Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharm Test 2 > Aerosolized agents, Cold and Cough Agents, and Nervous System > Flashcards

Aerosolized agents, Cold and Cough Agents, and Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

definition of aerosol therapy

A

delivery of either solid or liquid aerosol into the respiratory tract for therapeutic purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

definition of medicated aerosol

A

a suspension of a liquid or solid drug in a carrier gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the goals of aerosol therapy

A

to humidify dry gases, to improve mobilization and clearance of respiratory secretions and to deliver aerosolized drugs to the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advantages of the aerosol delivery of drugs

A

meds are delivered very quickly, painless and convient, and they have smaller effective dosages of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

advantages of the aerosol route

A

delivers meds locally, reduces systemic effects, and lungs provide a portal of entry for inhaled aerosol agents intended for the systemic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

disadvantages of the aerosol route

A

difficult to get precise dosages each time, dose reproducibility is inconsistent, clinicians lack proper knowledge of device use and protocols, patients usually self administers which requires good patient education and compliance, numerous device types and variability, standardized technical info on aerosol producing devices is lacking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

definition of aerosol

A

suspension of solid or liquid in a carrier gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some factors that influence drug delivery within the lungs?

A

stability, penetration, deposition, and aerosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

stability definition

A

the tendency of an aerosol to remain in suspension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Because of stability it is important for the patient to do what?

A

hold their breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

penetration definition

A

refers to how deep into the lungs the aerosol particles travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

deposition definition

A

refers to the aerosolized agents particles falling out of suspension to remain in the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What influences deposition?

A

patients breathing pattern, particle size, and the patients disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

aerosol generating devices for oral inhalation have what efficiency percentage?

A

10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is one of the most important factors in determining whether an aerosol will get into the lung?

A

size of particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

10-15 microns deposit where?

A

stuck in upper airways (nose and mouth) Example nasal spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5-10 microns deposit where?

A

penetrate to upper airways. Large bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1-5 microns deposit where?

A

penetrate lower respiratory tract from the trachea to lung periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

<0.5 microns deposit where?

A

penetrate alveoli; may be breathed right back out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inertial impaction definition

A

impacting of aerosol particles upon airway walls. Increases with larger sizes and higher velocities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

settling is greater for large particles with slow velocities under the influence of what?

A

gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What increases time needed to maximize sedimentation?

A

inspiratory breath holds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Diffusion

A

also called brownian motion. Affects particles less than 1 um and is a function of time and random molecular motioin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Nasal decongestants

A

OTC metered spray pumps, which produce large particles that settle in the nasal region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nasal decongestants are what referred to as what?

A

vasoconstrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bronchodilators

A

enlarge the diameter of the airway, including relaxing the smooth muscle that surrounds the airways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Example of a nasal decongestant?

A

neo-synephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Example of a bronchodilator?

A

Proventil and Atrovent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Antiasthmatics or mast cell stabilizers

A

desensitize the allergic response; which prevents or decreases the incidence of asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Examples of antiasthmatics

A

Cromolyn sodium and Nedocromil sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Corticosteroids

A

used in moderate and severe asthma attacks to reduce the inflammatory response within the lung. Can prevent or lessen late phase asthma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Examples of corticorsteroids

A

QVAR, Vanceril, Flovent, Azmacort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mucolytics

A

break down secretions within the lungs to make it easier to expectorate and clear the lungs. Can be given via nebulization or directly instilled into the lungs in liquid form. Good for CF patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Example of mucolytic

A

Mucomyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Antimicrobials

A

aerosolized antibiotics and antiviral agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Examples of antimicrobials

A

Gentamicin, Amphotericin B, Ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SVN

A

mediciated aerosol delivery device that uses a gas powered source to continuously aerosolize a liquid medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long do SVN treatments last?

