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AFM Flashcards

1
Q

During auto-start, when is the auto shutdown function enabled on ground?

A

When the throttle is less than 3 degrees forward of the IDLE position.

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2
Q

In PMS MAN mode, what is the idle value for in the air and on the ground?

A

67 +/- 7% Ng.
(Compared with auto mode, there is therefore more thrust on the ground and more drag in the air with idle selected in manaul)

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3
Q

If PMS reverts to manual mode, what warnings/cautions are there?

A

red PMS warning caption appears on DWP and a PMS MANUAL caption appears on the MFD alert areas and MFD ENG page

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4
Q

What is the maximum engine power in manual mode?

A

1080 Shaft HorsePower (805kW)
(In manual mode, if the engine power is above 1080, the torque indicator will display and amber arc at any speed even though no engine limits have been exceeded)

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5
Q

In PMS MAN mode, how do you select nominal fuel flow schedule?

A

Move throttle to less than 55 degrees forward of idle

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6
Q

What is the primary electrical power source for the PMU (power management unit) and what warnings are shown when it fails?

A

The PMA (permanent magnet alternator). If there is a failure of the aircraft electrical power system, the PMA will provide electrical power to the PMU. When the PMA fails, the PMU generates a fault signal that is shown as an amber PMS FAULT alert on the MFD

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7
Q

What powers the PMU during engine start and shutdown or if the PMA fails?

A

The BATT BUS

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8
Q

What is the maximum engine power in ISA (international standard atmosphere)?

A

1600SHP

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9
Q

When is maximum engine power limited to 1080SHP and when is it increased to 1600SHP?

A

When the WOW switches indicate that the aircraft is on the ground, the PMS limits the engine power to 1080SHP and when airborne at speeds below 80KIAS.
It progressively increases to 1600SHP as speed increases and reaches a maximum of 1600SHP by 200KIAS.

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10
Q

What happens to maximum available power as altitude increases?

A

Maximum available power reduces

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11
Q

What is flight idle Ng?

A

Approximately 80%, depending on temperature and altitude

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12
Q

What is the flight idle setting controlled by?

A

The nose WOW switch. On landing ground roll, the nose must be lowered to the ground to bring the engine to ground idle.
(during a touch and go, keeping the nose off the ground will keep the engine at flight idle for quicker engine acceleration)

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13
Q

What is the speed of the propeller automatically controlled to?

A

2000RPM

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14
Q

When is the Np displayed/occulted?

A

When the Np is equal to or greater than 320RPM, the value of RPM is shown. If it is less than 320RPM, Np is occulted.

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15
Q

Where are the 2 magnetic chip detectors and what are their respective cautions?

A

One in the reduction gearbox, on in the accessories gearbox.
If sufficient contamination is detected, an amber CHIP indication on the DWP comes on. The MFD WARN page will show the amber caution captions CHIP PROP (reduction gearbox) and CHIP AGB (Accessory gearbox)

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16
Q

When are engine oil temperature and pressure indications shown?

A

In the MFD ENG page, oil temperature and pressure are shown permanently.
In the EMD, oil pressure is displayed permanently but oil temperature is only displayed if it exceeds the following limits:
Less than -40 degrees: red warning
less than 10 degrees: amber caution
more than 105 degrees: amber caution
more than 110 degrees: red warning

If the oil pressure falls below the specified limit, a red OIL indication on the DWP comes on. If the oil pressure falls below or rises above the specified limit, the MFD WARN page shows a red OIL PRESS caption. If the oil temperature falls below or rises above the specified limit, the MFD WARN page shows a red OIL TEMP caption.

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17
Q

What are the ignition, starter and fuel pumps powered by?

A

BATT BUS

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18
Q

What happens when engine start is attempted with a low BATT 1 voltage?

A

The BATT BUS voltage may drop below the level required to keep the avionic systems that it supports on line. This is because at the end of the engine start process the Bus Tie Contactor (BTC) 3 is closed which can result in an inrush of current from BATT 2, resulting in a drop in BATT BUS voltage.

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19
Q

When do the igniter operate?

A

During engine start and engine deceleration (Ng reduces rapidly) to reduce the risk of inadvertent flameout

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20
Q

What captions are shown when the igniters are operating?

