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PG85-00-110 > AERONAUTICALENGINEERING MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT PROCESSGUIDE > Flashcards

AERONAUTICALENGINEERING MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT PROCESSGUIDE Flashcards

1
Q

The combined efforts of QA personnel, maintenance supervisors, and technicians are necessary to do what?

A

Ensure high quality maintenance and equipment reliability.

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2
Q

QA inspectors shall be selected and designated in writing by whom?

A

Engineering Officer.

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3
Q

What are the three general causes most FOD can be attributed to?

A

poor housekeeping, poor maintenance practices, and carelessness

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4
Q

What monitors the condition of enclosed mechanical systems through determination of wear metal concentrations in the lubricating fluid?

A

JOINT OIL ANALYSIS PROGRAM (JOAP)

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5
Q

History of the oil analysis program has clearly shown that what is usually the decisive factor in its success?

A

the attitude of an operating activity toward the program

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6
Q

Who will provide funds directly to DoD for USCG participation in JOAP?

A

Commandant (CG-41)

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7
Q

Who will ensure that maintenance personnel are thoroughly trained in JOAP sample taking and documentation procedures?

A

Engineering Officers

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8
Q

JOAP sample taking and documentation procedures are covered in what manual?

A

NAVAIR 17-15-50.1,2,3,4

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9
Q

What does the term RELIABILITY-CENTERED MAINTENANCE (RCM) refer to?

A

A program of disciplined logic to realize the inherent reliability capabilities of equipment being maintained.

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10
Q

What program will monitor the performance of equipment and will bring deteriorating trends to management’s attention.

A

The JOAP program

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11
Q

What is the most effective and practical procedure by which operating activities can preclude the difficulties caused by free water in aircraft fuel tanks?

A

Eliminate the water and inspect for the presence of foreign matter on each daily and preflight inspection.

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12
Q

It is recommended that approximately how much fuel from each drain be inspected using a clear, clean, dry glass container?

A

one pint

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13
Q

Experience has shown that serious engine and airframe problems will develop if inadequate attention and effort are given to what?

A

maintaining fuel quality

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14
Q

The normal level of fuel system icing inhibitor in turbine fuel (FSII) is what?

A

0.10-0.15 percent by volume.

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15
Q

Introducing Fuel System Icing Inhibitor additive will lower the flash point of JP-5 by how many degrees?

A

4-degrees Fahrenheit and will inhibit the growth of bacteria.

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16
Q

What is the fuel handeling procedures process guide?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-170-A

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17
Q

What manual Identifies Methods for Bulk Petroleum Products Systems including Hydrocarbon Missile Fuels?

A

MIL-STD-161G

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18
Q

What manual is Quality Control of Fuels and Lubricants?

A

AFTO 42B-1-1

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19
Q

What publications provide specific guidance relative to aircraft fuel storage, handling and establishes minimum quality and surveillance standards?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-170-A
MIL-STD-161G
FTO 42B-1-1

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20
Q

What maintenance performed at the unit is key to minimizing corrosion damage between
overhaul or Programmed Depot Maintenance (PDM)?

A

diligent corrosion maintenance

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21
Q

What program is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of
Compromising emanations?

A

TEMPEST

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22
Q

Who oversees the Coast Guard aviation TEMPEST program?

A

Commandant (CG-41)

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23
Q

Who will provide Commandant (CG-41) with national, Department of Homeland Security, and Coast Guard TEMPEST policy?

A

Commandant (CG-61)

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24
Q

Who manages the Coast Guard Aviation TEMPEST policy as directed by Commandant (CG-41) and ensures conformance with current Coast Guard TEMPEST policy?

A

ALC

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25
Q

What is an unclassified short name referring to investigations and studies of unintentional signals that, if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information transmitted, received, handled, or otherwise processed by telecommunication or automated information systems equipment.

A

TEMPEST

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26
Q

When the need arises at the local level to pass on information to maintenance personnel, what shall be issued?

A

a maintenance instruction

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27
Q

Whenever any maintenance instruction has served its purpose, it should be canceled and filed for how many months after completion date?

A

6 months

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28
Q

What may be prepared when a directive or situation dictates that specific work must be performed on a one-time basis, the work will be completed on one aircraft model or piece of equipment and will not require further action?

A

SAMI

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29
Q

What does the acronym SAMI stand for?

A

Single Action Maintenance Instruction

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30
Q

What is a local directive providing instructions for the performance of work which is or may be of a continuing nature?

A

CAMI

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31
Q

What does the acronym CAMI stand for?

A

Continuing Action Maintenance Instruction

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32
Q

What may be prepared when a directive or situation requires that technical information be promulgated within an activity?

A

TIMI

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33
Q

When it is necessary to disseminate information, such as techniques and local policy, which does not direct the accomplishment of specific work at definite intervals, but which is sustaining in nature, what may be issued?

A

TIMI

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34
Q

What does the acronym TIMI stand for?

A

Technical Information Maintenance Instruction

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35
Q

What do you replace damaged tools with?

A

Replacement tools shall conform to the same shape and size as original tools to ensure integrity of tool control which utilizes foam cutouts or other tool displacement methods.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the composite repair program?

A

To properly maintain and repair aeronautical composite components.

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37
Q

What resins are not authorized for use on any coast guard aircraft?

A

Polyester

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38
Q

All repairs to primary or carbon composite structures must be documented where?

A

airframe or applicable component SCHR

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39
Q

No repairs shall be made to any primary structures without prior approval from who?

A

ALC Engineering

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40
Q

No repairs shall be made to composite structures by any unit unless they meet all safety requirements listed in what manual?

A

AFTO 1-1-690

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41
Q

What type of repair is defined as those that do not restore the designed structural strength of a component, but protect it from additional environmental and physical damage?