A

8-12 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most common type of SVN

A

small volume jet neb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Advantages to SVN

A

ability to aerosol many drug solutions, able to aerosolize drug mixtures, minimal cooperation or coordination required, useful in very young or very old, effective with low inspiratory flows, normal breathing pattern can be used, drug concentrations/doses can be modified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Disadvantages to SVN

A

equipment required is expensive, treatments are somewhat lenghty, contamination is possible, assembly and cleaning are required, wet/cold spray occurs, variability in performance characteristics among different types of brands, power source is needed, dead volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Breath Actuated Nebulizer (BAN)

A

newer, nebulizes only on inspiration and has a low dead volume. Treatment time is around 3-5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ultrasonic Nebulizer (USN)

A

electrically powered, capable of high output, particle sizes vary by brand. small portable unit that requires DC voltage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Advantages to USN

A

small, rapid nebulization with shorter treatment times, smaller drug amounts, can be used during travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Disadvantages to USN

A

expensive, fragile, requires electrical source, possible degradation of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Mesh nebulizers

A

use a plate or mesh with multiple apertures to move liquid formulations through a fine mesh to generate aerosol. Have no baffle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Advantages to mesh nebs

A

does not require gas source, powered electrically, leave little dead volume, efficient, small size, shorter treatment times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Disadvantages to mesh nebs

A

expensive, fragile, requires electrical source, possible degrading effect on drug yet to be determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

LVN

A

aerosolized bronchodilators administered continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Examples of LVN?

A

HEART and HOPE nebs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

LVN are used for?

A

status asthmaticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

LVN are effective treatment for what type of patients?

A

ones with severe pulmonary disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI) Advantages

A

small, portable, efficient, short treatment time, easy to use, self administered, more than 100 doses are available, no drug prep needed, difficult to contaminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Disadvantages to MDI’s

A

complex hand breathing coodination, proper inhalation pattern, drug concentration/doses are fixed, foreign body aspirations can occur, high oropharyngeal impaction and loss occur if extension device is not used, canister depletion is difficult to determine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Factors affecting MDI performance

A

loss of dose, shaking canister, timing of actuation intervals, open mouth vs closed mouth use, loss of prime, storage temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the two categories of MDI’s

A

Conventional pMDI and Breath-actuated pMDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Spacer devices

A

reservoir devices are used with aerosol delivery devices such as MDIs to optimize drug delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Reservoir definition

A

extension tube with a mouthpiece added to the MDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the 2 types of reservoir devices?

A

spacers, and valved holding chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Spacer definition

A

simple extensions with no one way valves to contain the aerosol cloud; placed b/w MDI and patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Valved holding chamber definition

A

spacers with one way valves that hold aerosol until the patient inhales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Spacer device advantages

A

allows patient to slow down, better lung deposition, allows patient to have something stable in their mouth. if patient lags behind when breathing in it is unimportant because the aerosol is formed in chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Disadvantages to spacer devices

A

large, additional expense, some assembly required, possible source of baterial contamination, patient errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What percentage of patients do not use their MDIs correctly

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MDI instructions

A

Assemble inhaler (hold upright and take off cap), Shake MDI well, exhale normally, hold MDI about 1 inch in front of open mouth, begin to take a slow deep breath; pressing down on the canister as you continue to inhale, breathe in until lungs are full and then hold breath for up to 10 seconds, wait 1 minute before taking next puff, reassemble and store.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What should you always do after taking an inhaled steroid?

A

rinse mouth with mouthwash or water to prevent oportunistic oral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Dry powder inhaler (DPI)

A

devices that deliver the drug in powder form to the lungs for absorption, breath actuated, small/self generating, now external power sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Patient must generate what LPM for the device to properly aerosolize the dry powder

A

30-90 LPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

DPI instructions

A

ensure mouthpiece is clear, exhale normally away from DPI, inhale from the mouthpiece fast to total lung capicity, hold breath for up to 10 seconds, remove mouthpiece from mouth and exhale away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Example of DPI

A

Advair Serevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A DPI is difficult to take for who?

A

small children and someone is acute respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Advantages to DPI

A

small, portable, no CFC propellants, no cold freon effect, simple to determine remaining drug doses, built in dose counter, no head tilt needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

DPI disadvantages

A

only a limited range of drugs are available to date, patient are not as aware of the dose inhaled as with an MDI and many distrust delivery, moderate to high inpiratory flow rates are needed, high oropharyngeal impaction, some devices may require patients to reload before each use, vulnerable to ambient humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When to choose an MDI for a patient?

A

patient can follow instructions and has a stable breathing pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When to choose a SVN for a patient?

A

patient is unable to follow instructions, has an unstable breathing pattern, or is in respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When to choose a DPI for a patient?

A

for adults and children who have adequate inspiratory flow rates; works well in cold weather conditions (unlike MDI’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What devices can be used on mechanically ventilated patients?