A

A green IGN caption illuminates on both the DWP and MFD ENG page.

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21
Q

What cautions appear when the ignition switches are either IGN or OFF?

A

the PMS FAULT caution to be displayed on the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS).

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22
Q

What are the warnings when there is a fire/overheat in the engine compartment?

A

red FIRE warnings are given in both cockpits on the DWP and MFD

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23
Q

Where are the 2 fire/overheat detectors?

A

Fire/overheat detector no.1 is around the hot section of the gas generator case. The fire/overheat detector No. 2 is around the accessory gearbox.

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24
Q

When will the FIRE 1 ALRT and FIRE 2 ALRT advisory caption be shown?

A

If the gas leaks from the fire/overheat detector tube, the advisory captions will be shown on the MFD

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25
Q

What powers the fire warning system?

A

BATT BUS

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26
Q

What are the 2 primary sources of electrical power?

A

GEN 1 and GEN 2.
Either generator can alone supply the full aircraft electrical
load.

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27
Q

What batteries are there and what do they supply power to?

A

− The battery No. 1 (BATT 1), supplies power to the BATT BUS and the starter
− The battery No. 2 (BATT 2), supplies power to the BATT BUS and the BATT DIRECT BUS
− The emergency battery (EMERG BATT), supplies power to the EMERG BUS in flight.

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28
Q

When does the EMERG BATT supply power to the EMERG BUS?

A

When a dedicated Weight-On-Wheels (WOW) switch indicates that the aircraft is airborne and the BATT BUS power supply fails.
(This WOW switch prevents the EMERG BATT
from supplying power when the aircraft is on ground and the main power supplies are off.)

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29
Q

How long can fully-charged batteries last?

A

Fully-charged main batteries will supply electrical power to the services essential for flight for at least 30 minutes, providing the load current is reduced below 60 A.

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30
Q

How long can the EMERG BATT last?

A

The EMERG BATT will supply the SFD for more than 30 minutes.

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31
Q

What is BATT 1 essential for?

A

Engine start

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32
Q

Why is BATT BUS isolated during engine start?

A

This ensures that the BATT BUS voltage is maintained at BATT 2
voltage, allowing all equipment connected to the BATT BUS to operate normally during engine start.

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33
Q

What is the requirement before external power can be connected?

A

Both GENS must be offline

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34
Q

What is the purpose of BTC override switch?

A

The BTC override switch allows the pilot to isolate the BATT BUS from the GEN 1 and GEN 2 BUS. This permits the BATT BUS to be de-energized, if required, while retaining the services powered from the GEN 1 BUS and GEN 2 BUS.

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35
Q

What is the total amount of usable and unusable fuel?

A 
Usable = 544KG
Unusable = 22KG
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36
Q

What is the FCMC (Fuel Control Monitoring Computer) powered by?

A

BATT BUS

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37
Q

What is the use of a acrobatic tank and what is its capacity?

A

To ensure a continuous supply of fuel to the engine under negative g for a maximum of 45 seconds. It has a capacity of approximately 13l

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38
Q

When will the booster pumps (controlled by the FCMC) be switched on?

A
  1. During engine start
  2. When the inlet pressure to the engine driven pump is low
  3. When the fuel filter is block
  4. To refill the acrobatic tank after inverted flight for more than 5 seconds

The FCMC will switch on one booster pump to correct for a fuel imbalance of greater than 55lb

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39
Q

When will the auto fuel balance be inoperative and why? What are the cautions?

A

If the total fuel imbalance is greater than 55 kg (121 lb), the wing tanks auto fuel balance is inoperative. This prevents fuel from a serviceable wing being transferred to a wing tank that has a large leak. When the auto fuel balance is inoperative the FUEL IMBALANCE caution will be displayed on the Multi-Function Display (MFD).

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40
Q

What does the Fuel Hyd Shut-off Valve do?

A

Stops the supply of hydraulic fluid into the engine bay and the fuel supply to the engine.

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41
Q

When the TRIM/AIL PWR switch is OFF, hydraulic power is cut off to what services?

