aemt 11-20

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true about factors that influence a​ drug’s effects?

Answer 1

The absorption of a medication taken orally is slowed when there is food in the stomach.

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a mineral​ source?

Answer 2

Sodium bicarbonate - mineral source

Question 3

The name of a drug that typically consists of the generic name followed by the letters USP is the​ drug’s ____________ name.

Answer 3

official (albuterol sulfate usp)

Question 4

Pediatric drug dosages are usually based on the​ patient’s:

Answer 4

weight.

Question 5

Which form of medication packaging is a small plastic container with a top that can be torn off in order to pour or squeeze out the liquid​ medication?

Answer 5

Nebule

Question 6

Which medication below is given in a gaseous​ form?

Answer 6

.Oxygen

Question 7

The reasons a drug must NOT be​ given, even though the​ patient’s condition could otherwise be treated by the​ medication, are the​ drug’s:

Answer 7

contraindications

Question 8

Which term best describes what has happened when taking a drug during pregnancy causes birth defects in a developing fetus

Answer 8

teratogenic effects

Question 9

The potent painkiller morphine is an example of a drug derived from​ a(n) _________ source.

Answer 9

plant

Question 10

Unintended consequences of drug​ administration, which may be​ unpleasant, such as a dry​ mouth, are the​ drug’s:

Answer 10

side effects

Question 11

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of the affinity of a​ drug?

Answer 11

Affinity is a measure of the strength of attraction between a drug and receptor sites.

Question 12

The amount of drug that is still active when it reaches the target tissues is the​ drug’s:

Answer 12

bioavailability

Question 13

The first legislation to address proper medication labeling was​ the:

Answer 13

Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906.

Question 14

Which form of medication packaging consists of a barrel with a needle or adapter attached and a prefilled glass or plastic tube containing the​ medication?

Answer 14

prefilled syringe

Question 15

Which statement BEST describes the concept of free​ drug?

Answer 15

Free drug is the amount of drug that is not bound to plasma proteins and is therefore available to bind to cellular receptors

Question 16

Which of the following generally calls for a decrease in the amount of drug​ administered?

Answer 16

liver disease

Question 17

Which of these routes is the primary way in which drugs are eliminated from the​ body?

Answer 17

urine

Question 18

A medication that is intended to block or disrupt the formation of additional cells uses what type of mechanism of​ action?

Answer 18

changing metabolic pathways

Question 19

A patient tells you he takes Proventil for his asthma. You recognize Proventil as a trade name for which of these generic​ drugs?

Answer 19

albuterol sulfate

Question 20

a medication that is mixed with a sweet, thick flavored liquid to improve its flavor is in a form of a

Answer 20

syrup

Question 21

Before administering medications to a geriatric​ patient, what should the EMT​ assess?

Answer 21

the patients current medications

Question 22

Which of the following is a responsibility of the Food and Drug​ Administration?

Answer 22

Overseeing the testing and development of​ over-the-counter and prescription drugs

Question 23

A common reason for interactions between a​ patient’s prescribed medications and herbal supplements​ is:

Answer 23

many medications and herbs are metabolized by the same enzymes in the liver.

Question 24

In the United​ States, the government agency that is responsible for overseeing the manufacture of drugs and approving new drugs for use is​ the:

Answer 24

Food and Drug Administration.

Question 25

According to the FDA pregnancy​ categories, the safest category of drugs for pregnant women and their fetuses is​ category:

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Which term describes the process by which a medication moves from its site of administration into the​ bloodstream?

Answer 26

Absorption

Question 27

Which of these statements concerning the function of the placenta with regard to drugs administered to the mother is MOST​ accurate?

Answer 27

The effects of the placenta are not the same on all​ drugs; some reach the​ fetus, some reach the fetus in smaller​ concentrations, and some may not reach the fetus.

Question 28

If a patient takes a drug that is highly​ protein-bound, and then a second drug that is also highly​ protein-bound is​ given, which of the following will​ happen?

