AERONAUTICALENGINEERING MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT PROCESSGUIDE Flashcards
1
Q
The combined efforts of QA personnel, maintenance supervisors, and technicians are necessary to do what?
A
Ensure high quality maintenance and equipment reliability.
2
Q
QA inspectors shall be selected and designated in writing by whom?
A
Engineering Officer.
3
Q
What are the three general causes most FOD can be attributed to?
A
poor housekeeping, poor maintenance practices, and carelessness
4
Q
What monitors the condition of enclosed mechanical systems through determination of wear metal concentrations in the lubricating fluid?
A
JOINT OIL ANALYSIS PROGRAM (JOAP)
5
Q
History of the oil analysis program has clearly shown that what is usually the decisive factor in its success?
A
the attitude of an operating activity toward the program
6
Q
Who will provide funds directly to DoD for USCG participation in JOAP?
A
Commandant (CG-41)
7
Q
Who will ensure that maintenance personnel are thoroughly trained in JOAP sample taking and documentation procedures?
A
Engineering Officers
8
Q
JOAP sample taking and documentation procedures are covered in what manual?
A
NAVAIR 17-15-50.1,2,3,4
9
Q
What does the term RELIABILITY-CENTERED MAINTENANCE (RCM) refer to?
A
A program of disciplined logic to realize the inherent reliability capabilities of equipment being maintained.
10
Q
What program will monitor the performance of equipment and will bring deteriorating trends to management’s attention.
A
The JOAP program
11
Q
What is the most effective and practical procedure by which operating activities can preclude the difficulties caused by free water in aircraft fuel tanks?
A
Eliminate the water and inspect for the presence of foreign matter on each daily and preflight inspection.
12
Q
It is recommended that approximately how much fuel from each drain be inspected using a clear, clean, dry glass container?
A
one pint
13
Q
Experience has shown that serious engine and airframe problems will develop if inadequate attention and effort are given to what?
A
maintaining fuel quality
14
Q
The normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor in turbine fuel (FSII) is what?
A
0.10-0.15 percent by volume.
15
Q
Introducing Fuel System Icing Inhibitor additive will lower the flash point of JP-5 by how many degrees?
A
4-degrees Fahrenheit and will inhibit the growth of bacteria.
16
Q
What is the fuel handeling procedures process guide?
A
CGTO PG-85-00-170-A
17
Q
What manual Identifies Methods for Bulk Petroleum Products Systems including Hydrocarbon Missile Fuels?
A
MIL-STD-161G
18
Q
What manual is Quality Control of Fuels and Lubricants?
A
AFTO 42B-1-1
19
Q
What publications provide specific guidance relative to aircraft fuel storage, handling and establishes minimum quality and surveillance standards?
A
CGTO PG-85-00-170-A
MIL-STD-161G
FTO 42B-1-1
20
Q
What maintenance performed at the unit is key to minimizing corrosion damage between
overhaul or Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM)?
A
diligent corrosion maintenance
21
Q
What program is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of
Compromising emanations?
A
TEMPEST
22
Q
Who oversees the Coast Guard aviation TEMPEST program?
A
Commandant (CG-41)
23
Q
Who will provide Commandant (CG-41) with national, Department of Homeland Security, and Coast Guard TEMPEST policy?
A
Commandant (CG-61)
24
Q
Who manages the Coast Guard Aviation TEMPEST policy as directed by Commandant (CG-41) and ensures conformance with current Coast Guard TEMPEST policy?
A
ALC
25
What is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of unintentional signals that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transmitted, received, handled, or otherwise processed by telecommunication or automated information systems equipment.
TEMPEST
26
When the need arises at the local level to pass on information to maintenance personnel, what shall be issued?
a maintenance instruction
27
Whenever any maintenance instruction has served its purpose, it should be canceled and filed for how many months after completion date?
6 months
28
What may be prepared when a directive or situation dictates that specific work must be performed on a one-time basis, the work will be completed on one aircraft model or piece of equipment and will not require further action?
SAMI
29
What does the acronym SAMI stand for?
Single Action Maintenance Instruction
30
What is a local directive providing instructions for the performance of work which is or may be of a continuing nature?
CAMI
31
What does the acronym CAMI stand for?
Continuing Action Maintenance Instruction
32
What may be prepared when a directive or situation requires that technical information be promulgated within an activity?
TIMI
33
When it is necessary to disseminate information, such as techniques and local policy, which does not direct the accomplishment of specific work at definite intervals, but which is sustaining in nature, what may be issued?
TIMI
34
What does the acronym TIMI stand for?
Technical Information Maintenance Instruction
35
What do you replace damaged tools with?
Replacement tools shall conform to the same shape and size as original tools to ensure integrity of tool control which utilizes foam cutouts or other tool displacement methods.
36
What is the purpose of the composite repair program?
To properly maintain and repair aeronautical composite components.
37
What resins are not authorized for use on any coast guard aircraft?
Polyester
38
All repairs to primary or carbon composite structures must be documented where?
airframe or applicable component SCHR
39
No repairs shall be made to any primary structures without prior approval from who?
