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Microbiology > Aerobic Gram Pos Rods > Flashcards

Aerobic Gram Pos Rods Flashcards

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0
Q

Corynebacterium normal flora of…

A

Skin and mucous membranes

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1
Q

Gram stain of Corynebacterium

A

Gram positive rods in chinese letter formation (coryneform)

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2
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae catalase reaction

A

Positive

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3
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae is resistant to…

A

Drying

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4
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae is readily killed by…

A

heat and most disinfectants

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5
Q

Diptheria toxin

1) Type of toxin
2) Produced only by stains with…

A

1) Exotoxin

2) Produced by strains infected with bacteriophage

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6
Q

How can nontoxigenic strains of Corynebacterium diptheriae be converted to a toxigenic strain?

A

Infected with bacteriophage

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7
Q

What amino acid is required in order for C. diptheriae to become toxigenic and why?

A

Trypsin; Splits the AB portions of the exotoxin

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8
Q

A portion of diphtheria toxin

1) Purpose

A

1) Disrupts protein synthesis and causes symptoms

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9
Q

B portion of the diphtheria toxin

1) Purpose

A

1) Bind to receptors on eukaryotic cells to mediate entry of the A portion

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10
Q

C. diptheriae

1) Types of infection
2) Transmission
3) Incubation
4) Treatment

A

1) Respiratory and cutaneous forms
2) Droplet or hand-to-mouth contact
3) 2-5 days
4) Antitoxin

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11
Q

C. diptheriae

1) What is the main symptom developed?

A

1) Pseudomembrane in the oropharnyx and tonsils

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12
Q

C. diptheriae pseudomembrane

1) Composed of…
2) Main purpose of this membrane

A

1) Fibrins, WBCs, necrotic epithelial cells

2) Site where exotoxin is released in the bloodstream

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13
Q

C. diptheriae pseudomembrane

1) What will occur if you remove the pseudomembrane?

A

Toxin will increase at an increased rate

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14
Q

C. diptheriae

1) Babes-Ernst granules

A

1) Metachromatic areas of the cell which stain more intensely (storage deposits for bacteria)

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15
Q

What type of media will better culture C. diphtheria?

A

Loeffler medium
Tinsdale agar
Tellurite media
Cystine-Tellurite Blood agar

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16
Q

How does Loeffler media help to distinguish C. diphtheriae?

A

Enhances the Babes-Ernst granules

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17
Q

How does Tinsdale agar help to differentiate C. diptheriae?

A

Grey to black colonies with a brown halo

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18
Q

How does Cystine-Tellurite blood agar differentiate C. diptheriae?

A

Brown to black colonies

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19
Q

What stain will help differentiate C. diptheriae?

A

Loeffler methylene blue–helps to distinguish the metachromatic granules and will show reddish/purple granules

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20
Q

What are the three biotypes of C. diptheriae?

A

Gravis colonies
Mitis colonies
Intermedius colonies

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21
Q

C. diptheriae Gravis colonies

A

Large dark gray, centrally matte, irregular colonies

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22
Q

C. diptheriae Mitis colonies

A

Small black, convex, entire colonies

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23
Q

C. diptheriae Intermedius colonies

A

Very small, flat, dry, gray, or black colonies

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24
Q

How can one reach a definitive ID of C. diptheriae?

A

Requires demonstration of toxin production by the isolate in question; patient may be infected with several strains at once so testing is performed using pooled inoculum of at least 10 colonies

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25
Q

C. diptheriae Elek Test

A

Must use a (-) and (+) control.

Positive reaction will show lines of precipitation along the diptheria antitoxin

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26
Q

What are some other ways to detect the toxin of C. diptheriae?

A

Elek test
Guinea pig lethality test
Tissue culture cell test
PCR to detect toxin gene

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27
Q

How is C. diptheriae treated?

A

Prompt neutralization of toxin, followed by the eradication of the organism

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28
Q

Why are antibiotics not recommended for treatment of C. diptheriae?

A

They have no effect on circulating toxin, just eliminate pool of organisms and prevent spread

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29
Q

How is C. diptheriae prevented?

A

DPT vaccine

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30
Q

Corynebacterium jeikeium

1) Most common skin flora of…
2) Virulence level
3) Diseases
4) Main virulence factor

A

1) Hospitalized patients (immunocompromised)
2) Low
3) Septicemia, wounds, rarely endocarditis
4) Highly resistant to antibiotics

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31
Q

Main disease of C. jeikeium?

A

Septicemia (life threatening)

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32
Q

What is the main risk factor for C. jeikeium?

A

Colonization of intravenous catheters

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33
Q

Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum

1) Epidemiology
2) Transmission
3) Clinical infection

A

1) Normal flora of human skin and pharynx
2) Uncertain (probably endogenous)
3) Pharyngitis, cellulitis, other skin infections

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34
Q

Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum grows on what media?