A
  1. Aileron actuators
  2. Spoiler actuators
  3. Powered brakes
  4. Anti-skid
42
Q

What happens if electrical power to the BATT BUS is lost? (with regards to hydraulics)

A

The servo solenoid will close and the aircraft will behave as follows:
The aircraft roll rate will be significantly reduced due to the loss of spoiler function and the ailerons operating, unpowered, in the manual mode
− The aileron forces will be heavier than normal
− On landing, the wheel brake pedals must be pressed harder than normal to achieve normal deceleration
− The anti-skid system is inoperative
− The park-brake will operate as normal

43
Q

What happens when the EMER LDG GR handle is pulled?

A
  • The landing gear extends and cannot be retracted.
    − Emergency hydraulic pressure becomes available to lower the flaps as required, using the flap control lever. The flaps can be lowered to the take-off position, followed by a further selection to the LAND position, the flaps cannot, however then be retracted. The flaps will initially be held in the position to which they were selected before the EMER LDG GR handle was pulled.
    − Emergency hydraulic pressure is made available to the wheel brakes for at least six full applications on/off before the brakes revert to manual braking.
    − The anti-skid system is inhibited.
44
Q

Of the hydraulic services, which do not require electrical supplies?

A
  1. Emergency landing gear extension

2. Manual braking

45
Q

In terms of hydraulics, what does BATT BUS supply power for?

A
  1. Flap selection
  2. Servo Power (powered ailerons, roll spoilers, powered wheel brakes and anti-skid)
  3. TRIM/AIL PWR switch
  4. Landing gear
46
Q

Why is the left main wheel door offset?

A

Because the propeller slipstream moves diagonally across the underside of the fuselage, the left main wheel door is offset to facilitate retraction at high power settings and speeds.

47
Q

How can the pilot confirm that the landing gear is down and locked?

A

Pressing the DN TONE button on the LGCU. If either button is pressed when all three landing gear legs are down and locked, the Audio Management Unit (AMU) generates a 1000 Hz tone, which is heard in the pilots’ headsets and is transmitted on COMM 1.

48
Q

When does the EICAS generate a CONFIG amber advisory status message, a red light in the landing gear selector comes on and a continuous 1150Hz warning tone is generated?

A

− The landing gear is not selected down and the aircraft is on the ground
● To cancel the alert the conditions that caused the alert must be corrected
− The landing gear is not selected down, the flaps are at LDG and the rate of climb is less than 0,3
m/second (1 ft/second)
● To cancel the alert the conditions that caused the alert must be corrected
− The landing gear is not selected down, the airspeed is less than 130 KIAS, the throttle is at a position of less than 37°.
● To cancel the aural alert the ALERT CANCEL button on the LGCU must be pressed
● The alert can also be cancelled by correcting the conditions that caused the alert.

49
Q

Landing gear not in selected position

A

The EICAS generates a GEAR caution if the landing gear does not reach its selected position within 20 seconds of the selection being made.

50
Q

Landing gear not in the correct position

A

The MFD shows a WOW FAIL gray advisory if the position of the WOW sensors are not correct.

51
Q

Aircraft overspeed with landing gear down

A

The EICAS generates an OVERSPEED GEAR amber advisory if the gear is selected down and the airspeed exceeds 183 KIAS.

52
Q

What is the full rudder pedal travel of the nose wheel?

A

11.5° left and right. The nose wheel can castor up to 60° left and right.

53
Q

Touchdown protection and spin-up override

A

On touchdown, hydraulic pressure will not be passed to the brakes until the system detects wheel spin or three seconds has elapsed after the WOW switch has detected touchdown. This prevents brake pressure from being applied until the main wheels are rotating sufficiently quickly for the anti-skid system to operate.

54
Q

Locked wheel crossover

A

A locked wheel crossover circuit prevents the potential loss of control during braking when one wheel encounters a low-friction surface such as a wet or icy runway.
If the speed of one wheel is less than 30% of the other’s, the brakes are automatically released. This allows the slow wheel to spin back to within 30% of the other wheel, whereupon normal braking is restored. Locked wheel protection operates above 25 knots.

55
Q

At what speed is anti-skid deactivated?

A

below 10 kts

56
Q

When must manual force be used to control ailerons?