A

SVNs and MDIs but special considerations are used for SVNs because the additional flow used to power the SVN can add additional ventilatory volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are some recommended ventilator parameters for optimal deposition

A

patient-triggered breath is better, tidal volume >500 mL for adults, slow RR, slow inspiratory flow rate (30LPM or less) , longer inspiratory times

79
Q

Factors that affect aerosol deposition in intubated patients are?

A

ventilator settings, ventilator circuit, type or aerosol device, and patient breathing patterns

80
Q

Central nervous systems contains what?

A

brain and spinal cord

81
Q

Peripheral nervous system contains what?

A

somatic and autonomic/ compromised of all the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord

82
Q

Afferent nerves

A

carry sensory info from parts of the body to the brain for processing

83
Q

Efferent nerves

A

carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord; also known as motor nerves, voluntary control, Causes you to DO AN ACTION

84
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

involuntary, unconscious control (digestion). Contain the parasympathetic and sympathetic branches

85
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

voluntary, conscious motor control

86
Q

Sensory branch

A

made of afferent neurons from heat, light, pressure, and pain receptors, Stimulation is sent from receptors to CNS

87
Q

Somatic nervous system is manipulated by what?

A

neuromuscular blocking agents to induce paralysis

88
Q

Autonomic nervous system regulates the activity of what?

A

HR, pupillary dilation/contraction, glandular secretions, smooth muscles, exocrine glands, cardiac tissue, and certain metabolic activites

89
Q

Parasympathetic branch

A

Rest and Digest, day to day bodily functions, essential to life.

90
Q

SLUDGE

A

salvation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/digestion, gastronintestinal motility, emesis (vomiting)

91
Q

Sympathetic branch

A

Fight or Flight, heart rate and blood pressure increase, blood sugar rises, blow flow shifts from periphery to heart and muscles, bronchodialtion, not essential to life

92
Q

Steps of nervous system conduction

A

a resting nerve receives a stimulatioin, an electrical impulse carries the signal along the nerve fiber or axon, the synapse connects to either another nerve, muscle or gland, a chemical neurotransmitter substance must now travel across the synapse, passes out of presynaptic knob to post synaptic cleft, this is where the neurotransmitter is picked up and continues to effector site

93
Q

Chemical are manufactured and stored where?

A

at the end of axons and released upon stimulation by the electrical impulse

94
Q

What two main neurochemical substances are stored or manufactured at the ends of the nerve fibers?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh) and Norepinephrine (NE)

95
Q

ACh

A

neurotransmitters for all autonomic ganglia, parasympathetic neuroeffector junctions, and somatic neuromuscular junctions

96
Q

NE

A

neurotransmitter at sympathetic terminal nerve sites

97
Q

Cholinergic receptors

A

receptors that bind with ACh, can be either muscarinic or nicotinic

98
Q

Nicotinic receptors

A

skeletal muscles of the somatic system at the site of action, preganglionic sites in the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system, faster response time

99
Q

Muscarinic receptors

A

postganglionic site of the parasympathetic nervous system, slower response time

100
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

bind with NE for in the sympathetic nervous system, includes alpha and beta receptors

101
Q

Alpha 1 affects what tissues?

A

Vascular SM, Pilomotor SM, pupil

102
Q

Action of Alpha 1

A

contracts, dilation, “goose bumps”

103
Q

Beta 1 affects what tissues?

A

heart

104
Q

Beta 1 action

A

stimulates rate and force

105
Q

Beta 2 affects what tissues?

A

Respiratory SM vasculature, autonomic motor (involuntary musc. stimulation)

106
Q

Beta 2 action

A

bronchodilates, tremors, relaxes vascular beds

107
Q

Dopamine affects what tissue?

A

renal

108
Q

Dopamine action

A

relaxes arteries

109
Q

Beta 2 are used for treatment of what?

A

bronchospasm (asthma)

110
Q

One junction system

A

somatic NS, brain ——> effector site

111
Q

Two junction system

A

autonomic NS, brain —-> junction —-> effector site

112
Q

Somatic nervous system transmission

A

controls skeletal muscles, the synapse is the neuromuscular junction, a single nerve axon carries the signal to the brain for sensory input

113
Q

Autonomic NS transmission

A

two junctions to pass thru. Presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron.

114
Q

Ganglion definition

A

nerve that lies outside the CNS

115
Q

cholinergic nerve transmission

A

mediated by neurotransmitter ACh

116
Q

ACh is broken down by what?

A

acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

117
Q

Adrenergic nerve transmission is mediated by what?