ALC Engineering
40
No repairs shall be made to composite structures by any unit unless they meet all safety requirements listed in what manual?
AFTO 1-1-690
41
What type of repair is defined as those that do not restore the designed structural strength of a component, but protect it from additional environmental and physical damage?
Temporary repair
42
What program applies to the inspection, maintenance, and repair of aircraft and aircraft fuel systems?
Coast Guard Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program
43
What program describes the processes, means, and methods used for recognizing, evaluating, and controlling potential confined space hazards associated with fuel cell and fuel tank maintenance and for communicating those hazards to employees?
The Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)
The ACSP was formerly known as the Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program (AVGFE). IAW CIM 5100.47
44
When is an air station required to maintain an Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program AVGFE Program?
where it is reasonable to anticipate routine entry into aircraft fuel tanks.
45
In the event that a unit does not have an AVGFE Program and the need to enter a fuel tank exists, the requirements of this program may be accomplished by who?
by a certified marine chemist, an industrial hygienist, or a certified gas free engineer
Naval Gas Free Engineer or a Certified Marine Chemist IAW CIM 5100.47
46
The Aviation Gas Free Engineer will normally be what officer?
: QA Officer, Assistant Engineering Officer, or Maintenance Officer.
47
The AVGFE is designated by who?
designated in writing by the CO or the CO’s designee
48
What does AVGFE stand for?
Aviation Gas Free Engineer
49
What does AVGFET stand for?
Aviation Gas Free Engineering Technician
50
The individual assigned to the QA department who has the responsibility for determining if a fuel system is safe from fire, explosion, and oxygen deficiency or enrichment is called who?
AVGFET
51
In what manual would you find the duties of the AVGFE?
Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47
52
The AVGFET certification is good for how long?
One Year
53
The AVGFET is designated by who?
Commanding Officer in writing
54
What is defined as any part, assembly, or installation equipment containing a critical characteristic whose failure, malfunction, or absence could cause an uncommanded engine shutdown or catastrophic failure resulting in loss of or serious damage to the aircraft?
Aviation Critical Safety Items (CSI)/Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Parts (FSCAP)
55
Parts classified as CSI/FSCAP by ALC or Other Government Agency (OGA) shall be identified by what letter designation following either the Acquisition Method Suffix Code or the FltCrit blocks on the Aviation Maintenance Management Information System (AMMIS) Material Identification Data (MID) forms in the All Data Program?
The letter "C"
56
Failure or unsatisfactory condition of CSI/FSCAP noted by air stations shall be reported how?
urgent interim Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)
57
How do you request a change to the Authorized Chemical Use List (ACL)?
Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS), Deficiency Report CG-22
58
What program establishes Coast Guard policy and procedures that address the technical aspects of airworthiness for all air vehicles manned or unmanned?
TECHNICAL AIRWORTHINESS ASSURANCE PROGRAM
59
What manual is the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Program discussed in?
ACCB process guide PG-85-00-70
60
Who has the central responsibility for maintaining the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Process Guide?
The Chief, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (CG-41) and the Commanding Officer of the Aviation Logistics Center
61
Lathes, milling machines, and similar types of equipment that produce cuttings or flying particles should be set at ___ degree angles to each other?
15
62
What is the most effective means of preventing unsafe operations and injuries from powered machinery?
improved machine design, or installation of protective mechanical guards
63
In addition to scheduled shop safety inspections conducted by designated safety representatives, shop supervisors shall, in the interest of operator safety, inspect all shop equipment or machinery how often?
periodically
64
Metal hood type guards shall enclose how much of the abrasive wheel?
two-thirds
65
Tool rests shall be adjusted to provide a minimum of _____ from abrasive wheel grinding surface.
1/8-inch
66
Nickel-cadmium battery shops will be mechanically ventilated to provide ____ air changes per hour in order to ensure the removal of any hydrogen gas generated as a result of charging.
three to four
67
If electrical exhaust fans are installed in a battery shop, they shall be certified__________.
explosion proof
68
Under no circumstances should a ______ be used for cleaning batteries.
wire brush
69
When mixing electrolyte and water for batteries what order do you mix the two?
pour the electrolyte into the water slowly.
70
Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease) by at least a distance of ______.
20 feet
71
Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease) by what type of barrier?
noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1/2 hour.
72
What shall not be used as a substitute for compressed air?
Oxygen or compressed flammable gases
73
What should you do to Cylinders found to have leaking fittings or valves?
taken into the open, away from potential sources of ignition and slowly drained of their contents.
74
What should be used to remove Burrs, Chips, and Metal Cuttings from machines, work tables, stands, and floors?
Brushes
75
What should you not use to remove Burrs, Chips, and Metal Cuttings from machines, work tables, stands, and floors?
Compressed Air
76
Where water wash facilities are provided for small paint booths, they will have a minimum of _________across the face of the booth.
200 feet per minute linear air velocity
77
How often will cans to dispose of rags, waste, and other materials saturated with paint or flammable chemicals be emptied?