A
  1. When the TRIM/AIL PWR switch is set to the OFF position, manual force must be used to move the ailerons and the spoilers.
  2. Manual force must also be used if the main hydraulic system fails, or the main and the emergency hydraulic systems fail.
  3. Manual force must also be used if the emergency hydraulic system is activated, independently, if the main hydraulic system has failed or not.
57
Q

When does the roll spoiler operate?

A

When an aileron moves up from 4° to 13° a lost-motion linkage progressively extends the associated roll spoiler. The maximum travel of each roll spoiler is 40°.

58
Q

What type of flaps are on the PC21?

A

Single slotted, hydraulically powered, fowler slaps

59
Q

What are the degrees of movement for the various flap positions?

A

UP - 0
Takeoff - 20
Landing - 34

60
Q

When will the pilot be unable to extend flaps?

A

If the electrical power from the BATT BUS, GEN 1 and GEN 2 busses fail, the flaps will automatically retract.

61
Q

What are the 2 positions for airbrakes?

A

− Extended, to a maximum of 65.5°

− Retracted.

62
Q

Where is the flap indication displayed?

A

− MFD
− PFD
− EMD.
The flaps position display is shown on the PFD and EMD for 9 seconds after the flaps reach the UP position.
The flap position indicator on the MFD HYD page has a cyan mark that indicates the flap selector position. The flap position indicator on the MFD HYD page does not time out.

63
Q

What does the ECS do?

A

The Environmental Control System (ECS) automatically controls the cockpit air temperature, the humidity, the pressure and provides bleed-air from the engine compressor for the On-Board Oxygen-Generating System (OBOGS) and the anti-g system. The ECS also provides conditioned air to cool the avionics bay.

64
Q

What does the ECS comprise of?

A 
− The engine bleed-air distribution
− The Air Cycle System (ACS)
− The VCS
− The temperature control system
− The Cabin Pressure Control-System (CPCS)
− The ram-air system
− The anti-g system.
65
Q

What is the use of VCS?

A

The heating capability of the ACS is adequate for the lowest environmental conditions. The limited cooling capacity of the ACS in hot conditions is supplemented by a VCS, which cools the cockpit air and passes it back into the cockpit.

66
Q

What happens when the firewall SOV is operated? (in terms of air)

A

By operating the firewall Shut-Off Valve (SOV), the pilot can prevent engine bleed-air from passing from the engine bay into the cockpit.

67
Q

What happens when the ACS shut-off lever is operated? (in terms of air)

A

When the ACS shut-off lever is operated, the firewall SOV closes and the supply of conditioned air to the cockpit stops.

68
Q

When will normal cockpit temperature control not be available?

A

In the FOOT HEAT position, the temperature of the conditioned air at the foot well diffuser is held 30 °C (86 °F) above the selected cockpit temperature. In this condition, normal cockpit temperature control is not available. Cockpit temperature will be maintained automatically by the VCS.

69
Q

How to stop flow from the vents?

A

To stop the flow from the vents, either the vents can be closed or the VCS switch can be set to OFF.

70
Q

What are the cockpit temperature limits?

A

− A lower limit of 5 °C (41 °F) with the TEMP switch set to MIN on the front ECS control panel
− An upper limit of 65 °C (149 °F) with the TEMP switch set to MAX on the front ECS control panel.

71
Q

How is the avionics bay cooled?

A

When the ACS and VCS are operating normally, the avionics bay receives conditioned air through the CPCV, which exhausts through the rear cockpit wall. The conditioned air that flows into the avionics bay is sufficient to keep the air temperature below 55 °C (131 °F). When the engine is not operating, hot air from the avionics bay is released overboard through an outlet in the top of the avionics bay.

72
Q

What are the 3 types of cabin pressurisation?

A

− To maintain the cabin pressure and supply cooled air to the avionics bay, NORM
− To equalize the cabin pressure with ambient pressure (temperature conditioned air supplied to cockpit), PRESS DUMP
− To ventilate the cockpit with ram-air (no airflow from engine into cockpit), RAM.

73
Q

What are the conditions required for the anti-g test switch to operate?

