the forecast wind
b. the current altitude
c. the computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb
d. the glide range in nil wind for the current altitude

A

c. the computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb

158
Q

The purpose of the trailing bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is -

a. cost effectiveness
b. to permit increased tyre pressures and higher ACNs
c. reduced tyre surface area contact, reduced tyre pressures and higher ACNs
d. to allow softer nose wheel touchdown during landings

A

d. to allow softer nose wheel touchdown during landings

159
Q

Regarding inertial reference systems (IRS) -

a. an IRS can derive current true heading independent of other inputs
b. an IRS can derive track made good, but cannot obtain current true heading
c. an IRS requires periodic heading input from a gyro-stabilized compass
d. an IRS requires constant heading input from a gyro-stabilized compass

A

a. an IRS can derive current true heading independent of other inputs

160
Q

With differential spoilers fitted to an aircraft, a left bank will cause -

a. the left spoiler to retract if both were extended
b. the left spoiler to extend if both were retracted
c. both spoilers to remain extended if both were extended
d. the left spoiler to remain retracted if both were retracted

A

b. the left spoiler to extend if both were retracted

161
Q

The method usually used when charging lead acid type batteries in an aircraft is -

a. constant current
b. constant amperes
c. constant specific gravity
d. constant resistance
e. constant voltage

A

e. constant voltage

162
Q

When an autopilot system “mimics” control wheel inputs, it is connected in -

a. series
b. parallel
c. CWS
d. VNAV

A

b. parallel

163
Q

With regard to the monitoring of autopilot systems via the auto-land status annunciator -

a. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational)
b. a land 3 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail operational)
c. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)
d. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail passive)

A

c. a land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)

164
Q

A particular aircraft demonstrates good oscillatory stability at 1000ft but poor oscillatory stability at 30000ft.

The reason for this is -

a. reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS
b. reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS
c. increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS
d. increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS

A

a. reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS

165
Q

The main purpose of combustion in a gas turbine engine is to -

a. convert chemical energy into kinetic energy
b. convert chemical energy into mechanical energy
c. convert mechanical energy into kinetic energy
d. convert kinetic energy into mechanical energy

A

a. convert chemical energy into kinetic energy

166
Q

During flight planning the crew of a transport category aircraft program the FMC with the proposed route but forget to load a descent point and final segment.

With LNAV engaged, when the aircraft passes its last programmed waypoint the FMC will command the aeroplane to -

a. enter a left hand holding pattern
b. enter a right hand holding pattern
c. maintain present heading
d. maintain present track

A

c. maintain present heading

167
Q

To provide LNAV guidance the FMC needs as a minimum input from initialization, navigation data from -

a. 2 VOR’s
b. a VOR/DME
c. 2 DME’s
d. 1 IRS
e. 2 IRS’s

A

d. 1 IRS

168
Q

In asymmetric flight a multi-engined piston propeller driven aeroplane is usually flown with -

a. bank away from the dead engine with no sideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the live engine
b. no bank and no sideslip with the ball centred
c. only bank with no rudder with the ball off centre to the dead engine and no sideslip
d. bank away from the dead engine with no sideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the dead engine

A

a. bank away from the dead engine with no sideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the live engine

169
Q

Air is slowed down in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine to -

a. prevent flame out
b. confine the heat to a smaller region
c. improve mixture
d. stop surge

A

a. prevent flame out

170
Q

If thermocouples are used in parallel to measure the temperature in a jet engine, the temperature shown will be -

a. the maximum temperature of all probes on the circuit
b. the total of all the temperatures
c. the average temperature of all probes on the circuit
d. the minimum temperature of all probes on the circuit

A

c. the average temperature of all probes on the circuit

171
Q

When conducting a category IIIc autoland in an aircraft equipped with three autopilots, and you see ‘Land 2’ indicated on the autoland status annunciator, the status of the autoland system would be -

a. ‘Fail Passive’, and a failure of any single item would still result in an autoland
b. ‘Fail Operational’, and a failure of any single item would still result in an autoland
c. ‘Fail Passive’, and a failure of any single item would result in no significant deviations from the flightpath
d. ‘Fail Operational’, and a failure of any single item would result in only minor deviations from the flightpath

A

c. ‘Fail Passive’, and a failure of any single item would result in no significant deviations from the flightpath

172
Q

Some jet transport aircraft are equipped with a feature known as aileron lockout.

