AFCS

Question 1

When does the aFCS initially engage the yaw damper?

Answer 1

Automatically when a Remove Electronics Unit (ERU) and two sources of roll and yaw are available (IRS)

Question 2

What is the maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged?

Answer 2

41,000 ft

Question 3

What will happen if the YD is disengaged with the AP engaged?

Answer 3

AP will disengage

Question 4

What is the minimum height at which the autopilot can be engaged?

Answer 4

400 ft AGL

Question 5

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a CAT I or CAT II precision approach (ILS)?

Answer 5

Category I or II ILS: 80 AGL

Question 6

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a non-precision approach with no vertical guidance?

Answer 6

400 ft AGL

Question 7

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?

Answer 7

160 ft AGL

Question 8

What is the speed limitation for FLC mode use?

Answer 8

Above .85 M is prohibited

Question 9

When must both STALL PUSHER switches be on?

Answer 9

For duration of the flight

Question 10

What are the four purposes of the MSTR DISC push button on the control wheel?

Answer 10

1. Disconnects the autopilot,
2. Silences a disconnect aural,
3. Interrupts pitch trim while held,
4. Inhibits the stick pusher while held (non-EASA a/c)

Question 11

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

Answer 11

Pressing the AP push button, pressing either MSTR DISC push button, manual trim activation, pressing the YD switch on the FCP, physical override of the AP servos (not recommended)

Question 12

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

Answer 12

Unusual attitude, stall warning activation, activation of wind shear avoidance (2-sec delay)

Question 13

What is the purpose of the touch control steering (TCS) button?

Answer 13

Momentarily overrides the autopilot and sync FPA, speed or VS value

Question 14

What will happen in the event the master AFCS/AT fails?

Answer 14

Standby AFCS/AT automatically takes over and the FD modes will revert to basic ROLL and FPA

Question 15

How is the aster AFCS identified?

Answer 15

FCP indicator lights adjacent to the YD and AP buttons

Question 16

How is the AFCS 1 manually selected to AFCS 2?

Answer 16

Selecting the AFCS 1/2 switch on the reversion switch panel (RSP)

Question 17

Does the indicator light on the flight control panel (FCP) indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

Answer 17

No. The pilot must confirm mode status or operation from the flight mode annunciation (FMA) on the PFD

Question 18

How are active/armed flight director and auto throttle modes indicated on the FMA?

Answer 18

Active shows in green, armed shows in white

Question 19

How does the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director modes are armed?

Answer 19

Basic ROLL and FPA modes

Question 20

What is the steepest angle for approaches?

Answer 20

3.5 without AFM supplements

Question 21

What does the autopilot do in ROLL mode?

Answer 21

Heading hold when the bank is <5 degrees, hold the current bank angle if the bank is > 5 degrees to a maximum of 30 degrees

Question 22

When is the FMS prohibited as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches?

Answer 22

Localizer-based approaches, VOR approaches, NDB approaches
Note: VOR and NDB approaches require a bearing pointer displayed in addition to FMS guidance

Question 23

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur?

Answer 23

LNAV is the active lateral mode, the LOC beam is captured, and APR selected on the guidance panel

Question 24

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

Answer 24

30 nm direct distance to the airfield

Question 25

When is the LOC preview mode enabled?

Answer 25

Automatically at 30 nm

Question 26

During an ILS approach, when does the independent approach mode of the AFCS occur?

Answer 26

GS capture

Question 27

What is the FD “pitch target box” command for a normal takeoff?

Answer 27

Initially set to 17.5 degrees and can move between 11.5 degrees to 20 degrees to hold the selected speed

Question 28

What is the FD “pitch target box” command during takeoff, after an engine failure?

Answer 28

Initially set to 13 degrees and moves between 8 degrees to 13 degrees to maintain selected speed

Question 29

When is the “pitch target box” removed?

Answer 29

Removed upon selection of any vertical mode

Question 30

How does the FD respond during climb-out when TOGA is selected during a basic and FMS assisted go-around?

Answer 30

Basic: in green navigation, it holds the current heading in a wings-level mode and maintains a pitch from 10 degrees minimum to 20 degrees maximum changing to ALTS at the MAP altitude
FMS-assisted: during an ILS/GPS approach, GA changes to FMS NAV and VNAV at 400 ft AGL
Note: Half bank is not available for use during a missed approach

Question 31

How is the takeoff mode cleared?

Answer 31

Engaging the AP, selecting another vertical mode, pressing the TCS button

Question 32

What is the bank angle for 1/2 BANK/

Answer 32

17 degrees

Question 33

What happens to the AP/FD modes during a windshear warning?

Answer 33

Escape guidance is provided via the guidance cue, autothrottle and vertical modes indicate WSHR, thrust setting is TO EPR, autopilot disconnects after 2-sec delay

Question 34

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

Answer 34

Select another vertical mode

Question 35

On the ground, which two parameters are required for either autothrottle engage switches to function?

Answer 35

Aircraft speed less than 60 it, throttle levers are above 23 degrees TLA

Question 36

When does the autothrottle transition to the retard mode?

Answer 36

Aircraft in landing configuration, radio altitude of 50 ft AGL

Question 37

What does an amber LIM in the A/T mode annunciation indicate?

Answer 37

Flashing LIM: an airspeed target deviation is sensed
Steady LIM: structure limit, minimum speed limit, or a maximum power limit

Question 38

When is the autothrottle takeoff HOLD mode activated?

Answer 38

On ground above 60 it or in flight below 400 ft AGL

Question 39

How is the EDM mode cancelled?

Answer 39

Disengage the AP

Question 40

What occurs when EDM is manually selected above FL250?

Answer 40

FD commands a descent to 15,000 ft, FD commands a left turn 90 degrees, autothrottle targets airspeed of VMO-10 or MMO-0.02 until 15,000 ft, then 250 kt

Question 41

Prior to what speed must the autothrottle be verified engaged and takeoff thrust verified set?

Answer 41

60 KIAS

Question 42

What does the horizontal yellow line on the airspeed tape indicate?

Answer 42

Minimum maneuvering speed (Vate)

Question 43

Which parameters are used to calculate the minimum maneuvering speed (Vate) value?

Answer 43

IAS, flap position, and stall data

Question 44

What does Vate indicate on the airspeed tape?

Answer 44

Lowest speed the AT or flight guidance will allow

Question 45

What is the function of the FPV cage switch on the control wheel?

Answer 45

Allows the pilot to laterally centre the FPV and guidance cue should the FPV and cue be displayed at their limiting region of the PFD

Question 46

What are the three conditions required to automatically activate the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM)?

Answer 46

AP engaged, altitude above 25,000 ft, cabin altitude exceeded 14, 500 ft

Question 47

How will the aircraft react when the emergency descent mode (EDM) is active?

Answer 47

FD will command a descent to 15,000 ft, FD will command a turn of 90 degrees left, autothrottle will target airspeed of VMO-10 until 15,000, then 250 kt

Question 48

How is the emergency descent mode (EDM) cancelled?

Answer 48

Disengage the AP