A

Temporary repair

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42
Q

What program applies to the inspection, maintenance, and repair of aircraft and aircraft fuel systems?

A

Coast Guard Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program

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43
Q

What program describes the processes, means, and methods used for recognizing, evaluating, and controlling potential confined space hazards associated with fuel cell and fuel tank maintenance and for communicating those hazards to employees?

A

The Aircraft Confined Space Program (ACSP)

The ACSP was formerly known as the Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program (AVGFE). IAW CIM 5100.47

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44
Q

When is an air station required to maintain an Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program AVGFE Program?

A

where it is reasonable to anticipate routine entry into aircraft fuel tanks.

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45
Q

In the event that a unit does not have an AVGFE Program and the need to enter a fuel tank exists, the requirements of this program may be accomplished by who?

A

by a certified marine chemist, an industrial hygienist, or a certified gas free engineer

Naval Gas Free Engineer or a Certified Marine Chemist IAW CIM 5100.47

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46
Q

The Aviation Gas Free Engineer will normally be what officer?

A

: QA Officer, Assistant Engineering Officer, or Maintenance Officer.

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47
Q

The AVGFE is designated by who?

A

designated in writing by the CO or the CO’s designee

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48
Q

What does AVGFE stand for?

A

Aviation Gas Free Engineer

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49
Q

What does AVGFET stand for?

A

Aviation Gas Free Engineering Technician

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50
Q

The individual assigned to the QA department who has the responsibility for determining if a fuel system is safe from fire, explosion, and oxygen deficiency or enrichment is called who?

A

AVGFET

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51
Q

In what manual would you find the duties of the AVGFE?

A

Safety and Environmental Health Manual COMDTINST M5100.47

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52
Q

The AVGFET certification is good for how long?

A

One Year

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53
Q

The AVGFET is designated by who?

A

Commanding Officer in writing

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54
Q

What is defined as any part, assembly, or installation equipment containing a critical characteristic whose failure, malfunction, or absence could cause an uncommanded engine shutdown or catastrophic failure resulting in loss of or serious damage to the aircraft?

A

Aviation Critical Safety Items (CSI)/Flight Safety Critical Aircraft Parts (FSCAP)

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55
Q

Parts classified as CSI/FSCAP by ALC or Other Government Agency (OGA) shall be identified by what letter designation following either the Acquisition Method Suffix Code or the FltCrit blocks on the Aviation Maintenance Management Information System (AMMIS) Material Identification Data (MID) forms in the All Data Program?

A

The letter “C”

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56
Q

Failure or unsatisfactory condition of CSI/FSCAP noted by air stations shall be reported how?

A

urgent interim Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)

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57
Q

How do you request a change to the Authorized Chemical Use List (ACL)?

A

Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS), Deficiency Report CG-22

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58
Q

What program establishes Coast Guard policy and procedures that address the technical aspects of airworthiness for all air vehicles manned or unmanned?

A

TECHNICAL AIRWORTHINESS ASSURANCE PROGRAM

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59
Q

What manual is the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Program discussed in?

A

ACCB process guide PG-85-00-70

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60
Q

Who has the central responsibility for maintaining the Technical Airworthiness Assurance Process Guide?

A

The Chief, Office of Aeronautical Engineering (CG-41) and the Commanding Officer of the Aviation Logistics Center

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61
Q

Lathes, milling machines, and similar types of equipment that produce cuttings or flying particles should be set at ___ degree angles to each other?

A

15

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62
Q

What is the most effective means of preventing unsafe operations and injuries from powered machinery?

A

improved machine design, or installation of protective mechanical guards

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63
Q

In addition to scheduled shop safety inspections conducted by designated safety representatives, shop supervisors shall, in the interest of operator safety, inspect all shop equipment or machinery how often?

A

periodically

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64
Q

Metal hood type guards shall enclose how much of the abrasive wheel?

A

two-thirds

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65
Q

Tool rests shall be adjusted to provide a minimum of _____ from abrasive wheel grinding surface.

A

1/8-inch

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66
Q

Nickel-cadmium battery shops will be mechanically ventilated to provide ____ air changes per hour in order to ensure the removal of any hydrogen gas generated as a result of charging.

A

three to four

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67
Q

If electrical exhaust fans are installed in a battery shop, they shall be certified__________.

A

explosion proof

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68
Q

Under no circumstances should a ______ be used for cleaning batteries.

A

wire brush

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69
Q

When mixing electrolyte and water for batteries what order do you mix the two?

A

pour the electrolyte into the water slowly.

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70
Q

Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease) by at least a distance of ______.

A

20 feet

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71
Q

Oxygen cylinder storage shall be separate from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials (especially oil or grease) by what type of barrier?

A

noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1/2 hour.

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72
Q

What shall not be used as a substitute for compressed air?

A

Oxygen or compressed flammable gases

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73
Q

What should you do to Cylinders found to have leaking fittings or valves?

A

taken into the open, away from potential sources of ignition and slowly drained of their contents.

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74
Q

What should be used to remove Burrs, Chips, and Metal Cuttings from machines, work tables, stands, and floors?

A

Brushes

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75
Q

What should you not use to remove Burrs, Chips, and Metal Cuttings from machines, work tables, stands, and floors?

A

Compressed Air

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76
Q

Where water wash facilities are provided for small paint booths, they will have a minimum of _________across the face of the booth.

A

200 feet per minute linear air velocity

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77
Q

How often will cans to dispose of rags, waste, and other materials saturated with paint or flammable chemicals be emptied?

A

Daily

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78
Q

What capacity containers will be used for storing paints and dopes?

A

not more than 5 gallon capacity

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79
Q

Portable electric hand tools shall meet grounding requirements of who?