IF ‘AILERON LOCKOUT appeared as a caution message on the EICAS, you would expect to experience -

a. unusually high control forces at low speeds
b. degraded roll controllability at low speeds
c. unusually high control forces at high speeds
d. degraded roll controllability at high speeds

A

b. degraded roll controllability at low speeds

173
Q

The autobrake selector on your aircraft has eight positions - Disarm, Off, 1, 2, 3, 4, MAX and RTO.

Regarding the retardation rates of various settings -

a. RTO is greater than MAX
b. RTO and MAX provide the same level of braking
c. RTO only in a rejected take off is greater than MAX
d. manual braking is greater than both RTO and MAX

A

a. RTO is greater than MAX

174
Q

If the EPR probe at the compressor inlet of a jet engine becomes blocked with ice during taxiing and the pilot advances the thrust levers for take off to the predetermined EPR setting for take off, the likely result is -

a. the EPR gauge will overread and the engine thrust will be less than take off thrust
b. the EPR gauge will overread and engine thrust will increase above take off thrust
c. the EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will be less than take off thrust
d. the EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will increase above take off thrust

A

a. the EPR gauge will overread and the engine thrust will be less than take off thrust

175
Q

Regarding the cabin altitudes at which the cabin altitude warning occurs and the cabin altitude at which emergency passenger oxygen masks deploy in the event of a depressurisation in most modern jet transport category aircraft -

a. cabin altitude warning at 8500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft
b. cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 14000 ft
c. cabin altitude warning at 9500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft
d. cabin altitude warning at 12000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 13000 ft

A

b. cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 14000 ft

176
Q

If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicated (sensed) quantity it will -

a. automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations
b. automatically use the lower value for subsequent navigational computations
c. alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message and the pilot then decides which quantity to use for subsequent navigational calculations
d. recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity
e. recalibrate the calculated fuel quantity to agree with the sensed quantity shown on EICAS

A

c. alert the pilot(s) to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message and the pilot then decides which quantity to use for subsequent navigational calculations

177
Q

Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include -

a. greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies
b. the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less visibility
c. higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landing and taxiling, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies
d. lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies

A

a. greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies

178
Q

The minimum position input(s) required to initialise an inertial navigation system are/is -

a. latitude and longitude
b. latitude only
c. longitude only
d. latitude, longitude and time

A

a. latitude and longitude

179
Q

The autoflight mode combination which controls thrust to maintain a set aircraft speed is -

a. N1 and SPD
b. THR HLD and ALT HOLD
c. VNAV PATH and SPD
d. FL CH and SPD

A

c. VNAV PATH and SPD

180
Q

Differential flight spoilers are often used on large aircraft to assist roll control.

If the pilot rolled the control column towards the right to initiate a right turn -

a. If the flight spoilers are extended, they will both retract
b. If the spoilers are retracted, the left spoiler will extend, and the right spoiler will remain retracted
c. If the spoilers are retracted, they will both remain retracted
d. If the spoilers are extended, the left spoiler will retract and the right spoiler will remain extended

A

d. If the spoilers are extended, the left spoiler will retract and the right spoiler will remain extended

181
Q

Concerning the use of the rudder pedals for steering on the ground and using a tiller for nosewheel steering when fitted to a large transport category aircraft -

a. full deflection of the rudder pedals gives a greater angle of nosewheel steering than full tiller deflection
b. full rudder deflection is the same as full tiller deflection
c. full tiller deflection gives a greater angle of nosewheel steering than full rudder pedal deflection
d. The tiller does not steer the nosewheel, only the rudder

A

c. full tiller deflection gives a greater angle of nosewheel steering than full rudder pedal deflection

182
Q

The brakes on large aircraft are prone to overheating.