A

NE

118
Q

Drugs that affects the ANS

A

cholinergics/parasympathomimetics, anticholinergics/parasympatholytics, adrenergics/sympathomimetics, antidrenergics/sympathoytics

119
Q

Cholinergics direct acting

A

mimic ACh, bind and activate muscarinic or nicotinic receptors directly

120
Q

Cholinergics indirect acting

A

inhibit AChE causing building of endogenous ACh at neuroeffector junction of parasympathetic nerve ending or the neuromuscular junction so more ACh is availalbe to receptor sites

121
Q

Adverse reactions to cholinergics

A

SLUDGE, blurred vision, SOB, dec HR and BP

122
Q

Anticholinergics

A

block ACh receptors, blocks salivary secretion, decreases mucous gland secretion, bronchodilation, inc HR, mydriasis, decreases GI acid secretion, relaxes bladder, inhibits motion sickness

123
Q

Adrenergics sympathetic activation effects

A

heart stimulation, inc CO, inc BP, mental stimulation, accelerated metabolism, bronchodilation

124
Q

What are some Catecholamies

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol

125
Q

Antiadrenergics

A

adrenergic blockers block or slow the effects of the sympathetic system

126
Q

Examples of Alpha blockers

A

Doxazosin, Terazosin

127
Q

Examples of Beta blockers

A

Propranolol, Metoprolol, Atenolol

128
Q

Adverse effects of antiadrenergics

A

bradycardia, atrioventricular blockade, exacerbation of asthma

129
Q

common cold definition

A

viral upper respiratory tract infection, usually characterized by mild/general malaise and a runny/stuffy nose

130
Q

Colds last about how long?

A

7-10 days

131
Q

Epidemiolgy of colds

A

average adult has 2-4 colds per year. Americans suffer one billion colds annually

132
Q

Pathophysiology of colds

A

more than 200 viruses cause the common cold. Rhinovirus 20-40%, Coronavirus 20%, RSV 10%

133
Q

Cold symptoms

A

sneezing, sore throat, cough, chest discomfort

134
Q

Treatment for cold

A

rest, fluids, liquids, supportive care, symptom management

135
Q

Flu definition

A

influenza, caused by a viral infection, onset is generally rapid, systemic symptoms

136
Q

Flu symptoms

A

fever, headache, general muscle ache, extreme fatigue/weakness

137
Q

Treatment of flu

A

Anti-virals and flu vaccine

138
Q

Sympathomimetics are what?

A

decongestants

139
Q

Anti histamines do what?

A

dry secretions

140
Q

Expectorants do what?

A

Inc. mucus clearance

141
Q

Anti tussives are what?

A

suppress cough reflex

142
Q

Sympathomimetics

A

included in cold remedies, cause vasoconstriction, many are included in topical sprays,

143
Q

Mechanisms of action for sympathomimetics

A

causes vasoconstriction which leads to reduced blood flow, reduces swelling of nasal passages, decreases inflammatory process

144
Q

Topical vs Oral sympathomimetics

A

a lower dose is needed for topical faster onset and less systemic side effects, both have rebound nasal congestion, more extensive decongestant effects involving deeper blood vessels when taking oral

145
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

Sudafed and Dimetap, use with caution with diabetes, heart disease, hyperthyroidism or glaucoma. duration varies on dosage form,

146
Q

Pseudoephedrine is now behind the counter due to what?

A

U.S Patriot Act because of its use to make meth

147
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Neo-Synephrine limited proof of effectiveness orally. 10mg dose of this is not much better than placebo

148
Q

Examples of nasal decongestants

A

Afrin, Pretz-D, Privine, Tyzine, Neo-Synephrine

149
Q

Side effects to decongestants

A

rebound congestion, tremor, tachycardia, inc. BP

150
Q

Intranasal corticosteroids (nasal sprays) examples

A

Rhinocort, Nasalide, Flonase, Nasacort, Nasonex, Vancenase, Beconase

151
Q

Mechanisms of action for nasal sprays

A

anti inflammatory effects by inhibiting cytokine release from nasal epithelial cells, inhibits leukotriene production, and decreases nasal congestion

152
Q

How long can it take corticosteroids to work?

A

2-4 weeks. Max effects can take up to 6 months

153
Q

Side effects to nasal sprays

A

burning/stinging, irritation, dry nose

154
Q

Antihistamines

A

usually cause drowsiness. Benedryl is one example.