Answer 28

The free drug level of one or both drugs will increase.

Question 29

Which of the following characteristics would be most likely to impair drug​ elimination?

Answer 29

advanced age

Question 30

Which two names of a drug often are identical except that one name is followed with the letters​ USP?

Answer 30

generic and official

Question 31

Which description BEST defines the term​ potentiation?

Answer 31

this is the circumstance in which one drug increases the effects of another drug

Question 32

which population is typically excluded from drug tests that are regulated by the fda

Answer 32

pregnant patients

Question 33

Which is the most common way in which drugs have their effects on the​ body?

Answer 33

Binding with receptor sites on or within cells

Question 34

Which part of the drug profile describes the amount and frequency with which a drug is to be​ given?

Answer 34

Dosage

Question 35

Fifty percent dextrose is in what form when used for IV​ administration?

Answer 35

Solution

Question 36

All of the following are drugs derived from plant sources

except​:

Answer 36

diazepam

Question 37

Medications must always be sterile if they are to be administered by which​ route?

Answer 37

injection

Question 38

Which statement is MOST accurate regarding an Advanced​ EMT’s legal role in administering​ medications?

Answer 38

An Advanced EMT may only administer medications that have been prescribed by a physician.

Question 39

Which of these statements best describes Phase I FDA drug​ testing?

Answer 39

Testing the drug on a small number of healthy human volunteers to establish the safe dose

Question 40

Which statement BEST describes the term​ half-life as it relates to​ drugs?

Answer 40

The time that it takes for the level of the drug in the body to decrease to 50 percent of its peak level

Question 41

Acetylsalicylic acid is the chemical name​ for:

Answer 41

asprin

Question 42

What is the significance of medication being packaged in dark brown glass or​ plastic?

Answer 42

Those medications are sensitive to light.

Question 43

Which process of pharmacokinetics is most directly affected by the​ blood-brain barrier?

Answer 43

Distribution

Question 44

If patients taking a drug for high blood pressure sometimes experience a mild​ headache, in which part of the drug profile would that information be​ listed?

Answer 44

side effects

Question 45

Which of these is an explanation for interactions between drugs and herbal​ supplements?

Answer 45

Many drugs and some components of herbs are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system

Question 46

An example of an antagonist that can be administered by Advanced EMTs​ is:

Answer 46

naloxone

Question 47

Which of these is an example of a drug from a mineral​ source?

Answer 47

Potassium chloride - is used to prevent or to treat low blood levels of potassium (hypokalemia)

Question 48

The requirements that must be met for a drug to be sold over the counter were established by what​ legislation?

Answer 48

1951​ Durham-Humphrey Amendments to the​ Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

Question 49

Which statement below MOST accurately describes the term narrow therapeutic​ index?

Answer 49

The effective dose of a drug is close to its lethal dose.

Question 50

All of the following are examples of solid medications

except​:

Answer 50

nitroglycerin paste.

Question 51

Which description BEST defines the way an anticoagulant medication​ works?

Answer 51

It prevents one or more chemical reactions that need to occur to cause blood to clot.

Question 52

Drugs in which FDA Pregnancy Category must never be given to a pregnant​ woman?

Answer 52

X

Question 53

Which of the following abbreviations means​ gram?

Answer 53

g

Question 54

Conditions, signs, or symptoms that are important to consider in a​ patient’s situation but that are absent are known​ as:

Answer 54

pertinent negatives.

Question 55

Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed directly into the systemic circulation. By​ definition, this makes the sublingual route of administration​ a(n) ________ route.

Answer 55

parenteral

Question 56

You are to administer 0.3 mg of​ 1:1,000 epinephrine by IM injection. You have available an ampule of medication in a concentration of 1​ mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should you​ inject?

Answer 56

0.3

Question 57

All of the following are the​ “rights” of medication administration
EXCEPT​:

Answer 57

the right provider.

Question 58

A physician gives you an order to establish IO access. This means you​ will:

Answer 58

place a hollow needle into a bone so that the tip of the needle is in the marrow cavity.

Question 59

You have received an order to administer lactated​ Ringer’s solution at a rate of 125​ mL/hr. You have started an IV infusion using 15​ gtts/mL tubing. What is the drip rate needed to deliver the fluid as​ordered?

Answer 59

31​ gtts/min

Question 60

All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration
EXCEPT​:

Answer 60

oral.

Question 61

The proper abbreviation for microgram​ is:

Answer 61

mcg.

Question 62

Which of these statements BEST describes the motion to be used when preparing the site of an injection with an alcohol​ swab?

Answer 62

Concentric​ circles, moving outward from the center

Question 63

Which of the following routes of drug administration is a percutaneous​ route?

Answer 63

Intravenous

Question 64

Which statement below BEST describes the term aseptic as it applies to administering​ drugs?

Answer 64

Techniques of preparing and administering medications that minimize the​ patient’s risk of infection

Question 65

Which of these techniques should be used when drawing a medication from an​ ampule?

Answer 65

Hold the ampule upright and tap the top prior to breaking off the top.

Question 66

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Advanced​ EMT’s authorization to give​medications?

Answer 66

Advanced EMTs can only give​ medications, including prescription and​ over-the-counter medications, on the order of a physician.

Question 67

You receive an order to​ d/c an IV infusion. You​ should:

Answer 67

stop administering the IV drip.

Question 68

All of the following contribute to significant numbers of deaths related to medication administration errors
EXCEPT​:

Answer 68

giving a drug to a patient who has taken it previously.

Question 69

Which of the following is an enteral route of medication​ administration?

Answer 69

Oral

Question 70

When you receive a verbal order from a​ physician:

Answer 70

all of the above

Question 71

Which of these is considered the minimum acceptable solution for preparing an injection​ site?

Answer 71

Isopropyl alcohol

Question 72

The order​ “0.4 mg NTG SL q 5​ minutes, up to 3 doses​ prn” means you​ should:

Answer 72

give a patient a​ 0.4-mg nitroglycerin tablet by placing it under his​ tongue, and repeat the dosage up to two more​ times, but only if the​ patient’s condition requires it.

Question 73

Which of these statements BEST describes Advanced​ EMT’s obligation with regard to a medication order he or she believes is​ incorrect?

Answer 73

They must question any order that does not seem right and​ ultimately, if they believe the order to be incorrect or​ dangerous, refuse to carry out the order.

Question 74

A patient is to receive 0.5 g of 50 percent dextrose per kg of body weight. The patient weighs 110 lbs. The concentration of 50 percent dextrose is 50​ g/100 mL. How many mL of medication must you​ give?

Answer 74

50

Question 75

All of the following phases of drug administration have been identified as being particularly​ error-prone
EXCEPT​:

Answer 75

selecting an IV infusion pump.

Question 76

Drugs absorbed through the mucous membrane beneath the tongue are classified as being administered through the​ _________ route.

Answer 76

parenteral

Question 77

What does the abbreviation prn mean when used in a drug or treatment​ order?

Answer 77

Give as needed

Question 78

A drug order reads​ “administer 20​ gtts/min.” You should therefore administer 20​ ________ of the drug every minute.

Answer 78

drops

Question 79

When an Advanced EMT is​ pre-authorized to give medications to patients who meet certain criteria without first consulting with a​ physician, that form of authorization is called​ a(n):

Answer 79

standing order.

Question 80

Which of these choices is a disadvantage of sublingual administration of​ drugs?

Answer 80

Few drugs are suitable for that route of administration.

Question 81

Which route of medication administration allows an almost immediate onset of​ action?

Answer 81

Intravenous

Question 82

Which of these terms is used to describe the condition in which IV fluids or medications have leaked out of a vein and into the surrounding​ tissues?