The incorrect statement regarding the use of brakes is -

a. if an aircraft takes off with hot brakes, the gear may be left down (dangling) to cool
b. if the parkbrake is engaged with very hot brakes, the disk may fuse to the pad
c. after an aborted take off, the aircraft must be taxied to a cool-down area for a specified time
d. with overheated brakes, a take off is allowed immediately after prolonged taxiing as long as excessive brake pressure is not applied

A

d. with overheated brakes, a take off is allowed immediately after prolonged taxiing as long as excessive brake pressure is not applied

183
Q

Large transport category aircraft may equipped with multiple batteries.

When this is done the batteries are usually connected in -

a. parallel to increase the voltage at constant current (amps)
b. series to increase the voltage at constant current (amps)
c. parallel to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage
d. series to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage

A

c. parallel to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage

184
Q

The errors associated with a Mach meter are -

a. temperature, compressibility, pressure and position
b. instrument and position
c. density, temperature, pressure and instrument
d. position, pressure, density and compressibility

A

b. instrument and position

185
Q

In a split bus electrical system consisting of two main engine driven generators -

a. one engine generator can supply all buses with no loss of load capacity
b. one bus can have multiple generators connected at once
c. a bus is only supplied by one generator at any given time
d. the generators are normally connected in parallel

A

c. a bus is only supplied by one generator at any given time

186
Q

The Master Warning system on an aircraft consists of an audio alarm and a light on the glare shield.

The warning may be cancelled by -

a. switching off the warning system
b. pressing the warning light caption
c. pulling the appropriate circuit breaker
d. reprogramming the flight management computer

A

b. pressing the warning light caption

187
Q

Which gauge is needed in the cockpit of a pressurised aircraft to monitor the parameter most essential to ensure a breathable atmosphere for the occupants?

a. the cabin pressurisation gauge
b. the cabin climb and descent gauge
c. the cabin altitude gauge
d. the cabin negative differential pressure gauge

A

c. the cabin altitude gauge

188
Q

Standpipes in the hydraulic system in a jet transport aircraft are needed to -

a. supply pressure during negative G flight
b. reduce foaming during flight in turbulence
c. ensure fluid supply in the event of primary system fluid loss
d. ensure a positive supply of fluid to the pump during periods of high demand

A

c. ensure fluid supply in the event of primary system fluid loss

189
Q

Compared to a high bypass turbofan, a pure turbojet engine has -

a. more thrust at the same mass flow
b. a lower power to weight ratio
c. lower Specific Fuel Consumption
d. higher propulsive efficiency

A

a. more thrust at the same mass flow

190
Q

While in cruise at a constant Flight Level at a TMN of 0.82, an increase in ambient temperature will result in -

a. a higher TAS and a higher SFC
b. a higher TAS and lower SFC
c. a lower TAS and higher SFC
d. a lower TAS and a lower SFC

A

a. a higher TAS and a higher SFC

191
Q

Methods for defining waypoints entered by the crew into the database of the FMC include -

a. latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place distance/place distance
b. latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing
c. latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, bearing distance/bearing distance
d. latitude and longitude, place bearing/place, place distance/distance

A

b. latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing

192
Q

An aircraft is filled to full tank volume capacity with AVTUR of a Specific Gravity (SG) of 0.8.