A

National Electrical Safety Code

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80
Q

When can electric powered hand tools be used near flammable or explosive type materials?

A

When they are approved as being explosion proof

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81
Q

How high must all electric power tools, switches, junction boxes and regulators be positioned above the floor level in hangars which house fueled aircraft?

A

at least 18 inches

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82
Q

All portable electronic test equipment shall meet grounding requirements of who?

A

National Electrical Safety Code

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83
Q

What is the most common result of industrial solvent exposure to the skin?

A

dermatitis

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84
Q

What are two kinds of solvent poisoning?

A

acute and chronic

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85
Q

What kind of poisoning results from inhalation of an excessive concentration within a short time?

A

Acute

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86
Q

What kind of poisoning results from repeated daily exposures for extended or prolonged periods of time?

A

Chronic

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87
Q

What manual would you use to find specific guidance for the disposal of hazardous waste?

A

Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1

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88
Q

Petroleum based solvents, such as paints, varnishes, cutting oils, and strong soap can be classified as what?

A

specific skin irritants

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89
Q

Dermatitis causing agents that include such substances and compounds as hydrochloric acid, hydrofluoric acid, sulfuric acid, sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide, alkalies; salts of metals, such as silver, chromium, mercury, zinc; and nonmetallic materials such as chloral, phosphorus, and bromine are considered what?

A

General Irritants

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90
Q

What should be used for purging solvent gases from equipment or piping systems and in welding of solvent containers (hot work)?

A

Nitrogen gas

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91
Q

How should all solvent soaked cloths or waste be disposed of?

A

in airtight metal containers and removed from the work area

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92
Q

An adequate system of ventilation shall be provided in all areas where finishing materials are stored, mixed, or sprayed because of the fire, explosion, and health hazards involved. Adequacy of ventilation in such areas shall be determined and approved by who?

A

Safety Officer

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93
Q

How should solvents be cleaned from the skin?

A

Suitable creams and cleansers

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94
Q

Where are the criteria for lighting minimums found?

A

IESNA Lighting Handbook, Ninth Edition, and ANSI-Industrial Lighting RP-7

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95
Q

Where can you find Coast Guard policy regarding noise hazards and hearing conservation?

A

Safety and Environmental Health Manual, COMDTINST M5100.47

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96
Q

What will be used for carrying and handling small quantities of flammable liquid?

A

Safety cans

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97
Q

What is the Coast Guard Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

A

COMDTINST M16478.1

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98
Q

Should the purchase of replacement fire extinguishers be necessary, flight line fire extinguishers shall be of what kind?

A

150 pound dry chemical

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99
Q

Hangar and shop fire extinguishers shall be of what kind?

A

CO2 or dry chemical as recommended by the local fire marshal

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100
Q

All extinguishers shall be inspected, serviced, and maintained in accordance with what?

A

manufacturer’s instructions

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101
Q

How often shall visual inspections be completed on fire extinguishers?

A

monthly and recorded on a tag attached to the extinguisher

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102
Q

Flight line fire extinguisher requirements shall be in accordance with what manual?

A

Ground Servicing of Aircraft and Static Grounding/Bonding, AFTO 00-25-172

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103
Q

Existing static grounds should be tested how often?

A

every 24 months

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104
Q

Where should you look for procedures on testing static grounds and markings?

A

MIL-HDBK-274

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105
Q

Static grounding points with a resistance reading of greater than ______ ohms should be removed from service.

A

10,000 ohms

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106
Q

A certified power ground with a reading of greater than ____ohms should be removed from service.

A

25 ohms

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107
Q

Certified static and power grounds will be marked how?

A

1-inch letters with date tested and test results, measured in ohms, stenciled on the ground decal/painted ground marking

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108
Q

Spills of fuels are classified into how many groups groups?

A

3

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109
Q

What should be done with spills involving an area of 18 inches or less in any dimension?

A

Ramp personnel shall stand by until the aircraft is dispatched.

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110
Q

What should be done with spills not over 10 feet in any dimension or not over 50 square feet in area and not of a continuing nature?

A

have a fire guard posted, up wind, with A foam-type or Halon-type fire extinguisher until the area is inert and purged.

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111
Q

What should be done with spills over 50 square feet or of a continuing nature?

A

shall be immediately reported to the supervisor in charge, who shall notify the airport or local fire department to inert the spill. Anyone in the spill area shall leave at once.

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112
Q

What type of fire fighting agent does not have flashback prevention capabilities?

A

Halon

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113
Q

What type of solvents should maintenance personnel clean aircraft parts, hangar floors, equipment, or clothing with?

A

high flash point or nonflammable substances or liquids.

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114
Q

Temporary improvised scaffolds or stands may be used if approved by who?

A

Safety Officer

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115
Q

On collet-equipped jacks, the collet shall be kept within how many threads of the lift tube cylinders during raising and lowering?

A

two threads

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116
Q

When jacking, wind velocity not-to-exceed _____ miles per hour shall be considered the maximum.

A

15

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117
Q

What shall be used to eliminate the possibility of over-inflation of tires?

A

Pressure regulators

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118
Q

Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) used at aviation units shall be tested in accordance with what manual?

A

Civil Engineering Manual, COMDTINST M11000.11

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119
Q

Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices) shall be tested in accordance with what manual?

A

NAVAIR 17-1-114

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120
Q

What should be used to record periodic inspections/testing Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) and Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices)?

A

ACMS special requirements (MSR)

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121
Q

What must never be allowed to come into contact with or be used in the presence of oxygen cylinders, valves, regulators, gauges, or fittings?

A

Oil or grease

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122
Q

How is aviation breathing oxygen identified?

A

a white band around the green cylinder or the words aviator’s breathing oxygen painted on the cylinder

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123
Q

Do not deplete oxygen below what PSI?