Answer 82

Infiltration

Question 83

Which of the following IV fluids would provide a small amount of​ carbohydrates?

Answer 83

5 percent dextrose in water

Question 84

Drugs given by mouth are classified as being given by the​ ______________ route of medication administration.

Answer 84

sublingual

Question 85

You have received an order to administer normal saline to a patient at a rate of 1​ mL/min using microdrip tubing​ (60 gtts/mL). How many drops per minute are required to achieve that infusion​ rate?

Answer 85

60

Question 86

When setting up an IV​ line, how much fluid should be allowed to fill the drip chamber of the​ tubing?

Answer 86

one third to one half the volume of the chamber

Question 87

When giving an IM injection in the​ deltoid, what is the maximum volume of medication to be given in an adult​ patient?

Answer 87

1 mL

Question 88

You see a drug order that​ says, “Give 0.4 mg NTG SL q 5 min to max 3​ doses.” This​ means:

Answer 88

give a​ 0.4-mg tablet of nitroglycerin every five minutes up to a total of 1.2 mg of the drug.

Question 89

When a drug is given through a route that requires the drug to be absorbed through the hepatic portal system prior to reaching the systemic​ circulation, that drug has been given by the​ __________ route.

Answer 89

enteral

Question 90

Which of these solutions is recommended for use with or instead of isopropyl alcohol when preparing an IV​ site?

Answer 90

Povidone iodine

Question 91

If you receive an order to administer a drug by​ SVN, the intent is for you to administer the drug by which of these​ routes?

Answer 91

inhalation

Question 92

What is the most common type of medication administration error that results in​ death?

Answer 92

Giving the wrong dose of a medication

Question 93

Which type of crystalloid solution is preferred for fluid replacement in the prehospital​ setting?

Answer 93

Isotonic

Question 94

Which term is used to describe an IV fluid that contains large protein or starch molecules that remain in the vascular space and attract interstitial fluid into the vascular​ space?

Answer 94

Colloid

Question 95

Which of the following IV fluids is the MOST commonly used solution in the prehospital​ setting?

Answer 95

0.9 percent sodium chloride

Question 96

Which type of IV fluid would cause water to enter red blood cells in large​ quantities, possibly causing them to​ burst?

Answer 96

Hypotonic

Question 97

Which of the following describes the action of a hypotonic IV​ fluid?

Answer 97

A hypotonic IV fluid causes a shift of fluid from the intravascular space to the intracellular space.

Question 98

Epinephrine​ 1:1000 is primarily administered by the Advanced EMT to patients who are​ experiencing:

Answer 98

anaphylaxis

Question 99

A​ 31-year-old man who was jogging outdoors on a​ hot, muggy morning complains of weakness and nausea. His skin is pale and dry. Vitals include​ pulse, 124 beats per minute and​ regular; blood​ pressure, 108/72​ mmHg; and​ respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Which IV fluid would be the MOST appropriate when treating this​ patient?

Answer 99

0.9 percent sodium chloride

Question 100

Which component of the patient assessment process always comes​ first?

Answer 100

scene​ size-up

Question 101

In the primary​ assessment, you have determined that a patient with chest pain that began at rest is not oxygenating well. The next step in assessment​ is:

Answer 101

rapid medical exam.

Question 102

The process of collecting and analyzing data and then using it to make patient care decisions is​ called:

Answer 102

using the​ assessment-based management approach.

Question 103

Which statement BEST represents the model of clinical problem solving for Advanced​ EMTs?

Answer 103

Effective approaches to problem solving are required in addition to experience and knowledge.

Question 104

Which of the following would be criteria for transport to a trauma​ center?

Answer 104

a trauma patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12

Question 105

Which of these is an advantage of the​ hypothetico-deductive method of clinical problem​ solving?

Answer 105

It is structured and deliberate.

Question 106

Which statement describes the overall goal of patient​ assessment?

Answer 106

to make the best decisions possible about patient care in consideration of the particular situation

Question 107

The first goal of the patient assessment process is to answer which of the following​ questions?