A

− The aircraft engine must be running

− The OBOGS system must be operating, with the ACS SHUT OFF switch not in its pulled position.

74
Q

What are the pitot tube heater, and static port heaters powered by?

A

Pitot tube:
outer heater: GEN 2 BUS
Inner heater: BATT BUS

Static port:

right: BATT BUS
left: GEN 2 BUS

75
Q

How do you control the pitot heater, static port heaters and the AOA transmitter heaters?

A

The electrical supplies to the pitot heater, the pitot heater control, the static port heaters and the AOA transmitter heaters are controlled together through a single PROBES switch.

76
Q

How do you know if the PROBES switch is on?

A

When the PROBES switch is set to the PROBES position, a green PROBE caption is shown on the DWP.

77
Q

What is the mixture switch for?

A

When both the front and rear MIXTURE switches are set to AUTO the OBOGS passes an oxygen-enriched breathing gas to the pilots. The percentage of oxygen increases with increasing cabin altitude according to the schedule

78
Q

When will the oxygen flow indicators be constantly white and black respectively?

A

If an indicator is constantly black, either there is a system blockage or the pilot is not breathing. If an indicator shows constant white, there is a leak or a disconnect in the system.

79
Q

What warning is displayed when the oxygen flow indicators remain in the same state for more than 30 seconds?

A

If the oxygen flow indicators remain in the same state, flow or no flow, for more than 30 seconds a red OXY FLOW warning will be shown on the MFD.

80
Q

When will a RED OXY caption be shown on the DWP or MFD?

A

DWP:

  • The SSOM-C fails CBIT
  • The system has detected a low supplied pressure
  • The system has detected a low oxygen concentration
  • The system has shut down due to a detected critical failure. Over pressure and/or over temperature

MFD:

  • The concentration of oxygen is low.
  • The oxygen system BIT has failed.
81
Q

How long does EO2 typically last for?

A

an emergency

descent, emergency oxygen will last typically for less than five minutes.

82
Q

What does a Built-In-Test do?

A

During power-up the SSOM-C carries out a Power-up Built-In Test (PBIT) and a self-calibration. When the PBIT and self calibration have been successfully completed, the SSOM-C carries out a Continuous Built-In Test (CBIT) for as long as power is applied. The CBIT senses malfunctions in the OBOGS and transmits oxygen indications to the aircrew.

83
Q

Where are the NAV lights?

A

The NAV lights are as follows:
− A red NAV light, at the front edge of the left wingtip
− A green NAV light, at the front edge of the right wingtip
− A white NAV light, that is installed in the tail cone.

84
Q

Where are the ANTI COL lights?

A

The ANTI COLL light system consists of two white xenon strobe lights, one in each wingtip. The two strobe lights are identical and are synchronized.

85
Q

Where are the landing and taxi lights?

A

There are two lights on the nose landing gear leg, a forward facing landing light on the left and a forward facing taxi light on the right.

86
Q

When will the caption PINS be displayed on the MFD?

A

− The ejection seat or CFS pins are not stowed in the correct position (glare shield) when the conditions that follow occur:
● The aircraft is on the ground.
● The engine torque is more than 38%.
● Throttle angle is more than 38°.

87
Q

Different modes of the Inter-seat sequencing system

A

INDEPENDENT:
Front
The front seat is ejected immediately - The rear seat is not ejected
Rear
The rear seat is ejected after a 0.17 second interval. The front seat is not ejected

REAR
Front The front seat is ejected after a 0.54 second interval. The rear seat is not ejected
Rear
The rear seat is ejected after a 0.17 second interval. The front seat after a 0.54 second interval

BOTH
Front
The rear seat is ejected after a 0.17 second interval. The front seat after a 0.54 second interval
Rear
The rear seat is ejected after a 0.17 second interval. The front seat after 0.54 second interval