A

BAP and CHOC

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35
Q

Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum colony morphology

A

Small colonies with various appearance, may be surrounded y narrow zone of beta hemolysis

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36
Q

What can Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum colonies resemble and how can a microbiologist differentiate?

A

Beta strep; Will try to strep type the beta hemolytic colonies and will type (-); gram stain will show GPR

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37
Q

Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum catalase reaction

A

Negative

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38
Q

Treatment for Arcanobacteruim hemolyticum

A

Susceptibility to penicillin erythromycin, and clindamycin

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39
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

1) Epidemiology

A

1) Widely distributed in nature; human and animal pathogen

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40
Q

Where does Listeria monocytogenes colonize in humans?

A

GI tract

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41
Q

Listeria monocytogenes pathogenesis

A 
Listeriolysin O (hemolysin)
Endotoxin
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42
Q

Listeriolysin O (hemolysin)

1) Type of toxin
2) Only present in what strains?

A

1) Membrane damaging toxin

2) Virulent strains

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43
Q

Listeria monocytogenes internalin

A

Allows Listeria monocytogenes to penetrate cells faster

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44
Q

Listeria monocytogenes surface protein p60

A

Induces phagocytosis through increased adhesion and penetration into mammalian cells

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45
Q

Listeria monocytogenes virulent factors

A 
Listeriolysin O
Endotoxin
Internalin
Superoxide dismutase
Phospholipase C
Surface protein p60
46
Q

Listeriolysin O main purpose

A

Prevent phagocytosis

47
Q

Listeria monocytogenes Transmission

A

Usually by ingestion of contaminated food, meat, or dairy or colonized mothers passing it to fetus

48
Q

Listeriosis

1) Diagnostic test
2) Symptoms

A

1) Blood culture and spinal tap

2) Septicemia and meningitis

49
Q

Listeria monocytogenes disease in pregnant women

1) What trimester?
2) Symptoms for the mother
3) Other consequences?

A

1) 3rd trimester
2) Flulike symptoms
3) spontaneous abortion and still births

50
Q

Listeria monocytogenes disease in newborns

1) Early onset
2) Late onset

A

1) Intrauterine, causes sepsis at or shortly after birth

2) Full term and healthy at birth, causes meningitis

51
Q

Other clinically significant diseases of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Granulomatous skin lesions
Lymphadenitis
Endocarditis

52
Q

Source of diagnosis and testing for Listeria monocytogenes

A

Blood; CSF; lesions

53
Q

Laboratory ID of Listeria monocytogenes

1) Colony morphology on BAP
2) Gram stain reaction
3) Catalase reaction

A

1) Small, smooth, translucent, beta hemolytic colonies
2) Slender, short gpr
3) Positive

54
Q

What will the wet mount reveal of Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Distinctive tumbling motility in liquid media, especially after incubation at 25 C

55
Q

At what unique temperature can Listeria monocytogenes grow?

A

4C (refrigeration)

56
Q

What does Listeria monocytogenes resemble and how to differentiate?

A

Group B strep

CAMP test will reveal a block formation rather than arrow head formation

57
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

1) Bile esculin
2) Hippurate
3) CAMP test
4) Motility

A

1) Positive
2) Positive
3) Positive–block formation
4) Positive–umbrella

58
Q

If the motility agar shows an umbrella formation, what organism does this indicate?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

59
Q

What organism is best to perform the CAMP test with when testing for Listeria monocytogenes?

A

R. equi

60
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae epidemiology

A

Not part of normal flora

Domestic swine is the major reservoir

61
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae transmission

A

Occupations: handling fish/animal products

Infection through cuts or scratches

62
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae diease

A

Erysipeloid; cutaneous inflammatory disease usually of hands and fingers

63
Q

How is erysipeloid ID’d?

A

Culture biopsy

64
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae media

A

BAP and CHOC

65
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae main differentiating test

A

H2S positive on TSI or KIA slant

66
Q

A brush pattern of growth is shown on a gelatin slab, what organism is causing this pattern?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

67
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae colony morphology

A

Smooth, small, transparent colonies showing greenish color

68
Q

Lactobacillus epidemiology

A

Environment, normal flora of mouth, GI, female genital tract

69
Q

Lactobacillus transmission

A

Endogenous (only relevant when predominant on the plates

70
Q

Clinical significance of Lactobacillus

A

Contaminant

Bacteremia in immunocompromised

71
Q

Lactobacillus colony morphology

A

Usually small and alpha hemolytic; ground-glass appearance

72
Q

Lactobacillus gram morphology

A

Gram positive wispy rods

73
Q

Lactobacillus catalase reaction

A

Negative

74
Q

What is important about Lactobacillus when it comes to antimicrobials?

A

Highly resistant to vancomycin

75
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis epidemiolgy

A

Normal vaginal flora

76
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis clinical infection

A

Bacterial vaginosis

UTI

77
Q

What is the best agar to culture Gardnerella vaginalis? Why?