If the SG had been 0.7 instead of 0.8, the available range would be -

a. the same
b. greater
c. less
d. Independent of calorific value

A

c. less

193
Q

Concerning large aircraft electrical systems -

a. split bus systems do not run generators in parallel
b. in a split bus system one generator will never supply power to all services
c. parallel generator systems do not suffer from frequency matching problems
d. most electrical systems can be run split or parallel depending on demand

A

a. split bus systems do not run generators in parallel

194
Q

In an aircraft electrical system, a bus bar is -

a. a wire receiving current from the generator or battery
b. a large strip for power distribution to services
c. a circuit breaker panel
d. always live

A

b. a large strip for power distribution to services

195
Q

In a conventional autopilot system, the autopilot will be prevented from engagement when -

a. the heading cursor (bug) is different to the aircraft heading
b. the speed bug is different to the aircraft speed
c. the turn controller is out of the detent
d. the pitch selector is in pitch hold

A

c. the turn controller is out of the detent

196
Q

In a steady climb, the thrust produced by the engines is balanced by drag -

a. plus a component of lift
b. plus a component of weight
c. plus total lift
d. alone

A

b. plus a component of weight

197
Q

In an aircraft with a “flying tail”, movement of the control column results in movement of the -

a. elevator with the tailplane position controlled by trim signals from the trim wheel
b. tailplane with the elevator position controlled by movement of the trim switches
c. tailplane with the elevator moving in the same direction
d. tailplane with the elevator moving in the opposite direction

A

a. elevator with the tailplane position controlled by trim signals from the trim wheel

198
Q

In a turbo-jet aircraft compared to a turbo-prop aircraft, lowest specific fuel consumption (SFC) compared to net thrust is achieved when flying at -

a. high altitude
b. high speed
c. low altitude
d. low speed

A

b. high speed

199
Q

The effect of spoiler deployment on the total drag curve for an aeroplane is to move the curve -

a. up and right
b. up and left
c. down and left
d. down and right

A

b. up and left

200
Q

On an aircraft with a conventional flight director system, the flight director bars are controlled by -

a. the flight director computer
b. the air data computer
c. the flight management computer
d. the control display unit

A

a. the flight director computer

201
Q

If the speed for minimum drag is 250 kts EAS, the speed you would fly at for best angle of climb is -

a. 250 kts
b. greater than 250 kts
c. less than 250 kts
d. 1.32 times 250 kts

A

a. 250 kts

202
Q

A jet engined aircraft flying at the angle of attack for maximum Lift to Drag will achieve best -

a. angle of climb and endurance
b. angle of climb and range
c. rate of climb, range and endurance
d. rate of climb, angle of climb, and endurance

A

b. angle of climb and range

203
Q

In a twin turbo jet engined aircraft, an engine fails after takeoff. The pilot maintains balance of the aircraft with rudder input and 5 degrees bank towards live engine.

The purpose of using bank is to minimise -

a. the weight side force
b. the asymmetric force
c. the side slip force
d. the torque reaction force

A

c. the side slip force

204
Q

The minimum control speed air (Vmca) of a twin engine turbo-prop aircraft is determined on control with the critical engine inoperative and with a centre of gravity at the -

a. most forward position
b. most rearward position
c. CP position
d. mid range position

A

b. most rearward position

205
Q

A tab attached to a primary control surface and operated by a main control linkage which then causes deflection of the primary control surface is called a -

a. trim tab
b. servo tab
c. anti balance tab
d. lagging tab

A

b. servo tab

206
Q

Stalling speed is higher for a swept wing aircraft compared to a straight wing because of the effective -

a. increase in chordwise airflow
b. decrease in chordwise airflow
c. decrease in spanwise airflow
d. increase in spanwise airflow

A

b. decrease in chordwise airflow

207
Q

The method used in large transport category aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is -

a. the flap load relief system
b. the flap lockout system
c. the flap asymmetry system
d. the flap blow back system

A

a. the flap load relief system

208
Q

Leading edge devices (LED) such as slats are used during take off, approach and landing to increase -

a. CD by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings
b. CL by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings
c. CD by controlling spanwise airflow over the wings
d. CL by controlling spanwise airflow over the wings

A

b. CL by controlling chordwise airflow over the wings

209
Q

A B767 flight control system uses 3 separate and independent hydraulic systems to power the primary flight controls. During normal system operation the system/s which the pilots primary flight controls are powered from are -

a. all systems at all times
b. one system at a time
c. two systems at all times
d. the system with the highest pressure