Answer 107

Is it safe to approach the patient and begin care in the​ patient’s current​ location?

Question 108

During a scene​ size-up, you determine that a patient is awake and alert and appears to be in no immediate distress. You​ should:

Answer 108

introduce yourself

Question 109

Which of the following BEST describes the concept of differential​ diagnoses?

Answer 109

a​ narrowed-down list of a few of the most likely causes of the​ patient’s condition

Question 110

Which of these decisions is the reassessment process designed to help you​ make?

Answer 110

whether you should change your initial treatment plan

Question 111

Which pitfall in the​ decision-making process occurs when an Advanced EMT accepts the first​acceptable, but not necessarily​ optimal, solution when performing a patient​ assessment?

Answer 111

satisficing

Question 112

The tendency to over treat patients is known​ as:

Answer 112

commission bias.

Question 113

At what point in the patient assessment process should you form a general impression of the nature of the​ situation?

Answer 113

scene​ size-up

Question 114

Which situation BEST illustrates the clinical reasoning pitfall of​ anchoring?

Answer 114

ascribing more importance to an early finding in the history or assessment and paying insufficient attention to later findings

Question 115

While performing a primary​ assessment, you determine that a patient with a history of respiratory problems is experiencing wheezing. You​ should:

Answer 115

address the​ patient’s breathing problems.

Question 116

When does the patient assessment process​ end?

Answer 116

When care of the patient has been transferred to other health care personnel.

Question 117

To determine the cause of the​ patient’s signs and​ symptoms, the Advanced EMT must search for the underlying issues. What is this process​ called?

Answer 117

clinical problem solving

Question 118

At what point in the assessment process should you have made an initial determination of whether the patient is critical or​ noncritical?

Answer 118

primary assessment

Question 119

A​ patient’s statement of the reason he or she is seeking medical attention is known as​ the:

Answer 119

chief complaint.

Question 120

Which of these is considered a critical criterion for trauma triage in an adult​ patient?

Answer 120

an adult fall from a height greater than 20 feet

Question 121

At what point in the assessment process is a determination made about the mechanism of​ injury?

Answer 121

scene​ size-up

Question 122

What is the last step of the patient assessment​ process?

Answer 122

reassessment

Question 123

After determining that your patient is not suffering from any threats to​ life, you obtain baseline vital signs and then turn your attention to the area of the​ patient’s chief complaint. Which phase of the assessment process are you now​ performing?

Answer 123

focused physical exam

Question 124

A​ patient’s eyes are closed and he does not open them as you​ approach, and he does not respond when you​ ask, “Sir, can you hear​ me?” When you shake his​ shoulder, he opens his eyes but does not say anything. This patient is best​ classified, according to the AVPU​ scale, as:

Answer 124

responding to pain.

Question 125

Which of the following patients are most likely experiencing an upper airway​ obstruction?

Answer 125

A​ 24-year-old male who is awake and breathing with a​ high-pitched expiratory stridor after being stung by a bee

Question 126

For which of the following​ patients, although the primary assessment indicates they are a high priority for​transport, should you consider​ on-scene stabilization prior to​ transport?

Answer 126

An unresponsive diabetic who has a blood glucose level of 38​ mg/dL

Question 127

Which scenario BEST represents effective​ teamwork?

Answer 127

Having​ pre-established roles and open communication between all those on the team

Question 128

Which of the patients below can you classify as a high priority for immediate intervention and transport on the basis of primary assessment​ findings?

Answer 128

A​ 58-year-old female complaining of shortness of breath. She is awake and anxious. You can hear wheezing without a stethoscope. Heart rate is 112 beats per​ minute, skin is cool and​ moist, and respirations are 30 breaths per minute.

Question 129

What is a​ high-pitched upper airway sound that occurs when there is partial obstruction of the upper​airway?