Daily
78
What capacity containers will be used for storing paints and dopes?
not more than 5 gallon capacity
79
Portable electric hand tools shall meet grounding requirements of who?
National Electrical Safety Code
80
When can electric powered hand tools be used near flammable or explosive type materials?
When they are approved as being explosion proof
81
How high must all electric power tools, switches, junction boxes and regulators be positioned above the floor level in hangars which house fueled aircraft?
at least 18 inches
82
All portable electronic test equipment shall meet grounding requirements of who?
National Electrical Safety Code
83
What is the most common result of industrial solvent exposure to the skin?
dermatitis
84
What are two kinds of solvent poisoning?
acute and chronic
85
What kind of poisoning results from inhalation of an excessive concentration within a short time?
Acute
86
What kind of poisoning results from repeated daily exposures for extended or prolonged periods of time?
Chronic
87
What manual would you use to find specific guidance for the disposal of hazardous waste?
Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1
88
Petroleum based solvents, such as paints, varnishes, cutting oils, and strong soap can be classified as what?
specific skin irritants
89
Dermatitis causing agents that include such substances and compounds as hydrochloric acid, hydrofluoric acid, sulfuric acid, sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide, alkalies; salts of metals, such as silver, chromium, mercury, zinc; and nonmetallic materials such as chloral, phosphorus, and bromine are considered what?
General Irritants
90
What should be used for purging solvent gases from equipment or piping systems and in welding of solvent containers (hot work)?
Nitrogen gas
91
How should all solvent soaked cloths or waste be disposed of?
in airtight metal containers and removed from the work area
92
An adequate system of ventilation shall be provided in all areas where finishing materials are stored, mixed, or sprayed because of the fire, explosion, and health hazards involved. Adequacy of ventilation in such areas shall be determined and approved by who?
Safety Officer
93
How should solvents be cleaned from the skin?
Suitable creams and cleansers
94
Where are the criteria for lighting minimums found?
IESNA Lighting Handbook, Ninth Edition, and ANSI-Industrial Lighting RP-7
95
Where can you find Coast Guard policy regarding noise hazards and hearing conservation?
Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47
96
What will be used for carrying and handling small quantities of flammable liquid?
Safety cans
97
What is the Coast Guard Hazardous Waste Management Manual?
COMDTINST M16478.1
98
Should the purchase of replacement fire extinguishers be necessary, flight line fire extinguishers shall be of what kind?
150 pound dry chemical
99
Hangar and shop fire extinguishers shall be of what kind?
CO2 or dry chemical as recommended by the local fire marshal
100
All extinguishers shall be inspected, serviced, and maintained in accordance with what?
manufacturer’s instructions
101
How often shall visual inspections be completed on fire extinguishers?
monthly and recorded on a tag attached to the extinguisher
102
Flight line fire extinguisher requirements shall be in accordance with what manual?
Ground Servicing of Aircraft and Static Grounding/Bonding, AFTO 00-25-172
103
Existing static grounds should be tested how often?
every 24 months
104
Where should you look for procedures on testing static grounds and markings?
MIL-HDBK-274
105
Static grounding points with a resistance reading of greater than ______ ohms should be removed from service.
10,000 ohms
106
A certified power ground with a reading of greater than ____ohms should be removed from service.
25 ohms
107
Certified static and power grounds will be marked how?
1-inch letters with date tested and test results, measured in ohms, stenciled on the ground decal/painted ground marking
108
Spills of fuels are classified into how many groups groups?
3
109
What should be done with spills involving an area of 18 inches or less in any dimension?
Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched.
110
What should be done with spills not over 10 feet in any dimension or not over 50 square feet in area and not of a continuing nature?
have a fire guard posted, up wind, with A foam-type or Halon-type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.
111
What should be done with spills over 50 square feet or of a continuing nature?
shall be immediately reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notify the airport or local fire department to inert the spill. Anyone in the spill area shall leave at once.
112
What type of fire fighting agent does not have flashback prevention capabilities?
Halon
113
What type of solvents should maintenance personnel clean aircraft parts, hangar floors, equipment, or clothing with?
high flash point or nonflammable substances or liquids.
114
Temporary improvised scaffolds or stands may be used if approved by who?
Safety Officer
115
On collet-equipped jacks, the collet shall be kept within how many threads of the lift tube cylinders during raising and lowering?
two threads
116
When jacking, wind velocity not-to-exceed _____ miles per hour shall be considered the maximum.
15
117
What shall be used to eliminate the possibility of over-inflation of tires?
Pressure regulators
118
Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) used at aviation units shall be tested in accordance with what manual?
Civil Engineering Manual, COMDTINST M11000.11
119
Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices) shall be tested in accordance with what manual?
NAVAIR 17-1-114
120
What should be used to record periodic inspections/testing Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) and Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices)?
ACMS special requirements (MSR)
121
What must never be allowed to come into contact with or be used in the presence of oxygen cylinders, valves, regulators, gauges, or fittings?