A

50 psi

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124
Q

When flow testing the aircraft oxygen system, what amount of oxygen should be used?

A

the minimum amount of oxygen necessary to check the system.

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125
Q

The servicing control valve on an aircraft oxygen system shall not be opened more than how much?

A

3/4-turn

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126
Q

The radar antenna should not be operated within how many feet of any fueling, defueling, or similar operation unless a dummy load is installed that prevents the energizing of the antenna?

A

300 ft

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127
Q

Electric carts shall not be operated within how many feet of aircraft during fueling/defueling operations or in the event of an aircraft fuel spill?

A

50 feet

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128
Q

Engine driven generators, heating and air-conditioning units shall be located how far from refueling facilities, tank vents, and drains

A

as far as practical

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129
Q

Who ensures that their unit has a well defined towing plan?

A

Commanding Officer

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130
Q

What aircraft requires another qualified person be assigned to maintain auxiliary hydraulic system pressure utilizing the hand pump during towing operations?

A

HC-130

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131
Q

Who can designate engine run-up areas in accordance with airport procedures?

A

Commanding Officer

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132
Q

What position should the taxi signalman maintain when directing aircraft?

A

slightly ahead and in line with the wing tip on the pilot’s side of the aircraft

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133
Q

How close to an obstruction can you taxi an aircraft without a wing walker?

A

No closer than 25 feet

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134
Q

Aircraft must not be taxied at anytime within how many feet of obstructions?

A

5 feet

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135
Q

Hot fueling operations are not allowed within _____ feet of an occupied building, unless operating under a waiver from Commandant (CG-41).

A

200 feet

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136
Q

Hot fueling operations are not allowed within 200 feet of an occupied building, unless operating under a waiver from who?

A

Commandant (CG-41).

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137
Q

Hazardous waste disposal shall be in accordance with what manual?

A

Hazardous Waste Management Manual, COMDTINST M16478.1

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138
Q

What manual shall be used to supplement the applicable environmental regulations by providing procedures and requirements for the collection, segregation, storage, and disposition of recoverable and waste petroleum products which are generated through normal aircraft maintenance operations?

A

Management of Recoverable and Waste Liquid Petroleum Products, AFTO 42B-1-23

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139
Q

Aviation fuel bowsers procured or constructed after 1 January 1995 for aircraft ground support shall meet the standard specifications contained where?

A

Appendix A, AFTO 42B-1-23.

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140
Q

What shall be the only system used at all aviation units for ordering the maintenance of, and audit of technical publication unit libraries?

A

TIMOS or any future electronic library management system

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141
Q

All changes, supplements, rapid access change (RACs), etc., to technical manuals will be incorporated into the applicable manual within how many working days?

A

five

142
Q

Each unit will conduct semiannual audits during the months of April and October. What must be done to show accomplishment of this task?

A

A Mandatory Special Requirements (MSR) card must be signed

143
Q

What are issued when only parts of an existing manual are affected?

A

Changes

144
Q

When updating technical manuals what is distributed by expedited means to all units under distribution for the publication and normally involves possible safety of flight or faulty equipment items?

A

RAC (Rapid Action Change)

145
Q

When updating technical manuals this is normally distributed in a message format and will require immediate action.

A

IRAC (Interim Rapid Action Change)

146
Q

What are issued when only parts of an existing Technical Order (TO) are affected?

A

Changes

147
Q

What is a complete new edition of an existing TO and has a new basic date called?

A

A Revision

148
Q

What percentage of a technical order has to be changed for it to be called a revision?

A

50%

149
Q

How long shall an AFTO781J be maintained for?

A

one year

150
Q

How often shall a new MDL be printed?

A

once a month

151
Q

How do you access the MDL for a particular aircraft?

A

ALMIS DSS Web Reports under Unit Maintenance Reports

152
Q

What computer generated report maintains a record of significant maintenance actions on SNT items?

A

Significant Component History Report (SCHR)

153
Q

Components with unknown or missing serial numbers, TSN, TSO, or CSN (if applicable) must not be installed until data is determined or assigned by who?

A

ALC Engineering Services Division or Commandant (CG-41)

154
Q

The Monthly Unit Operating Statistics MORPT entry may only be entered by who?

A

the activity owning the aircraft when the month ended

155
Q

When does the Monthly Unit Operating Statistics MORPT report have to be submitted to ACMS?

A

not later than the seventh day following the end of the report period

156
Q

Aircraft Missile Condition Report AFTO 103 is used for what aircraft?

A

C-130

157
Q

What form shall be used to recommend corrections of errors which affect the meaning of information or procedures contained in COMDTINSTs, technical manuals, CGTO Process Guides, or ACMS MPCs which affect the applicable aircraft maintenance requirements, this form shall also be used for recommending changes in processes, procedures, or materiel that affect aircraft maintenance?

A

Technical Manual Application System (TMAPS, Deficiency Report (CG-22)

158
Q

What manual would you find instructions on routing and preparing the CG-22?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-20-A

159
Q

After final approval in TMAPS, the Deficiency Report (CG-22) will be automatically archived so it can be retrieved for review where?

A

in TMAPS

160
Q

What form shall be used for submitting recommended changes to flight manuals?

A

AF Form 847

161
Q

Field units should document depot-deferred maintenance utilizing what function in EAL?

A

CFD (Carried Forward Depot)

162
Q

In order to document discrepancies as they occur, HC-130 reporting custodians shall maintain what in each aircraft logbook?

A

a running AFTO 103

163
Q

On C-130’s, what report shall be used to document any unusual work required for aircraft which are scheduled for PDM at military or commercial activities?

A

Aircraft Missile Condition Report, AFTO Form 103

164
Q

The AFTO form 103 will be initiated how days in advance of the scheduled depot input date to allow for command review?

A

60 days

165
Q

Certification and delivery of the AFTO form 103 to the PM (Program Manager) will be how many days prior to the scheduled induction date?

A

45 days

166
Q

DoD has adopted the Product Quality Deficiency Report as a standard form for use in reporting quality deficiencies on all DoD-owned materiel (i.e., components, engines, and aircraft). What is this form called?

A

Standard Form 368

167
Q

How do you submit a deficiency report to ALC concerning components and engines, regardless of the overhaul/repair activity involved?

A

UR

168
Q

Who will function as the screening activity for UR’s?

A

ALC

169
Q

Deficiency reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than how many days after receipt of the aircraft?

A

20 days

170
Q

How should deficiency reports concerning aircraft having completed PDM at ALC be submitted?

A

on a Letter Report

171
Q

How should deficiency reports for an aircrafts initial delivery from manufacturer be submitted?

A

on a Letter Report.

172
Q

What form is used for a Serviceable Tag on parts?

A

DD 1574 (orange)

173
Q

What form is used for an Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag on parts?

A

DD 1577-2 (green)

DD 1577-2 (blue)

174
Q

What form is used for an Unsatisfactory Report (UR) Tag on parts?

A

CG 1577-A

175
Q

What form is used for an Oil Analysis Request?

A

DD-2026

DD-2027

176
Q

The terms A Condition, RFI, and serviceable are used interchangeably. The terms F Condition, NON-RFI, unserviceable and class 265 are used interchangeably. What are the preferred terms?

A

serviceable and unserviceable.

177
Q

What system shall be used to communicate information concerning failures of aeronautical components and equipment, including mission equipment, ground support equipment, and tools?

A

The JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM JDRS Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)

178
Q

What is the JOINT DEFICIENCY REPORTING SYSTEM JDRS Process Guide?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-1320-A.

179
Q

How do you report an item if it has been damaged as a result of improper packing?

A

The JDRS Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR)

180
Q

After the PDM induction of an aircraft at ALC, what processes are completed on the airframe and its components for the purpose of evaluating the condition and determining the disposition of the same?

A

Inspection and Evaluation (I&E)

181
Q

Upon the completion of these I&E processes, the Commanding Officer, ALC, will provide a Post Induction memorandum to who?

A

Commanding Officer of the inducting unit, with an information copy to Commandant (CG-41).

182
Q

What are the two types of categories to report post PDM discrepancies?

A

Major and Minor

183
Q

When reporting post PDM discrepancies, how are major discrepancies determined?

A

One that affects safety of flight or grounds the aircraft

184
Q

How many days will a unit receiving an aircraft from a transferring unit have to submit a memorandum report?

A

no later than 30 calendar days

185
Q

A report that indicates the performance of Coast Guard Aeronautical Engineering as related to strategic plans and goals is called what?

A

MEASURES OF EFFECTIVENESS (MOE) REPORT

186
Q

What is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable because unit-level scheduled or unscheduled maintenance is in progress called?

A

NMCM

187
Q

When maintenance is the driver that prohibits resumption of BRAVO readiness status, what kind of status is the aircraft in?

A

NMCM

NMCM time also includes the time the aircraft is grounded awaiting maintenance action 	or until the satisfactory completion of a test flight.

Pre-thru-post flight inspections or servicing which would not delay a BRAVO zero launch should not be logged as NMCM time.

188
Q

What is the status of an aircraft which is Not Mission Capable due to the lack of available parts or supplies called?

A

NMCS

The lack of parts is preventing the aircraft from attaining a BRAVO readiness status, and 	thereby acting as the driving factor causing NMC condition. Unrelated maintenance may be performed on the aircraft while it is in NMCS status, but 	related maintenance will change the status to NMCM. The NMCS clock stops as soon as the part is available to maintenance personnel.
189
Q

What status reflects the percentage of time that aircraft of each type are unavailable to air stations for operational use due to depot level maintenance or testing?

A

: NMCD
Most NMCD time will be accrued at ALC and Contractor/DoD depots, but occasionally the Coast Guard makes a business decision to perform depot level maintenance at air stations.

190
Q

What does ALMIS stand for?

A

Asset Logistics Management Information System

191
Q

What does ASMMIS stand for?

A

Asset Maintenance Management Information System

192
Q

What does ACMS stand for?

A

Asset Computerized Maintenance System

193
Q

What does EAL stand for?

A

Electronic Asset Logbook

194
Q

What form shall be submitted for each ALMIS user (military, government, or contractor) during check-in and checkout from each unit?

A

Access request form

195
Q

What do you submit to update a user’s access level, reflect changes in rank, and change a user’s unit in ALMIS?

A

Access request form

196
Q

Requests for changes to the ALMIS system shall be submitted via the unit chain of command
to ALC’s Information Systems Division (ISD) how?

A

Software Change Request (Unit)

197
Q

As a precaution to EAL service interruptions and to ensure asset operations are not negatively affected, all maintenance records will be backed up a minimum of __________.

A

once per day.

198
Q

What provides indepth direction for conducting EAL contingency operations?

A

MPC 00EAL.0 EAL Contingency Operations

199
Q

Where can you find specific procedures for use of EAL records?

A

within the HELP section of EAL

200
Q

What ink color is the only one authorized for asset log book paper forms?

A

Black

201
Q

The use of colored text in EAL will be limited to what colors?

A

Blue, Green and Red
Blue – Special Inspections
Green – Logbook reviews
Red – Functional check requirements and aircrew warnings

202
Q

How long will paper forms be retained at the unit after entry into EAL?

A

90 days

203
Q

Fully Mission Capable (FMC) is indicated how?

A

green up-pointing triangle

204
Q

Partly Mission Capable (PMC) is indicated how?

A

yellow sideward-pointing triangle

205
Q

Not Mission Capable (NMC) is indicated how?

A

red downward-pointing triangle

206
Q

The NMC indicator is suffixed with one of three letters, what are they?

A

M,S or D
Not Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM): the asset is undergoing maintenance.
Not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS): the asset is awaiting a critical part.
Not Mission Capable Depot (NMCD): the asset is undergoing depot level maintenance.

207
Q

All flight and non-flight generated discrepancies identified after the pilot accepts the asset for flight or ground operations will be recorded where?

A

Mission-Generated Maintenance Record

208
Q

All non-flight generated discrepancies identified by maintenance personnel will be recorded where?

A

on a No-Mission Maintenance Record.

209
Q

The paper version of the No-Mission Maintenance Record is printed on what color paper?

A

White

210
Q

What is the indication on the maintenance records that depicts whether an asset is safe for continued operations called?

A

Condition

211
Q

What is required for a grounded aircraft before the aircraft can be released for flight?

A

A maintenance release

212
Q

All deferred maintenance actions SHALL be authorized by who?

A

Engineering Officer or their designated representative

213
Q

When utilizing the paper logbook, all CF, CFD, and PP deferred discrepancies shall be transferred where?

A

: to the Deferred Maintenance Record

214
Q

How long do you have to provide a part requisition number for Parts Pending discrepancies?

A

72 Hours

215
Q

Upon receipt of the part(s), an additional comment stating ______shall be added to the PP discrepancy.

A

PARTS RECEIVED AND AWAITING INSTALLATION

216
Q

With the exception of deployed assets, no deferred discrepancies shall remain open for a period longer than_______.

A

30 Days

217
Q

How often will units conduct paper logbook record training to ensure that all aviation personnel are familiar with the use of each form, as appropriate to their job description?

A

Yearly

218
Q

All paper logbook forms will be used for periods of non-connectivity exceeding ____ hours in duration.

A

4

219
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 1

A

The aeronautical materiel under individual (serial number) management by ALC is defined below.

	(1) Aircraft engines
	(2) High value components
	(3) Items requiring special configuration control procedures
	(4) Items in critical supply and of sufficiently high cost and low volume that  require individual management
220
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 2

A

To qualify as Type 2 materiel, one of the following conditions must be satisfied:

	1) Unit price of $250 or more
	(2) Procured from a commercial source of supply
	(3) Flight critical
	(4) Reparable
221
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 3

A

Consumable aeronautical materiel, less avionics, with a unit price less than $250 and procurable from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure materiel using unit AFC 30 funds

222
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 4

A

Type 4 material, one of the following conditions must be satisfied:(1) Unit price of $800 or more

	(2) Procured from a commercial source of supply
	(3) Flight critical
	(4) Reparable
223
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 5

A

Consumable avionics materiel with a unit price less than $800 and procurable
from an OGA source. Units set their own allowance quantities and procure material
using unit AFC 30 funds.

224
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 6

A

Aeronautical Support Equipment (SE):

	(1) For items costing more than $250, but less than $3,000, ALC will provide initial provisioning but will not provide subsequent replacement or repair. (2) Contact ALC for guidance on repairables beyond unit capability and funding   of $3,000 or above
225
Q

Materiel types used in USCG aviation supply support are described in the following paragraphs:Type 7

A

Type 7 Material used to support the Turbomeca Arriel 2C2 CG engine.

226
Q

How do you report Type 1 removal?

A

Routine Message

227
Q

Type 1 materiel shall be shipped as soon as practical but not later than ___ days following receipt of shipping orders.

A

15 days

228
Q

On Type 1 material, orders for shipment will be issued by ALC and shipment will be effected within ____ hours of receipt of message.

A

24 hours

229
Q

How are Type 3 and 5 materiel requisitioned?

A

Unit Funds

230
Q

What Force/Activity Designator are USCG Headquarters and air stations assigned?

A

Force/Activity Designator of II

231
Q

What Force/Activity Designator are ALC, ATTC, and ATC Mobile assigned?

A

: Force/Activity Designator of III

232
Q

Who is the supply source for all Type 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 items?

A

ALC

233
Q

What procedures are used to order Type 3 and 5 materiel from government supply sources?

A

Automated Requisition Management System (ARMS) or Simplified Uniform Requisitioning Format (SURF)

234
Q

How long will Air stations retain all material request/issue forms that document a mechanic requesting the part from supply?

A

3 years

235
Q

When will Priority 5 requisitions be filled by ALC?

A

if there are more than two parts on the ALC shelf

236
Q

When will Priority 12 requisitions be filled by ALC?

A

: if there are more than five parts on the ALC shelf

237
Q

The Prompt Payment Act requires that material shipped directly from vendors be paid within
___ days of receipt of materiel, or interest must be paid to vendors

A

30 days

238
Q

When will Serial Number Tracked (SNT) materiel that has been shipped and is not enrolled in ACMS be enrolled?

A

at the time of receipt

239
Q

Any part with questionable background, or whose condition is suspect, will be brought to the attention of who?

A

: Engineering Officer

240
Q

How is Type 1 materiel requisitioned?

A

via AMMIS

241
Q

What allows air stations to support one another when parts are needed before ALC can supply them through the normal resupply pipelines?

A

: Parts Pull

242
Q

Who initiates the parts pool process using the Parts Pool Module within AMMIS?

A

the potential donor

243
Q

When parts pulling, who is responsible for any unserviceable materiel turn-in?

A

The requesting unit

244
Q

Who coordinates the parts pull process?

A

The requesting unit

245
Q

Who controls TCTO change kits?

A

ALC

246
Q

TCTO Kits requiring more than 4 labor hours for incorporation will not normally be issued within __ months of the scheduled aircraft PDM induction date.

A

4 months

247
Q

TCTO Kits requiring 4 or less labor hours for incorporation will not be issued within __days of scheduled aircraft PDM induction dates.

A

45 days

248
Q

What happens to uninstalled TCTO change kits for a specific aircraft/engine?

A

It will accompany that aircraft on all ferry missions until incorporated

249
Q

How will TCTO change kits for spare components be labeled?

A

the letters SPAR will be used in lieu of aircraft/engine serial number.

250
Q

How will Hazardous material be packaged?

A

individually packaged and the container clearly marked as to the hazardous contents

251
Q

What manual would you reference for specific packaging, marking, and shipping information on Hazardous Materials?

A

COMDTINST M4610.5

252
Q

What should you not use for installing tags on aircraft equipment?

A

wire

253
Q

When tagging aircraft equipment, where should the serviceable or unserviceable tag be placed?

A

to each component and container

254
Q

Repairable materiel shall be shipped to ALC or other designated repair facility with the appropriate documentation within __ days of removal from service.

A

: 15 days

255
Q

Aviation units will be allowed a maximum of __ days from date of failure of the part to date of shipment to ALC for handling of unserviceable materiel.

A

30 days

256
Q

How do you monitor unserviceable items in maintenance for over 15 days?

A

utilizing the Cumulative Turn-In Report in AMMIS

257
Q

Priority shipping of Non-RFI parts should be given to what kind of parts?

A

critical components and components valued in excess of $1,500

258
Q

At a minimum, a review of a unit’s allowance list will be conducted when?

A

within 6 months prior to a Logistics Compliance Inspection (LCI)

259
Q

If the Coast Guard deems laboratory testing necessary for new materials, who will arrange for laboratory testing, paying all costs associated with such testing?

A

the manufacturer or supplier

260
Q

Who provides for and schedules the PDM of aircraft?

A

Commandant

261
Q

When does ALC publish a message with the proposed PDM schedule for the four main aircraft types?

A

each quarter

262
Q

When will TCTO change kits be shipped to arrive at the PDM activity with the scheduled aircraft?

A

concurrently

263
Q

What is CAMP?

A

The Contract Aviation Maintenance Program

264
Q

Who is responsible for the final determination regarding overhaul or repair of components returned from field units?

A

ALC

265
Q

What does a white decal on a component mean?

A

indicates the component has been completely overhauled at ALC

266
Q

What does a yellow decal on a component mean?

A

: indicates the item has only been inspected and/or repaired as necessary to return the item to a serviceable condition

267
Q

Who provides engineering services and technical support for Aviation Life Support, UR research and Avionics systems, and the ALMIS system?

A

ALC’s Engineering Services Division (ESD)

268
Q

Troubleshooting assistance for maintenance difficulties, which are beyond the scope of available technical orders, may be provided by who?

A

the respective aircraft Product Line Engineering Cell personnel

269
Q

Who receives, reviews, analyzes, and coordinates corrective action with the respective aircraft
Product Line Engineering Cell on URs received?

A

ESD’s Policy and Product Assurance Cell

270
Q

Who provides engineering technical assistance to its PDM Cell?

A

the respective aircraft Product Line

271
Q

What are the three classifications of Materiel Deficiency Evaluations (MDE)?

A

Engineering Investigation (EI)
Disassembly Inspection Report (DIR)
Condition Exception Report (CER)

272
Q

If proposed changes by other agencies are considered necessary for safety of flight, improved mission effectiveness, or for common parts procurement, the Product Line recommends approval to who?

A

: Commandant (CG-41)

273
Q

Who is the only entity authorized to communicate with the Department of Defense, government and commercial contractors concerning publication issues?

A

ALC Technical Publications Cell

274
Q

What is a CG 1577-A?

A

Unsatisfactory Report (UR) Tag

275
Q

Reports resulting from HC-130 PDM shall be prepared in message format by the receiving activity not later than ______ after receipt of the aircraft.

A

20 days

276
Q

What form is used for reporting quality deficiencies on components, engines and aircrafts?

A

Standard Form 368 (Quality Deficiency Report)

277
Q

What form shall be used for submitting changes to flight manuals?

A

AF-847

278
Q

CG-22 are kept on file for how long?

A

1 year

279
Q

CG-22 Process Guide?

A

85-00-20

280
Q

Who can assign serial numbers to components with missing or unknown serial numbers?

A

ALC Engineering or CG-41

281
Q

What happens to components with unknown or missing serial numbers?

A

They can’t be installed

282
Q

Before the installation of any Type 1 assembly, it is recommended that you do what?

A

Both a current MDL and configuration report be reviewed

283
Q

Where can you find the total hours available and total hours flown during the month by aircraft type?

A

Monthly Unit Operating Statistics ( MORPT )

284
Q

What is required for all components listed on the aircraft configuration report?

A

Significant Component History Report ( SCHR )

285
Q

A new MDL should project all scheduled maintenance for calendar and hourly tasks for _______ month operating period.

A

2

286
Q

How shall accumulation of flight hours be recorded on the CG-4377?

A

Rounded to the nearest tenth of an hour.

287
Q

As a QA check for ACMS when shall logbook reviews be conducted?

A

Monthly

288
Q

Who shall conduct monthly reviews of each aircraft logbook?