155
Q

What receptors are blocked when using antihistamines

A

H-1 and H-2

156
Q

H-1 histamine receptor

A

anti histamines. Smooth muscle contraction. Results in increased vagal activity

157
Q

H-2 histamine receptor

A

H-2 blockers, mediate actions of histamine on gastric secretions

158
Q

H-3 receptors

A

located primarily in CNS, autoreceptors for cholinergic neurotransmission in the airway. Involved with CNS functions and feedback control of histamine release

159
Q

production of histamine is influenced by what factors?

A

chemicals, physical injury, allergens, drugs, dust, and cigarette smoke

160
Q

Where is histamine stored?

A

tissue mast cells, found in connective tissue

161
Q

airway obstruction results from what?

A

mucosal edema

162
Q

Effects of histamine in pulmonary system

A

inc. airway resistance, dec. expiratory flow rate, dec. diffusion capacity, inc. total lung capacity, inc. mucus production, and promotes mucosal edema

163
Q

Effects of histamine systemically

A

vasodilation, stimulates adenyl cyclase in mast cells, releases catecholamines from adrenal medulla, and inc. vascular permeability

164
Q

place in therapy for histamines

A

useful for allergic rhinitis, better at preventing the onset of symptoms. NOT useful for acute asthma

165
Q

mechanism of action for histamines

A

blocks the action of the H-1 receptors.

166
Q

1st generation antihistamine

A

when given with a decongestant it is recommended by guidelines. Early generations are more proven and have more rapid results

167
Q

2nd generation antihistamines

A

no as effective because they are less sedating due to the fact that they don’t penetrate the CNS

168
Q

examples of first generation antihistamines

A

Benadryl, Dimetane, Chlor-Timeton

169
Q

examples of second generation antihistamines

A

Zyrtec, Allergra, and Claritan

170
Q

side effects to anithistamines

A

sedation (first > second), dry mouth/throat, altered coordination, some patients experience exictation, can induce their own metabolism.

171
Q

What is sometimes added to antihistamines

A

decongestants

172
Q

definition of expectorants

A

agents that facilitate removal of mucus from the lower respiratory tract

173
Q

Mucolytic expectorants

A

facilitate removal via lysing action

174
Q

Stimulant expectorants

A

increase the production and clearance of mucus

175
Q

Composition of mucus

A

95% water, and 5% long/flexible strands of protein and lipid molecules

176
Q

Functions of mucus are what?

A

shields epithelia from direct contact with toxic materials, irritants, allergens, and microorganisms, prevents infecton, prevent water from moving into and out of epithelia and lubrication of airway

177
Q

what is the best expectorant?

A

Water

178
Q

airway obstruction results in what?

A

increased mucus thickness, impaired ciliary activity, dehydration, and thick retained secretions in airways

179
Q

increased mucus thickness can be caused by what?

A

chronic bronchitis, asthma, CF, acute bronchitis, and pneumonia

180
Q

impaired ciliary activity cause be cause by what factors?

A

ET tubes, extreme temps, high 02 concentration, dust/fumes/smoke, dehydration, thick mucus, and infections

181
Q

dehydration can be cause by what?

A

inc. RR, inc. depth of breathing, systemic fluid loss, and infections

182
Q

what agents can enhance diuresis

A

caffeine, tea/cola, beer, and alcohol mixtures

183
Q

what is an example of an expectorant?

A

Guaifenesin

184
Q

gauifenesin does what?

A

irritates the gastric mucosa, and stimulates respiratory tract secretions leading to inc. respiratory fluid voluje and dec. mucus viscosity

185
Q

use of expectorants in bronchitis?

A

improved cough symptoms, chest discomfort, ease in bringing up sputum, duration of acute exacerbations dec. , symptoms and airflow improve, further infection reduced.

186
Q

Mechanism of action for expectorants?

A

inc. vagal gastic relfex stimulation. Absorption into the respiratory glands to stimulate mucus production directly

187
Q

Antitussives are what?

A

cough suppressants

188
Q

The cough center is located where?

A

medulla

189
Q

What type of cough do you want to try and surpress?

A

dry, hacking, non productive cough

190
Q

anti tussive action range for codeine

A

10-20mg

191
Q

above 30mg of codeine produces what?

A

analgesia

192
Q

examples of antitussives

A

codeine sulfate, hydrocodone, Robitussin, Benadryl, and Tessalon Perles

193
Q

cough suppressants should NOT be give to who?

A

patients with thick retained secretions

Pharm Test 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions