AFM Flashcards

1
Q

Positive NPV

A
  1. Payback of project costs is achieved.
  2. The project delivers the required annual return of the investor (wacc%) represented by the discount rate.
  3. The +NPV represents a surplus return in addition to the required annual return (WACC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NPV: future cash flows

A

Relevant costs & revenues
Tax on operating cash flows & Tax saved on capital allowances
Expected values
Working capital
Inflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NPV: Relevant costs

A

Future, incremental cash flows.
Do not consider sunk costs
Do not consider fixed/committed costs
Do not consider non cash items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Triple bottom line:

A

Social justice
Environmental quality
Economic prosperity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Triple bottom line: social justice

A

Making sure that our operation involve no discrimination or human rights violations e.g. ensuring that workers are paid a fair wage and have good working conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Triple bottom line: environmental quality

A

Ensuring that any negative environmental impact of our operations are minimised. e.g. monitoring the emissions levels from our factories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Triple bottom line: economic prosperity.

A

Gauging the financial impacts that our operations have on the local community e.g. measuring the impact of employment of workers and increased business for local business

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Relative merits of NPV over IRR:

A

It provides a clear decision. i.e accept if positive, reject if negative.
It always gives the correct decision
It always gives a single answer
It maximises the shareholders wealth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Relative merit of IRR over NPV:

A

It is much easier for non-accountants to accept
It does not require the exact cost of funds to be known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Criteria for establishing credit ratings:

A

Financial flexibility
Industry risk
Company’s management
Earnings protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Credit rating criteria: financial flexibility

A

Refers to the ease with which the company can raise new finance, measured by:

Past performance in raising equity finance
Relationships with lenders e.g banks
Restrictions on raising future finance
Cash reserves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Credit rating criteria: industry risk

A

Measures the inherent risk present within the industry:
Measured by the following factors in said industry:

Volatility of past earnings of companies
Average beta scores of companies
Frequency of instances of insolvency
Fluctuations in levels of demand as compared to the state of the economy
Future prospects (regarding technology)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Credit rating criteria: company’s management

A

Relates to the perceived strength of management and leadership can be assessed by reviewing:
Capabilities of the companies existing management
The extent to which the company’s had a succession plan
Previous evidence of management controls over spending and performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Credit rating criteria: Earnings protection

A

Refers to the robustness of the profits of a company changing external factors and can be measured by:

Volatility in past earnings
Historical profit margins
Diversity of products offered by the company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define: Financial distress cost

A

Costs associated with very high levels of gearing as a result of providing assurance to stakeholders that the company will remain solvent.

Direct financial distress cost: higher interest payments imposed by the bank

Indirect financial distress cost: loss of sales to customers or lack of credit from suppliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

APV assumption w/ regards to discount rate

A

That there are sufficient profits available in a business to be able to take advantage of the interest payment being tax deductible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

APV assumptions:

A

The risk free rate could be used to present value the financing side effects.
The debt capacity could change as a result of undertaking the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Intrinsic value of an option:

A

Difference between it’s current value and exercise price

19
Q

interest rate option:
Borrowing:
Lending:

A

Borrowing: put option to sell IR futures contract
Lending: call option to buy IR futures contract

20
Q

Forward rate agreement:
Borrowing:
Lending:

A

Borrowing: buy FRA
Lending: sell FRA

21
Q

Drawback of DVM

A

Difficult to estimate future dividend growth
Inaccurate to assume that growth will be constant to infinity
N/a to non dividend paying companies

22
Q

Main advantage of a multilateral netting system

A

Netting off intra group balances before settlement reduces the number of settlements made. This reduces costs and administration.

23
Q

How does Centralised treasury help with cost reduction

A

Economies of scale
Avoids duplication of tasks/roles
Greater ability to assess and manage overall company risk exposure
Multilateral netting saves costs
Concentrate the expertise required within a central department.

24
Q

Advantages of decentralising the treasury function

A

Quicker local decision making
Local management can assess local conditions better
More autonomous decision making will motivate managers and reduce current staff turnover

25
Q

Merger’s & acquisitions: Sell-off

A

A sell-off involves disposing of a clearly separable part of a business
This disposal could be for cash, share or debt consideration and allows the seller to generate cash for investment and to concentrate on core areas of their business

26
Q

Merger’s & acquisitions: Management buy-in

A

Involves selling off a separable part of a business to an external group of managers who will come in to run the business
This usually happens when the part of the business being sold is under-valued due to poor management and external managers see an opportunity to acquires it as a low price
This acquisition will often involve the managers securing significant financing from banks and venture capital partners

27
Q

APV assumptions: Modigliani and Miller theory

A

Holds that the value of a geared company is greater than the value of an ungeared company by the value of the tax saved on its debt

It is appropriate to present value this tax saving using the existing cost of debt

28
Q

Post completion audits

A

Part of monitoring and appraising capital investment projects

29
Q

Post-completion audit aims

A

To compare income, costs and timing of projects against the original budget and any subsequent changes to the budget

30
Q

Post completion audits purpose

A

Tool for managing project more effectively and efficiently
Setting realistic budget targets
Better control of costs
Reaction of bottlenecks to help complete project on time

31
Q

Post completion audit drawbacks

A

Can be expensive process
Usefulness may be limited to projects which are unique

32
Q

Why not to use fixed discount rate to appraise new projects

A

Projects will have different risks attached to them and therefore the returns required from these projects would differ.

33
Q

Benefits of debt finance:

A

Tax benefits
Controlling the actions of managers
Issuing debt finance can be seen as a sign of confidence
Cheaper than equity finance

34
Q

The purpose of degearing an equity beta

A

To strip out a company’s specific financial risk to get to the asset betas which represent just the business risk element

35
Q

Generic assumptions with cash flows

A

Input variables are known with certainty or reasonable accuracy.
Variables and factors which determine the variables do not change in the future.

36
Q

What does APV take into account that NPV doesn’t take into account

A

Changing business risk profile if the project is a diversification.

The changing of financial risk profile

Will provide significantly more info about the sources of value and also about the different levels of risk applicable to different cash flows

37
Q

Drawbacks of NPV

A

Not possible to tell where the project’s value is generated from, where the value is from undertaking the project or from changing capital structure

38
Q

Drawbacks of NPV

A

Not possible to tell where the project’s value is generated from, where the value is from undertaking the project or from changing capital structure

39
Q

Drawbacks of APV

A

Does not take into account cost of financial distress
Possibility of tax exhaustion
And agency costs related to financing using debt.

40
Q

Exam technique: Conclusion

A

“A sensitivity and scenario analysis should be undertaken because of the assumptions made.”

Report compiled by:
Date:

41
Q

Value at Risk: Definition

A

The maximum loss of a project, used as a measure of the riskiness of the project. The lower the number the lower the risk

42
Q

Impact on raising finance if credit rating falls: positive

A

Debt holders may do not react in the same way credit ratings agency do. They may place different weightings to the criteria. Come to different judgements with consideration of external factors

43
Q

The role of the world trade organisation

A

To implement the general agreement on tariffs and trade. Its main aim is to reduce barriers to international trade. It does so by trying to prevent protectionist measures, such as tariffs quotas and other import restrictions. It also offers a forum for negotiation and dispute resolution.