Oil or grease
122
How is aviation breathing oxygen identified?
a white band around the green cylinder or the words aviator's breathing oxygen painted on the cylinder
123
Do not deplete oxygen below what PSI?
50 psi
124
When flow testing the aircraft oxygen system, what amount of oxygen should be used?
the minimum amount of oxygen necessary to check the system.
125
The servicing control valve on an aircraft oxygen system shall not be opened more than how much?
3/4-turn
126
The radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of any fueling, defueling, or similar operation unless a dummy load is installed that prevents the energizing of the antenna?
300 ft
127
Electric carts shall not be operated within how many feet of aircraft during fueling/defueling operations or in the event of an aircraft fuel spill?
50 feet
128
Engine driven generators, heating and air-conditioning units shall be located how far from refueling facilities, tank vents, and drains
as far as practical
129
Who ensures that their unit has a well defined towing plan?
Commanding Officer
130
What aircraft requires another qualified person be assigned to maintain auxiliary hydraulic system pressure utilizing the hand pump during towing operations?
HC-130
131
Who can designate engine run-up areas in accordance with airport procedures?
Commanding Officer
132
What position should the taxi signalman maintain when directing aircraft?
slightly ahead and in line with the wing tip on the pilot's side of the aircraft
133
How close to an obstruction can you taxi an aircraft without a wing walker?
No closer than 25 feet
134
Aircraft must not be taxied at anytime within how many feet of obstructions?
5 feet
135
Hot fueling operations are not allowed within _____ feet of an occupied building, unless operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41).
200 feet
136
Hot fueling operations are not allowed within 200 feet of an occupied building, unless operating under a waiver from who?
Commandant (CG-41).
137
Hazardous waste disposal shall be in accordance with what manual?
Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1
138
What manual shall be used to supplement the applicable environmental regulations by providing procedures and requirements for the collection, segregation, storage, and disposition of recoverable and waste petroleum products which are generated through normal aircraft maintenance operations?
Management of Recoverable and Waste Liquid Petroleum Products, AFTO 42B-1-23
139
Aviation fuel bowsers procured or constructed after 1 January 1995 for aircraft ground support shall meet the standard specifications contained where?
Appendix A, AFTO 42B-1-23.
140
What shall be the only system used at all aviation units for ordering the maintenance of, and audit of technical publication unit libraries?
TIMOS or any future electronic library management system
141
All changes, supplements, rapid access change (RACs), etc., to technical manuals will be incorporated into the applicable manual within how many working days?
five
142
Each unit will conduct semiannual audits during the months of April and October. What must be done to show accomplishment of this task?
A Mandatory Special Requirements (MSR) card must be signed
143
What are issued when only parts of an existing manual are affected?
Changes
144
When updating technical manuals what is distributed by expedited means to all units under distribution for the publication and normally involves possible safety of flight or faulty equipment items?
RAC (Rapid Action Change)
145
When updating technical manuals this is normally distributed in a message format and will require immediate action.
IRAC (Interim Rapid Action Change)
146
What are issued when only parts of an existing Technical Order (TO) are affected?
Changes
147
What is a complete new edition of an existing TO and has a new basic date called?
A Revision
148
What percentage of a technical order has to be changed for it to be called a revision?
50%
149
How long shall an AFTO781J be maintained for?
one year
150
How often shall a new MDL be printed?
once a month
151
How do you access the MDL for a particular aircraft?
ALMIS DSS Web Reports under Unit Maintenance Reports
152
What computer generated report maintains a record of significant maintenance actions on SNT items?
Significant Component History Report (SCHR)
153
Components with unknown or missing serial numbers, TSN, TSO, or CSN (if applicable) must not be installed until data is determined or assigned by who?
ALC Engineering Services Division or Commandant (CG-41)
154
The Monthly Unit Operating Statistics MORPT entry may only be entered by who?
the activity owning the aircraft when the month ended
155
When does the Monthly Unit Operating Statistics MORPT report have to be submitted to ACMS?
not later than the seventh day following the end of the report period
156
Aircraft Missile Condition Report AFTO 103 is used for what aircraft?
C-130
157
What form shall be used to recommend corrections of errors which affect the meaning of information or procedures contained in COMDTINSTs, technical manuals, CGTO Process Guides, or ACMS MPCs which affect the applicable aircraft maintenance requirements, this form shall also be used for recommending changes in processes, procedures, or materiel that affect aircraft maintenance?
Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS, Deficiency Report (CG-22)
158
What manual would you find instructions on routing and preparing the CG-22?
CGTO PG-85-00-20-A
159
After final approval in TMAPS, the Deficiency Report (CG-22) will be automatically archived so it can be retrieved for review where?
in TMAPS
160
What form shall be used for submitting recommended changes to flight manuals?
AF Form 847
161
Field units should document depot-deferred maintenance utilizing what function in EAL?
CFD (Carried Forward Depot)
162
In order to document discrepancies as they occur, HC-130 reporting custodians shall maintain what in each aircraft logbook?
a running AFTO 103
163
On C-130's, what report shall be used to document any unusual work required for aircraft which are scheduled for PDM at military or commercial activities?
Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103
164
The AFTO form 103 will be initiated how days in advance of the scheduled depot input date to allow for command review?
60 days
165
Certification and delivery of the AFTO form 103 to the PM (Program Manager) will be how many days prior to the scheduled induction date?
45 days
166
DoD has adopted the Product Quality Deficiency Report as a standard form for use in reporting quality deficiencies on all DoD-owned materiel (i.e., components, engines, and aircraft). What is this form called?
Standard Form 368
167
How do you submit a deficiency report to ALC concerning components and engines, regardless of the overhaul/repair activity involved?
UR
168
Who will function as the screening activity for UR's?
ALC
169
Deficiency reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than how many days after receipt of the aircraft?
20 days
170
How should deficiency reports concerning aircraft having completed PDM at ALC be submitted?
on a Letter Report
171
How should deficiency reports for an aircrafts initial delivery from manufacturer be submitted?
on a Letter Report.
172
What form is used for a Serviceable Tag on parts?
DD 1574 (orange)
173
What form is used for an Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag on parts?
DD 1577-2 (green)
| DD 1577-2 (blue)
174
What form is used for an Unsatisfactory Report (UR) Tag on parts?
CG 1577-A
175
What form is used for an Oil Analysis Request?
DD-2026
| DD-2027
176
The terms A Condition, RFI, and serviceable are used interchangeably. The terms F Condition, NON-RFI, unserviceable and class 265 are used interchangeably. What are the preferred terms?
serviceable and unserviceable.
177
What system shall be used to communicate information concerning failures of aeronautical components and equipment, including mission equipment, ground support equipment, and tools?
The JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM JDRS Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)
178
What is the JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM JDRS Process Guide?
CGTO PG-85-00-1320-A.
179
How do you report an item if it has been damaged as a result of improper packing?
The JDRS Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)
180
After the PDM induction of an aircraft at ALC, what processes are completed on the airframe and its components for the purpose of evaluating the condition and determining the disposition of the same?
Inspection and Evaluation (I&E)
181
Upon the completion of these I&E processes, the Commanding Officer, ALC, will provide a Post Induction memorandum to who?
Commanding Officer of the inducting unit, with an information copy to Commandant (CG-41).
182
What are the two types of categories to report post PDM discrepancies?
Major and Minor
183
When reporting post PDM discrepancies, how are major discrepancies determined?
One that affects safety of flight or grounds the aircraft
184
How many days will a unit receiving an aircraft from a transferring unit have to submit a memorandum report?
no later than 30 calendar days
185
A report that indicates the performance of Coast Guard Aeronautical Engineering as related to strategic plans and goals is called what?
MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS (MOE) REPORT
186
What is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable because unit-level scheduled or unscheduled maintenance is in progress called?
NMCM
187
When maintenance is the driver that prohibits resumption of BRAVO readiness status, what kind of status is the aircraft in?
NMCM
NMCM time also includes the time the aircraft is grounded awaiting maintenance action or until the satisfactory completion of a test flight.
Pre-thru-post flight inspections or servicing which would not delay a BRAVO zero launch should not be logged as NMCM time.
188
What is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable due to the lack of available parts or supplies called?
NMCS
The lack of parts is preventing the aircraft from attaining a BRAVO readiness status, and thereby acting as the driving factor causing NMC condition.
Unrelated maintenance may be performed on the aircraft while it is in NMCS status, but related maintenance will change the status to NMCM.
The NMCS clock stops as soon as the part is available to maintenance personnel.
189
What status reflects the percentage of time that aircraft of each type are unavailable to air stations for operational use due to depot level maintenance or testing?
: NMCD
Most NMCD time will be accrued at ALC and Contractor/DoD depots, but occasionally the Coast Guard makes a business decision to perform depot level maintenance at air stations.
190
What does ALMIS stand for?
Asset Logistics Management Information System
191
What does ASMMIS stand for?
Asset Maintenance Management Information System
192
What does ACMS stand for?
Asset Computerized Maintenance System
193
What does EAL stand for?
Electronic Asset Logbook
194
What form shall be submitted for each ALMIS user (military, government, or contractor) during check-in and checkout from each unit?
Access request form
195
What do you submit to update a user’s access level, reflect changes in rank, and change a user’s unit in ALMIS?
Access request form
196
Requests for changes to the ALMIS system shall be submitted via the unit chain of command
to ALC’s Information Systems Division (ISD) how?
Software Change Request (Unit)
197
As a precaution to EAL service interruptions and to ensure asset operations are not negatively affected, all maintenance records will be backed up a minimum of __________.
once per day.
198
What provides indepth direction for conducting EAL contingency operations?
MPC 00EAL.0 EAL Contingency Operations
199
Where can you find specific procedures for use of EAL records?
within the HELP section of EAL
200
What ink color is the only one authorized for asset log book paper forms?
Black
201
The use of colored text in EAL will be limited to what colors?