A

a. all systems at all times

210
Q

In a supersonic air stream, the static pressure behind the expansion wave -

a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. increases then decreases

A

a. decreases

211
Q

In the air cycle machine (ACM) of an airconditioning system, the effect of the turbine on pressure, temperature and velocity of bleed air supplied from the gas turbine engines is to -

a. increase pressure and temperature and velocity
b. decrease pressure and temperature and velocity
c. decrease pressure, increase temperature and decrease velocity
d. increase pressure, decrease temperature and increase velocity

A

b. decrease pressure and temperature and velocity

212
Q

The ranges of a typical pressurisation system when operating in AUTO mode are -

a. isobaric and differential ranges
b. positive and differential ranges
c. positive and negative ranges
d. negative and differential ranges

A

a. isobaric and differential ranges

213
Q

Thermal plugs in modern aircraft tubeless tyres are designed -

a. as an emergency plug for puncture inflicted on landing
b. for pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat
c. as temperature cooling valve during conditions of excessive tyre heat
d. as an indicator of excessive hard braking during landing

A

b. for pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat

214
Q

The component in the hydraulic system which can prevent excessive hydraulic fluid loss is the -

a. priority valve
b. check valve
c. pressure relief valve
d. hydraulic fuse

A

d. hydraulic fuse

215
Q

Stator vanes in an axial flow compressor of a gas turbine engine convert air velocity into pressure by use of -

a. divergent ducts
b. axial vanes
c. aerofoils
d. convergent passages

A

a. divergent ducts

216
Q

Interconnectors are used in tubo-annular and can-annular combustion chamber systems in a gas turbine engine to -

a. equalise operating pressure and propagate fuel through the burner cans
b. equalise operating temperature and propagate fuel through the burner cans
c. equalise operating pressure and propagate combustion through the burner cans
d. equalise operating temperature and propagate combustion through the burner cans

A

c. equalise operating pressure and propagate combustion through the burner cans

217
Q

In gas turbine engines, effective thrust output during reverse thrust is less than forward thrust because during reverse the -

a. exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited
b. engine rpm is limited to 70% N1
c. turbine is not as effective due to build up of back pressure
d. ingestion of exhaust gas causes compressor stall and loss of engine thrust

A

a. exhaust gas discharge angle is aerodynamically limited

218
Q

Some possible warning flags that appear on a conventional (non EFIS) ADI may include -

a. GS, GYRO, LOC and COMP
b. GS, VOR/LOC, COMP and HDG
c. VOR/LOC, COMPASS, GYRO and COMP
d. GYRO, COMPASS, HDG and COMP

A

a. GS, GYRO, LOC and COMP

219
Q

The parameter in a B767 autoflight system which is not controlled by the auto throttle is -

a. vertical speed
b. approach speed
c. descent speed
d. engine RPM

A

a. vertical speed

220
Q

Autopilots depend on signals from sensors which measure aircraft attitude and position to achieve the desired flight profile. Accelerometers assist in -

a. a coordinated turn
b. a set rate of climb and descent
c. coordinated climb and descent
d. a level turn

A

b. a set rate of climb and descent

221
Q

In a steady state climb, a decrease in headwind component will result in -

a. decreased rate and angle of climb
b. decreased angle of climb
c. increased rate of climb
d. no change to either angle or rate of climb

A

b. decreased angle of climb

222
Q

In a conventional flight instrument system in an aircraft, the autopilot altitude hold information comes from -

a. the captain’s altimeter
b. the co-pilot’s altimeter
c. the Air Data Computer (ADC)
d. the autopilot aneroid

A

d. the autopilot aneroid

223
Q

In an B767 with three autopilots, for a fail operational autoland approach, the number of electrical systems required is -

a. 1 AC/DC system
b. 2 AC/DC systems
c. 3 AC/DC systems
d. 4 AC/DC systems

A

c. 3 AC/DC systems

224
Q

In a steady state climb, the distribution of forces is -

a. lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
b. lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag
c. lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag
d. lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

