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Global Vision CAE > AFCS > Flashcards

AFCS Flashcards

1
Q

When does the aFCS initially engage the yaw damper?

A

Automatically when a Remove Electronics Unit (ERU) and two sources of roll and yaw are available (IRS)

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2
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged?

A

41,000 ft

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3
Q

What will happen if the YD is disengaged with the AP engaged?

A

AP will disengage

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4
Q

What is the minimum height at which the autopilot can be engaged?

A

400 ft AGL

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5
Q

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a CAT I or CAT II precision approach (ILS)?

A

Category I or II ILS: 80 AGL

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6
Q

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used during a non-precision approach with no vertical guidance?

A

400 ft AGL

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7
Q

What is the minimum height that the autopilot can be used for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?

A

160 ft AGL

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8
Q

What is the speed limitation for FLC mode use?

A

Above .85 M is prohibited

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9
Q

When must both STALL PUSHER switches be on?

A

For duration of the flight

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10
Q

What are the four purposes of the MSTR DISC push button on the control wheel?

A
  1. Disconnects the autopilot,
  2. Silences a disconnect aural,
  3. Interrupts pitch trim while held,
  4. Inhibits the stick pusher while held (non-EASA a/c)
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11
Q

What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Pressing the AP push button, pressing either MSTR DISC push button, manual trim activation, pressing the YD switch on the FCP, physical override of the AP servos (not recommended)

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12
Q

What will cause automatic disengagement of the autopilot?

A

Unusual attitude, stall warning activation, activation of wind shear avoidance (2-sec delay)

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the touch control steering (TCS) button?

A

Momentarily overrides the autopilot and sync FPA, speed or VS value

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14
Q

What will happen in the event the master AFCS/AT fails?

A

Standby AFCS/AT automatically takes over and the FD modes will revert to basic ROLL and FPA

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15
Q

How is the aster AFCS identified?

A

FCP indicator lights adjacent to the YD and AP buttons

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16
Q

How is the AFCS 1 manually selected to AFCS 2?

A

Selecting the AFCS 1/2 switch on the reversion switch panel (RSP)

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17
Q

Does the indicator light on the flight control panel (FCP) indicate that the associated mode is currently active?

A

No. The pilot must confirm mode status or operation from the flight mode annunciation (FMA) on the PFD

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18
Q

How are active/armed flight director and auto throttle modes indicated on the FMA?

A

Active shows in green, armed shows in white

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19
Q

How does the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director modes are armed?

A

Basic ROLL and FPA modes

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20
Q

What is the steepest angle for approaches?

A

3.5 without AFM supplements

21
Q

What does the autopilot do in ROLL mode?

A

Heading hold when the bank is <5 degrees, hold the current bank angle if the bank is > 5 degrees to a maximum of 30 degrees

22
Q

When is the FMS prohibited as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches?

A

Localizer-based approaches, VOR approaches, NDB approaches
Note: VOR and NDB approaches require a bearing pointer displayed in addition to FMS guidance

23
Q

What is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur?

A

LNAV is the active lateral mode, the LOC beam is captured, and APR selected on the guidance panel

24
Q

When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS?

A

30 nm direct distance to the airfield

25
Q

When is the LOC preview mode enabled?

A

Automatically at 30 nm

26
Q

During an ILS approach, when does the independent approach mode of the AFCS occur?

A

GS capture

27
Q

What is the FD “pitch target box” command for a normal takeoff?

A

Initially set to 17.5 degrees and can move between 11.5 degrees to 20 degrees to hold the selected speed

28
Q

What is the FD “pitch target box” command during takeoff, after an engine failure?

A

Initially set to 13 degrees and moves between 8 degrees to 13 degrees to maintain selected speed

29
Q

When is the “pitch target box” removed?

A

Removed upon selection of any vertical mode

30
Q

How does the FD respond during climb-out when TOGA is selected during a basic and FMS assisted go-around?

A

Basic: in green navigation, it holds the current heading in a wings-level mode and maintains a pitch from 10 degrees minimum to 20 degrees maximum changing to ALTS at the MAP altitude
FMS-assisted: during an ILS/GPS approach, GA changes to FMS NAV and VNAV at 400 ft AGL
Note: Half bank is not available for use during a missed approach

31
Q

How is the takeoff mode cleared?

A

Engaging the AP, selecting another vertical mode, pressing the TCS button

32
Q

What is the bank angle for 1/2 BANK/

A

17 degrees

33
Q

What happens to the AP/FD modes during a windshear warning?

A

Escape guidance is provided via the guidance cue, autothrottle and vertical modes indicate WSHR, thrust setting is TO EPR, autopilot disconnects after 2-sec delay

34
Q

How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared?

A

Select another vertical mode

35
Q

On the ground, which two parameters are required for either autothrottle engage switches to function?

A

Aircraft speed less than 60 it, throttle levers are above 23 degrees TLA

36
Q

When does the autothrottle transition to the retard mode?

A

Aircraft in landing configuration, radio altitude of 50 ft AGL

37
Q

What does an amber LIM in the A/T mode annunciation indicate?

A

Flashing LIM: an airspeed target deviation is sensed
Steady LIM: structure limit, minimum speed limit, or a maximum power limit

38
Q

When is the autothrottle takeoff HOLD mode activated?

A

On ground above 60 it or in flight below 400 ft AGL

39
Q

How is the EDM mode cancelled?

A

Disengage the AP

40
Q

What occurs when EDM is manually selected above FL250?

A

FD commands a descent to 15,000 ft, FD commands a left turn 90 degrees, autothrottle targets airspeed of VMO-10 or MMO-0.02 until 15,000 ft, then 250 kt

41
Q

Prior to what speed must the autothrottle be verified engaged and takeoff thrust verified set?

A

60 KIAS

42
Q

What does the horizontal yellow line on the airspeed tape indicate?

A

Minimum maneuvering speed (Vate)

43
Q

Which parameters are used to calculate the minimum maneuvering speed (Vate) value?

A

IAS, flap position, and stall data

44
Q

What does Vate indicate on the airspeed tape?

A

Lowest speed the AT or flight guidance will allow

45
Q

What is the function of the FPV cage switch on the control wheel?

A

Allows the pilot to laterally centre the FPV and guidance cue should the FPV and cue be displayed at their limiting region of the PFD

46
Q

What are the three conditions required to automatically activate the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM)?

A

AP engaged, altitude above 25,000 ft, cabin altitude exceeded 14, 500 ft

47
Q

How will the aircraft react when the emergency descent mode (EDM) is active?

A

FD will command a descent to 15,000 ft, FD will command a turn of 90 degrees left, autothrottle will target airspeed of VMO-10 until 15,000, then 250 kt

48
Q

How is the emergency descent mode (EDM) cancelled?

A

Disengage the AP

Global Vision CAE (6 decks)

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