Blue, Green and Red
Blue – Special Inspections
Green – Logbook reviews
Red – Functional check requirements and aircrew warnings
202
How long will paper forms be retained at the unit after entry into EAL?
90 days
203
Fully Mission Capable (FMC) is indicated how?
green up-pointing triangle
204
Partly Mission Capable (PMC) is indicated how?
yellow sideward-pointing triangle
205
Not Mission Capable (NMC) is indicated how?
red downward-pointing triangle
206
The NMC indicator is suffixed with one of three letters, what are they?
M,S or D
Not Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM): the asset is undergoing maintenance.
Not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS): the asset is awaiting a critical part.
Not Mission Capable Depot (NMCD): the asset is undergoing depot level maintenance.
207
All flight and non-flight generated discrepancies identified after the pilot accepts the asset for flight or ground operations will be recorded where?
Mission-Generated Maintenance Record
208
All non-flight generated discrepancies identified by maintenance personnel will be recorded where?
on a No-Mission Maintenance Record.
209
The paper version of the No-Mission Maintenance Record is printed on what color paper?
White
210
What is the indication on the maintenance records that depicts whether an asset is safe for continued operations called?
Condition
211
What is required for a grounded aircraft before the aircraft can be released for flight?
A maintenance release
212
All deferred maintenance actions SHALL be authorized by who?
Engineering Officer or their designated representative
213
When utilizing the paper logbook, all CF, CFD, and PP deferred discrepancies shall be transferred where?
: to the Deferred Maintenance Record
214
How long do you have to provide a part requisition number for Parts Pending discrepancies?
72 Hours
215
Upon receipt of the part(s), an additional comment stating ______shall be added to the PP discrepancy.
PARTS RECEIVED AND AWAITING INSTALLATION
216
With the exception of deployed assets, no deferred discrepancies shall remain open for a period longer than_______.
30 Days
217
How often will units conduct paper logbook record training to ensure that all aviation personnel are familiar with the use of each form, as appropriate to their job description?
Yearly
218
All paper logbook forms will be used for periods of non-connectivity exceeding ____ hours in duration.
4
219
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 1
The aeronautical materiel under individual (serial number) management by ALC is defined below.
(1) Aircraft engines
(2) High value components
(3) Items requiring special configuration control procedures
(4) Items in critical supply and of sufficiently high cost and low volume that require individual management
220
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 2
To qualify as Type 2 materiel, one of the following conditions must be satisfied:
1) Unit price of $250 or more
(2) Procured from a commercial source of supply
(3) Flight critical
(4) Reparable
221
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 3
Consumable aeronautical materiel, less avionics, with a unit price less than $250 and procurable from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure materiel using unit AFC 30 funds
222
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 4
Type 4 material, one of the following conditions must be satisfied:(1) Unit price of $800 or more
(2) Procured from a commercial source of supply
(3) Flight critical
(4) Reparable
223
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 5
Consumable avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800 and procurable
from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure material
using unit AFC 30 funds.
224
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 6
Aeronautical Support Equipment (SE):
(1) For items costing more than $250, but less than $3,000, ALC will provide initial provisioning but will not provide subsequent replacement or repair.
(2) Contact ALC for guidance on repairables beyond unit capability and funding of $3,000 or above
225
Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 7
Type 7 Material used to support the Turbomeca Arriel 2C2 CG engine.
226
How do you report Type 1 removal?
Routine Message
227
Type 1 materiel shall be shipped as soon as practical but not later than ___ days following receipt of shipping orders.
15 days
228
On Type 1 material, orders for shipment will be issued by ALC and shipment will be effected within ____ hours of receipt of message.
24 hours
229
How are Type 3 and 5 materiel requisitioned?
Unit Funds
230
What Force/Activity Designator are USCG Headquarters and air stations assigned?
Force/Activity Designator of II
231
What Force/Activity Designator are ALC, ATTC, and ATC Mobile assigned?
: Force/Activity Designator of III
232
Who is the supply source for all Type 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 items?
ALC
233
What procedures are used to order Type 3 and 5 materiel from government supply sources?
Automated Requisition Management System (ARMS) or Simplified Uniform Requisitioning Format (SURF)
234
How long will Air stations retain all material request/issue forms that document a mechanic requesting the part from supply?
3 years
235
When will Priority 5 requisitions be filled by ALC?
if there are more than two parts on the ALC shelf
236
When will Priority 12 requisitions be filled by ALC?
: if there are more than five parts on the ALC shelf
237
The Prompt Payment Act requires that material shipped directly from vendors be paid within
___ days of receipt of materiel, or interest must be paid to vendors
30 days
238
When will Serial Number Tracked (SNT) materiel that has been shipped and is not enrolled in ACMS be enrolled?
at the time of receipt
239
Any part with questionable background, or whose condition is suspect, will be brought to the attention of who?
: Engineering Officer
240
How is Type 1 materiel requisitioned?
via AMMIS
241
What allows air stations to support one another when parts are needed before ALC can supply them through the normal resupply pipelines?