A

d. lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag

225
Q

In a B767 EFI system, if the Heading Reference Switch is selected to TRUE, and the aeroplane is flying from SYDNEY to PERTH, the following EHSI mode which will NOT display TRUE track UP is -

a. plan
b. map
c. VOR

A

c. VOR

226
Q

A B767 FMS includes two FMCs and two EHSIs. Both crew have MAP mode displayed on their respective EHSIs but have different range scales selected. In the event of left FMC failure, without crew action, the correct statement regarding the display on the left EHSI after the failure is -

a. it will be blank
b. it will switch to the display currently existing on the right EHSI
c. it will be unaffected
d. it will display a MAP flag and crew action is required to restore the display

A

d. it will display a MAP flag and crew action is required to restore the display

227
Q

Hot air for engine and nacelle anti-icing is normally obtained from the -

a. high pressure compressor stages
b. low pressure compressor stages
c. turbine outlet
d. compressor outlet

A

b. low pressure compressor stages

228
Q

An advantage of NiCad batteries compared to lead acid batteries is -

a. shorter charge time
b. less corrosive
c. do not require venting
d. higher load carrying capacity

A

a. shorter charge time

229
Q

An aircraft is fitted with a typical flight control system using three separate and independent hydraulic systems to power the primary flight control surfaces. If all components are functioning normally, the system(s) the pilot flight controls are powered from are -

a. each pilot’s flight controls are powered from a separate hydraulic system; the third system is on standby, cutting in automatically if one of the first two systems fail

b. both pilot’s flight controls are powered from a primary hydraulic system; the other two systems are on standby, cutting in automatically if the primary system fails

c. both pilot’s flight controls are powered from all three systems simultaneously

d. both pilot’s flight controls are powered from two main hydraulic systems simultaneously; the third system is on standby; cutting in automatically if any of the two main systems fail

A

c. both pilot’s flight controls are powered from all three systems simultaneously

230
Q

The environmental variable which will result in an increased VMCA in a multi-engine aeroplane is an increase in -

a. temperature
b. density
c. pressure altitude
d. humidity

A

b. density

231
Q

Jet engined aircraft maximum angle of climb is achieved at -

a. minimum drag speed with zero flap
b. minimum drag speed with takeoff flap
c. minimum safe speed with zero flap
d. minimum safe speed with takeoff flap

A

a. minimum drag speed with zero flap

232
Q

A B767 is in cruise with stabiliser trim set correctly for a relatively forward Centre of Gravity, the position of the elevator/would be -

a. up
b. down
c. faired
d. automatically adjusted by the autopilot

A

c. faired

233
Q

The right engine fails after takeoff in a twin engined propeller driven aircraft. Without any corrective action the balance ball will -

a. move left
b. move right
c. stay centered
d. remain half a ball out to the right

A

a. move left

234
Q

On the B767 EADI, brown and blue colours may disappear due to of a loss of raster scanning because -

a. ambient light is too bright
b. the screens are overheating
c. the electrical supply has failed
d. the symbol generator has failed

A

b. the screens are overheating

235
Q

To achieve maximum endurance when holding, the ideal altitude should be -

a. as high as possible
b. as low as possible
c. lower rather than higher
d. higher rather than lower

A

d. higher rather than lower

236
Q

An aircraft has 2 FMC’s which the pilots access through 2 control display units (CDUs), the CDU’s should not be used by the pilot’s to -

a. simultaneously enter data into the FMC’s
b. enter the fuel on board and the required flight fuel reserves
c. input the AUW and CG position
d. change the original entered flight plan while in-flight
e. specify performance parameters to calculate ETA’s for destination and enroute waypoints

A

a. simultaneously enter data into the FMC’s

237
Q

In the automatic mode of the B767 pressurisation system, the required inputs from the crew preflight are -

a. landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change
b. cabin altitude and cruise altitude
c. required differential pressure and landing altitude
d. cruise altitude and cabin rate of change