A

V agar; human blood; HPT agar

78
Q

Colony morphology of Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Tiny pinpoint colonies, beta-hemolytic

79
Q

Gram stain morphology of Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Small pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and short rods; gram yucky

80
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis catalase reaction

A

Negative

81
Q

When is Gardnerella vaginalis considered pathogenic in a genital culture?

A

When it is predominant over lactobacillus

82
Q

What growth must be compared to Gardnerella vaginalis and on what medium for it to be considered pathogenic?

A

Compare to lactobacillus no chocolate agar

83
Q

What differences will be seen on chocolate agar when comparing Gardnerella vaginalis and lactobacillus?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis–tiny pinpoint, beta-hemolytic colonies

Lactobacillus–alpha colonies (greenish)

84
Q

Direct detection of Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Wet prep and identification of “clue cells”
“Whiff test”
Probe test (vag probe)

85
Q

Clue cells

A

ID Gardnerella vaginalis

**Large, squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached organisms

86
Q

DNA detection of Gardnerella vaginalis is based on?

A

Predetermined threshold for normal flora

87
Q

A gram stain shows gram-positive bacilli with squared-off ends

A

Bacillus

88
Q

Spores are seen on a gram stain with blocky bacilli

A

Bacillus

89
Q

Bacillus anthracis pathogenesis

A

Glutamic acid capsule

Exotoxins with three proteins (edema factor; lethal toxin; protective antigen)

90
Q

Bacillus anthracis

*Edema factor

A

Impairs neutrophil functin and causes massive edema

91
Q

Bacillus anthracis

**Lethal toxin

A

Stimulates macrophages to release tumor necrosis factor and interleukin IB

92
Q

Bacillus anthracis

**Protective antigen

A

Promotes entry of edema factor into phagocytic cells

93
Q

What is the major reason for mortality when people are colonized with Bacillus anthracis?

A

Extoxins

94
Q

What is required for Bacillus anthracis to be pathogenic?

A

Only pathogenic when the edema factor, lethal toxin, and protective antigen are together

95
Q

How do the spores of Bacillus anthracis work?

A

They only activate at 37C or when they enter the host. They then are phagocytized by macrophages and become gram positive rods and reproduce in the lymphatic system. They then enter the bloodstream and cause sepsis.

96
Q

How are humans infected with anthrax?

A

Animal products or contaminated dust

97
Q

Can anthrax be transmitted to human to human?

A

No

98
Q

What is the major cause of anthrax infection?

A

Imported goat hair

99
Q

Cutaneous anthrax

1) Entry point
2) Symptom
3) Test for…

A

1) Cut or abrasion on skin
2) Black eschar (malignant pustule)
3) Serous fluid from below the black eschar

100
Q

Inhalation Anthrax

1) Entry
2) Symptoms
3) Testing

A

1) Spores inhaled into the pulmonary parenchyma
2) Respiratory symptoms accompanied by disorientation, coma and death
3) Nasal swab (heat shock first); will see swelling around the heart in chest xray

101
Q

Gastrointestinal anthrax

1) Entry
2) Symptoms
3) Testing

A

1) Spores inoculated into lesion on intestinal mucosa after ingestion
2) Abdominal pain, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, blood diarrhea
3) Gastric aspirates or stool

102
Q

Why is GI anthrax have a higher mortality rate than the others?

A

Difficult to diagnose

103
Q

Bacillus anthracis growth on what media?

A

BAP, CHOC, blood culture media

104
Q

Bacillus anthracis colony morphology

A

Green, grey, frosted glass colonies

105
Q

What is unique about Bacillus anthracis colony morphology

A

Medusa head and taffy like when picked up with a stick

106
Q

Bacillus anthracis

1) Catalase reaction
2) Motility
3) Glucose
4) Penicillin

A

1) Positive
2) Nonmotile
3) Ferments glucose
4) Sensitive

107
Q

Bacillus cereus epidemiology

A

environmental

108
Q

Bacillus cereus transmission

A

Ingestion of contaminated food with spores or toxins

109
Q

Bacillus cereus pathogenesis

A

Food poisoning (diarrheal type; emetic type (vomiting))

110
Q

Bacillus cereus virulence factors

A

Enterotoxins (cramping and diarrhea)

111
Q

Bacillus cereus enterotoxins

1) Heat-labile
2) Heat-stable

A

1) Nausea, abdominal pain and diarrhea, lasting 12-24 hours, JUST DIARRHEA
2) Short incubation followed by severe nausea and vomiting, with limited diarrhea (emetic toxin–vomiting within 6 hours)

112
Q

Bacillus cereus laboratory ID

1) Hemolysis
2) Motility
3) What to culture?

A

1) Beta
2) Motile
3) Culture the suspected food and stool

113
Q

What two organisms are most commonly used as autoclave/sterilizer checks?

A

B. subtilis and B. stearothermophilus

Microbiology (3 decks)

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