: Parts Pull
242
Who initiates the parts pool process using the Parts Pool Module within AMMIS?
the potential donor
243
When parts pulling, who is responsible for any unserviceable materiel turn-in?
The requesting unit
244
Who coordinates the parts pull process?
The requesting unit
245
Who controls TCTO change kits?
ALC
246
TCTO Kits requiring more than 4 labor hours for incorporation will not normally be issued within __ months of the scheduled aircraft PDM induction date.
4 months
247
TCTO Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within __days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates.
45 days
248
What happens to uninstalled TCTO change kits for a specific aircraft/engine?
It will accompany that aircraft on all ferry missions until incorporated
249
How will TCTO change kits for spare components be labeled?
the letters SPAR will be used in lieu of aircraft/engine serial number.
250
How will Hazardous material be packaged?
individually packaged and the container clearly marked as to the hazardous contents
251
What manual would you reference for specific packaging, marking, and shipping information on Hazardous Materials?
COMDTINST M4610.5
252
What should you not use for installing tags on aircraft equipment?
wire
253
When tagging aircraft equipment, where should the serviceable or unserviceable tag be placed?
to each component and container
254
Repairable materiel shall be shipped to ALC or other designated repair facility with the appropriate documentation within __ days of removal from service.
: 15 days
255
Aviation units will be allowed a maximum of __ days from date of failure of the part to date of shipment to ALC for handling of unserviceable materiel.
30 days
256
How do you monitor unserviceable items in maintenance for over 15 days?
utilizing the Cumulative Turn-In Report in AMMIS
257
Priority shipping of Non-RFI parts should be given to what kind of parts?
critical components and components valued in excess of $1,500
258
At a minimum, a review of a unit's allowance list will be conducted when?
within 6 months prior to a Logistics Compliance Inspection (LCI)
259
If the Coast Guard deems laboratory testing necessary for new materials, who will arrange for laboratory testing, paying all costs associated with such testing?
the manufacturer or supplier
260
Who provides for and schedules the PDM of aircraft?
Commandant
261
When does ALC publish a message with the proposed PDM schedule for the four main aircraft types?
each quarter
262
When will TCTO change kits be shipped to arrive at the PDM activity with the scheduled aircraft?
concurrently
263
What is CAMP?
The Contract Aviation Maintenance Program
264
Who is responsible for the final determination regarding overhaul or repair of components returned from field units?
ALC
265
What does a white decal on a component mean?
indicates the component has been completely overhauled at ALC
266
What does a yellow decal on a component mean?
: indicates the item has only been inspected and/or repaired as necessary to return the item to a serviceable condition
267
Who provides engineering services and technical support for Aviation Life Support, UR research and Avionics systems, and the ALMIS system?
ALC's Engineering Services Division (ESD)
268
Troubleshooting assistance for maintenance difficulties, which are beyond the scope of available technical orders, may be provided by who?
the respective aircraft Product Line Engineering Cell personnel
269
Who receives, reviews, analyzes, and coordinates corrective action with the respective aircraft
Product Line Engineering Cell on URs received?
ESD's Policy and Product Assurance Cell
270
Who provides engineering technical assistance to its PDM Cell?
the respective aircraft Product Line
271
What are the three classifications of Materiel Deficiency Evaluations (MDE)?
Engineering Investigation (EI)
Disassembly Inspection Report (DIR)
Condition Exception Report (CER)
272
If proposed changes by other agencies are considered necessary for safety of flight, improved mission effectiveness, or for common parts procurement, the Product Line recommends approval to who?
: Commandant (CG-41)
273
Who is the only entity authorized to communicate with the Department of Defense, government and commercial contractors concerning publication issues?
ALC Technical Publications Cell
274
What is a CG 1577-A?
Unsatisfactory Report (UR) Tag
275
Reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than ______ after receipt of the aircraft.
20 days
276
What form is used for reporting quality deficiencies on components, engines and aircrafts?
Standard Form 368 (Quality Deficiency Report)
277
What form shall be used for submitting changes to flight manuals?
AF-847
278
CG-22 are kept on file for how long?
1 year
279
CG-22 Process Guide?
85-00-20
280
Who can assign serial numbers to components with missing or unknown serial numbers?
ALC Engineering or CG-41
281
What happens to components with unknown or missing serial numbers?
They can't be installed
282
Before the installation of any Type 1 assembly, it is recommended that you do what?
Both a current MDL and configuration report be reviewed
283
Where can you find the total hours available and total hours flown during the month by aircraft type?
Monthly Unit Operating Statistics ( MORPT )
284
What is required for all components listed on the aircraft configuration report?
Significant Component History Report ( SCHR )
285
A new MDL should project all scheduled maintenance for calendar and hourly tasks for _______ month operating period.
2
286
How shall accumulation of flight hours be recorded on the CG-4377?
Rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour.
287
As a QA check for ACMS when shall logbook reviews be conducted?
Monthly
288
Who shall conduct monthly reviews of each aircraft logbook?