A

a. landing airfield elevation and cabin rate of change

238
Q

An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -

a. up and left
b. up and right
c. down and left
d. down and right

A

b. up and right

239
Q

The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move -

a. up and left
b. up and right
c. down and left
d. down and right

A

a. up and left

240
Q

The extension of landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move

a. up and left
b. up and right
c. down and left
d. down and right

A

a. up and left

241
Q

The failure of the bleed valve to close in gas turbine engine after start will result in -

a. EGT rise
b. compressor surge
c. compressor stall
d. thrust increase

A

a. EGT rise

242
Q

More range will be achieved in a gas turbine powered aircraft with -

a. 1 kg of AVTUR
b. 1L of AVTUR
c. neither, the range is the same for both
d. either, it depends on the temperature

A

a. 1 kg of AVTUR

243
Q

In AUTO mode of the B767 pressurisation system, the position of the outflow valve from takeoff to cruise will be -

a. fully closed until the desired cruise altitude is reached
b. automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller
c. fully closed until the desired cabin altitude is reached
d. controlled directly by the crew

A

b. automatically controlled by the cabin pressure controller

244
Q

In a steady state descent the force distribution is -

a. lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag
b. lift is equal to weight and thrust is less than drag
c. drag is less than thrust and weight is less than lift
d. lift is greater than weight and thrust is less than drag

A

a. lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag

245
Q

In gas turbine engined aircraft, aeration (vapour lock) in the fuel lines may be overcome by -

a. engine driven pumps
b. the hand pump
c. boost pumps
d. the accumulator

A

c. boost pumps

246
Q

In the event of total hydraulic failure with nose wheel steering, safety valves (emergency valves) -

a. centralise the nose wheel
b. limit the angle of turn
c. allow the nose wheel to swivel
d. prevent nosewheel shimmy

A

c. allow the nose wheel to swivel

247
Q

The function of a pneumatic restrictor valve in an large aircraft pneumatic system is to -

a. vary the direction of the air flow
b. adjust the speed of the air flow
c. regulate the pressure of the system
d. regulate the temperature of the system

A

b. adjust the speed of the air flow

248
Q

A conventional autopilot panel includes a turn knob for the purpose of rolling the aircraft via the autopilot. One of the safeguards (or interlocks) which may prevent the crew from engaging the autopilot is -

a. the heading bug not aligned with the current heading
b. the turn knob not in the central neutral detent position
c. the pitch trim not in the takeoff position
d. the aileron trim not in the neutral position

A

b. the turn knob not in the central neutral detent position

249
Q

In an aircraft with a “flying tail”, the pilot controls on the flight deck move the tail surfaces by -

a. movement of the yoke causing movement of the elevator for pitch control and pitch trim provided by movement of the trim switches causing movement of the horizontal stabiliser

b. movement of the yoke causing movement of the stabiliser for pitch control and pitch trim provided by movement of the trim switches causing movement of the elevator trim tab

c. movement of the yoke causing movement of the elevator for pitch control and pitch thm provided by movement of the trim switches causing movement of the elevator trim tab

d. movement of the yoke causing movement of the stabiliser for pitch control and pitch trim provided by movement of the trim switches causing movement of the horizontal stabiliser

A

a. movement of the yoke causing movement of the elevator for pitch control and pitch trim provided by movement of the trim switches causing movement of the horizontal stabiliser

250
Q

In steady asymmetric flight in a twin-engined jet transport category aircraft, the crew elect to level the wings with rudder input. The position of the balance ball in this situation will be -

a. half a ball out toward the failed engine
b. half a ball out toward the operating engine
c. fully deflected out toward the operating engine
d. centred

A

d. centred

251
Q

The purpose of specifying a maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW) limit on an air transport category aircraft is to reduce -

a. wing bending moments during ground operations
b. wing bending moments when in flight
c. fuselage bending moments during ground operations
d. fuselage bending moments when in flight

A

b. wing bending moments when in flight

CASA ATPL A/C SYSTEMS & AERODYNAMICS (1 decks)

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