88
Q

Egress procedure

A

The egress procedure is as follows:
1 Install the safety pin in the seat firing handle and seat firing handle-housing.
2 Install the CFS safety pin, front only.
3 Disconnect the following aircrew personal equipment:
− Oxygen hose
− Mic-tel connector
− Anti-g hose
− PSP connector.
4 Release the shoulder harness lugs from the QRF on the negative-g strap. Press the button on the
QRF and turn the cover fully (approximately 30°) clockwise or counterclockwise.
5 Return the QRF to the centre position.
6 Put the negative-g strap in position to one side of the seat firing handle.
7 If the leg garters are to stay in the aircraft, push the plungers of each quick-release connector and
release the leg garters from the legs. Pull all of the straps through to their longest length. Put the
lap straps safely to the side.
8 If the leg garters are to stay on the pilot’s legs, operate the leg line release lever on the right side
of the seat pan to release the taper plugs of both leg restraint lines. Pull the leg restraint lines out
of the leg garter D rings.
9 Stand up and engage the shoulder strap lugs in the related clips on each side of the headpad.
10 Get out of the cockpit. Be especially careful not to stand on the seat firing handle or the MOR
handle.

89
Q

Emergency egress procedure

A 
− Install the seat safety pin and the CFS safety pin, if time allows
− Leg restraints release
− Oxygen hose disconnect
− PSP connector release
− Harness unlock and open straps
− Canopy open
− Exit cockpit.
90
Q

What are the primary sources of flight data?

A

The primary sources of flight data are:
− The Inertial Reference System (IRS) for attitude, slip, heading, wind, groundspeed, rate of turn, g.
− The Air Data Computer (ADC) for airspeed, MACH number, altitude, vertical speed, Outside Air
Temperature (OAT).
− The Remote-Control-Input-Output-Concentrator (RIOC) 2 for AOA information and flap and
airbrake positions.
− The RADAR altimeter for height above ground level.
The PFD is also supplied with navigational information from:
− The Mission Computer (MC) for tactical navigation, refer to the MSM.
− FMS for civil navigation.
− The TACAN.
− The radio navigation aids for civilian navigation VOR/ILS/DME.

91
Q

Why should the SFD not be used to ensure the flight load factor limit?

A

The SFD measures aircraft G within the range of +4 G to -4 G. Therefore, when using acceleration
data provided by the SFD, aircrew should be aware that any positive acceleration higher than +4 G will
be indicated as +4 G.

92
Q

When will the ALT ALERT caption appear?

A

As the aircraft passes 305 m (1000 ft) before the preset
altitude while approaching it, the ALT ALERT caption, adjacent to the preset baro altitude, will flash in
amber and reverse video for five seconds before being shown in amber.

93
Q

How do you know if the aircraft is in a rate one turn?

A

A rate one turn is indicated when the white T lies precisely over either the left
or right rectangle.

94
Q

When does the rate of turn indicator become a yaw indicator?

A

The rate of turn indicator becomes a yaw indicator when the rate of yaw is greater than or equal to 8°/
second. Under these circumstances the rate of turn indicator changes color to amber and a large
amber yaw arrow (the spin arrow) is positioned to the left or right of the turn indicator. This spin arrow
is provided to give a clearly readable indication of the direction of yaw when the aircraft is in a spin.

95
Q

When is wind strength displayed/removed?

A

Wind is displayed when the wind strength increases through

6 knots - the display is removed when the wind strength decreases through 4 knots.

96
Q

How long does the SFD take to start up?

A

At power-up the SFD in the front cockpit requires approximately 3 minutes to align the internal inertial
sensors in order to achieve an accurate attitude reference. The initialization process is shown on the
SFD display as a blue screen with a clock that counts down from 180 seconds.

97
Q

Under what conditions does the AOA indexers operate?

A

− The landing gear is selected DOWN, and
− The flaps position is valid, and
− The aircraft weight is off the wheels.

98
Q

How do you read the various indexers?

A 
red - slow
red and green - slightly slow
green - correct landing AOA range (1.3 Vstall)
green and yellow - slightly fast
yellow - fast
99
Q

When will RADAR altitude not be available?

A

RADAR altitude is shown for RADAR altitudes of less than or equal to 1676,4 m
(5500 ft) Above Ground Level (AGL). The readout is removed when the RADAR altitude is greater
than 1676,4 m (5500 ft) AGL.

100
Q

Where are the VOR/ILS antennas?

A

The VOR/ILS antennas are near the leading edge of the tail fin, one antenna set on each side of the
fin.

personal bwc (7 decks)

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