A

EO

289
Q

ATA Airborne Power

A

49

290
Q

ATA Lifting, Jacking and Shoring

A

07

291
Q

ATA Corrosion

A

14

292
Q

ATA General

A

05

293
Q

ATA Oxygen

A

35

294
Q

ATA Navigation

A

34

295
Q

ATA Lights

A

33

296
Q

ATA Landing Gear

A

32

297
Q

ATA Indicating/Recording Systems

A

31

298
Q

ATA Ice and Rain Protection

A

30

299
Q

ATA Hydraulics

A

29

300
Q

ATA Fuel

A

28

301
Q

ATA Flight Control

A

27

302
Q

ATA Fire Protection

A

26

303
Q

ATA Equipment/Furnishing

A

25

304
Q

ATA Electrical Power

A

24

305
Q

ATA Communications

A

23

306
Q

ATA Auto Flight

A

22

307
Q

ATA Air Conditioning

A

21

308
Q

When are supplements issued for Technical Orders?

A

To augment data in the basic TO

309
Q

When are Technical Orders normally revised?

A

When pages requiring changing total 50% or more of the technical order.

310
Q

When are semiannual audits of technical publications conducted?

A

April conducted by QA and shops and October conducted by Shops

311
Q

When will all changes, supplements to technical manuals be incorporated into the applicable manuals?

A

Within 5 working days

312
Q

TIMOS (Technical Information Management and Ordering System ) process guide?

A

85-00-50

313
Q

Where shall all publications referenced within CG aviation be contained?

A

TIMOS Master Publication Index (MPI)

314
Q

What is the proper storage time in shops and supply of chemicals used for maintenance?

A

30 days for shops and 90 days for supply

315
Q

When an aircraft is being taxied within _______ of obstructions, a minimum of one wing walker for each wing tip shall be provided

A

25 feet

316
Q

When can Commanding Officers authorize taxiing without taxi signalman?

A

ramp has clearly defined taxi lines and parking spots.

317
Q

Only personnel qualified in aircraft type and designated in writing by __________ are authorized to start and run up aircraft engines.

A

CO

318
Q

Who designates engine run up areas?

A

CO

319
Q

Who should you contact prior to any movement of aircraft across runways or taxiways?

A

Airport control tower

320
Q

Generally, the distance left between rows of parked aircraft shall be enough to allow what?

A

immediate access of emergency vehicles and free movement of equipment.

321
Q

For HC-130 towing operations, another qualified person shall be assigned to maintain what?

A

auxiliary hydraulic system pressure utilizing the hand pump

322
Q

When towing an aircraft who may double as either the vehicle driver or one of the wing walkers?

A

The supervisor

323
Q

Who shall ensure the unit has a well defined towing plan?

A

CO

324
Q

Ensure a serviceable 125/150 lb wheeled PKP fire extinguisher or equivalent is placed within ______ feet of the LOX servicing operation.

A

50

325
Q

Aeronautical equipment (e.g., engine, blade, and prop slings/lifting devices) shall be tested IAW?

A

NAVAIR 17-1-114

326
Q

Facility weight lifting devices (e.g., overhead hoist, cranes) used at aviation units shall be tested IAW?

A

Civil Engineering Manual M11000.11

327
Q

Hangar deck certified power grounds should be tested

to the current standard of less than?

A

25ohms

328
Q

Combustible materiels shall not be stored within _______ of any stove, furnace or boiler.

A

10 feet

329
Q

oil-soaked and paint-saturated clothing, rags, waste, excelsior, and combustible refuse shall be________

A

removed from the work areas daily

330
Q

Flight line fire extinguishers shall be _____ pound dry chemical type fire extinguishers

A

150

331
Q

What particles pose the greatest threat to the respiratory system?

A

Single-Fiber 3-4 microns diameter

332
Q

Where can the The criteria for lighting minimums are found?

A

IESNA Lighting HandBook

333
Q

What fire extinguishers are most effective in putting out solvent fires?

A

CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

334
Q

Aircraft Maintenance Potential Hazardous Waste?

A

M16478.4

335
Q

Hazardous Waste Management Manual?

A

M16478.1

336
Q

What chemicals will dissolve the natural protecting fats and oils from the skin?

A

Specific Skin Irritants

337
Q

All portable electronic test equipment shall meet what grounding requirements?

A

National Electrical Safety Code.

338
Q

How will electric power tools, switches, junction boxes, and regulators be positioned in the hangar?

A

At least 18 inches above floor level

339
Q

Containers of not more than ______ capacity will be used for storing paints and dopes

A

5 gallons

340
Q

Where water wash facilities are provided for small booths, they will have a minimum of _________ per minute linear air velocity across the face of the booth

A

200 feet

341
Q

How should Oxygen cylinder storage be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible materials?

A

Distance of 20 feet or a noncombustible barrier at least 5 feet high and have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1/2 hour.

342
Q

In a Non-Dedicated Battery Servicing Facility what’s the workspace air temperature?

A

77.5 (+7.5 F)

343
Q

How much clearance is needed when servicing sealed lead-acid batteries and sealed nickel-cadmium batteries?

A

5 feet.

344
Q

Aviation tools will be of such quality that they meet or exceed what standard?

A

SAE

345
Q

What form will be used by maintenance administrators for interpreting and/or amplifying technical directives and maintenance requirements received from higher authority and also to promulgate local instructions as necessary?

A

OPNAV 4790/35

346
Q

How many people are required to perform the TEMPEST installation inspection?

A

2

347
Q

What is required for each new or modified airborne COMSEC installation?

A

TEMPEST Certification

348
Q

The Corrosion Control Program Process Guide?

A

85-00-60

349
Q

What is the concept that reliability is designed into a component and cannot be improved with preventive maintenance called?

A

Reliability Centered Maintenance

350
Q

Spectrometric Oil Analysis Program (SOAP) will be performed by?

A

Honeywell

351
Q

What manuals outline the procedures of JOAP?

A

NAVAIR 17-15-50.1 through 50.4

PG85-00-110 (1 decks)

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