EO
289
ATA Airborne Power
49
290
ATA Lifting, Jacking and Shoring
07
291
ATA Corrosion
14
292
ATA General
05
293
ATA Oxygen
35
294
ATA Navigation
34
295
ATA Lights
33
296
ATA Landing Gear
32
297
ATA Indicating/Recording Systems
31
298
ATA Ice and Rain Protection
30
299
ATA Hydraulics
29
300
ATA Fuel
28
301
ATA Flight Control
27
302
ATA Fire Protection
26
303
ATA Equipment/Furnishing
25
304
ATA Electrical Power
24
305
ATA Communications
23
306
ATA Auto Flight
22
307
ATA Air Conditioning
21
308
When are supplements issued for Technical Orders?
To augment data in the basic TO
309
When are Technical Orders normally revised?
When pages requiring changing total 50% or more of the technical order.
310
When are semiannual audits of technical publications conducted?
April conducted by QA and shops and October conducted by Shops
311
When will all changes, supplements to technical manuals be incorporated into the applicable manuals?
Within 5 working days
312
TIMOS (Technical Information Management and Ordering System ) process guide?
85-00-50
313
Where shall all publications referenced within CG aviation be contained?
TIMOS Master Publication Index (MPI)
314
What is the proper storage time in shops and supply of chemicals used for maintenance?
30 days for shops and 90 days for supply
315
When an aircraft is being taxied within _______ of obstructions, a minimum of one wing walker for each wing tip shall be provided
25 feet
316
When can Commanding Officers authorize taxiing without taxi signalman?
ramp has clearly defined taxi lines and parking spots.
317
Only personnel qualified in aircraft type and designated in writing by __________ are authorized to start and run up aircraft engines.
CO
318
Who designates engine run up areas?
CO
319
Who should you contact prior to any movement of aircraft across runways or taxiways?
Airport control tower
320
Generally, the distance left between rows of parked aircraft shall be enough to allow what?
immediate access of emergency vehicles and free movement of equipment.
321
For HC-130 towing operations, another qualified person shall be assigned to maintain what?
auxiliary hydraulic system pressure utilizing the hand pump
322
When towing an aircraft who may double as either the vehicle driver or one of the wing walkers?
The supervisor
323
Who shall ensure the unit has a well defined towing plan?
CO
324
Ensure a serviceable 125/150 lb wheeled PKP fire extinguisher or equivalent is placed within ______ feet of the LOX servicing operation.
50
325
Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices) shall be tested IAW?
NAVAIR 17-1-114
326
Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) used at aviation units shall be tested IAW?
Civil Engineering Manual M11000.11
327
Hangar deck certified power grounds should be tested
| to the current standard of less than?
25ohms
328
Combustible materiels shall not be stored within _______ of any stove, furnace or boiler.
10 feet
329
oil-soaked and paint-saturated clothing, rags, waste, excelsior, and combustible refuse shall be________
removed from the work areas daily
330
Flight line fire extinguishers shall be _____ pound dry chemical type fire extinguishers
150
331
What particles pose the greatest threat to the respiratory system?
Single-Fiber 3-4 microns diameter
332
Where can the The criteria for lighting minimums are found?
IESNA Lighting HandBook
333
What fire extinguishers are most effective in putting out solvent fires?
CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)
334
Aircraft Maintenance Potential Hazardous Waste?
M16478.4
335
Hazardous Waste Management Manual?
M16478.1
336
What chemicals will dissolve the natural protecting fats and oils from the skin?
Specific Skin Irritants
337
All portable electronic test equipment shall meet what grounding requirements?
National Electrical Safety Code.
338
How will electric power tools, switches, junction boxes, and regulators be positioned in the hangar?
At least 18 inches above floor level
339
Containers of not more than ______ capacity will be used for storing paints and dopes
5 gallons
340
Where water wash facilities are provided for small booths, they will have a minimum of _________ per minute linear air velocity across the face of the booth
200 feet
341
How should Oxygen cylinder storage be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials?
Distance of 20 feet or a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1/2 hour.
342
In a Non-Dedicated Battery Servicing Facility what's the workspace air temperature?
77.5 (+7.5 F)
343
How much clearance is needed when servicing sealed lead-acid batteries and sealed nickel-cadmium batteries?
5 feet.
344
Aviation tools will be of such quality that they meet or exceed what standard?
SAE
345
What form will be used by maintenance administrators for interpreting and/or amplifying technical directives and maintenance requirements received from higher authority and also to promulgate local instructions as necessary?
OPNAV 4790/35
346
How many people are required to perform the TEMPEST installation inspection?
2
347
What is required for each new or modified airborne COMSEC installation?
TEMPEST Certification
348
The Corrosion Control Program Process Guide?
85-00-60
349
What is the concept that reliability is designed into a component and cannot be improved with preventive maintenance called?
Reliability Centered Maintenance
350
Spectrometric Oil Analysis Program (SOAP) will be performed by?
Honeywell
351
What manuals outline the procedures of JOAP?
NAVAIR 17-15-50.1 through 50.4