Answer 129

Stridor

Question 130

In which of the following patients should you use a​ bag-valve-mask device to provide or assist with​ventilations?

Answer 130

A​ 17-year-old girl with asthma who has a minimal tidal​ volume, irregular gasping respirations of about 8 breaths per​ minute, and who responds only to painful stimuli.

Question 131

Which component of the patient assessment process always comes​ first?

Answer 131

Scene​ size-up

Question 132

To determine whether an infant has an adequate​ pulse, you should assess his​ ______ pulse.

Answer 132

brachial

Question 133

As you approach a patient who has collapsed on the floor in his​ home, you see that he is not​ moving, his skin color looks​ cyanotic, and he is taking​ irregular, gasping breaths. Your first action should be​ to:

Answer 133

check the carotid pulse.

Question 134

You are approaching a young adult male who was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He is lying on the ground and appears to be unresponsive. There is obvious and significant blood loss from an open fracture of his right leg. After ensuring traffic is controlled and there are no other​ hazards, you put on exam gloves. Your next action should be​ to:

Answer 134

check a carotid pulse.

Question 135

As you approach a female in her​ 40s, she turns her head to look at you. Using the AVPU​ scale, you should classify this patient​ as:

Answer 135

alert

Question 136

Which of the following sounds is a specific indication of fluid in the upper​ airway?

Answer 136

Gurgling

Question 137

Which patient criterion below indicates that an injured patient should be transported to a trauma​ center, if​available?

Answer 137

Any patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12

Question 138

Assessing the nature of the illness or mechanism of injury is part of​ the:

Answer 138

scene​ size-up

Question 139

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the primary​ assessment?

Answer 139

Rapid physical exam

Question 140

A young adult male has been shot in the lower abdomen. He is​ awake, pale,​ sweaty, and anxious. He is​saying, “Help​ me, man. Come​ on, get me to a​ hospital.” What poses the MOST immediate threat to this​patient’s life?

Answer 140

Blood loss

Question 141

Which of the following is an indication of respiratory​ distress?

Answer 141

Wheezing

Question 142

What condition does NOT require that the patient be transported without​ delay?

Answer 142

Radial pulse of 48 beats per minute

Question 143

Upon entering the home on a call for a reported sick person you are directed to a family room where two small children are watching cartoons on the television with the volume above conversational​ level, while a​ third, older child plays a noisy video game on a tablet. The​ patient, who appears to be the​ children’s mother, is lying on her side on a​ sofa, knees drawn up. You detect an odor of vomit. You introduce yourself and ask what is​ wrong, but you​ can’t understand the response over the volume of the cartoons and video game. Which action is MOST likely to help you gain control of the​ scene?

Answer 143

D.Your partner says to the​ children, “Hey​ guys, we need to talk to your mom for a few​ minutes, so I need you to turn off the cartoons and games for a little​ while.”

Question 144

What is the term used to describe​ shallow, gasping breaths that are inadequate to move air in and out of the​ airway?

Answer 144

Agonal respirations

Question 145

All of the following are primary assessment findings that should lead to immediate categorization of a patient as a high priority for treatment and transport​ EXCEPT:

Answer 145

anxiety or nervousness.

Question 146

What position would be BEST to place unresponsive patients in who are​ breathing, but who may not be able to protect their​ airway, in the absence of spinal​ precautions?

Answer 146

Recovery position

Question 147

While performing a primary​ assessment, you note that a patient has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute with a shallow tidal volume. How should you​ proceed?

Answer 147

Immediately begin​ CPAP, if​ indicated, or assisted ventilations by​ bag-valve-mask.

Question 148

Which of these is the first step in gaining control of a​ scene?

Answer 148

Perform a good scene​ size-up.

Question 149

Which of the following positions puts a patient who has an altered mental​ status, but who does not have an advanced airway device in​ place, at highest risk of aspiration of fluids in the​ airway?

Answer 149

Supine

Question 150

During the primary assessment of a patient with a significant mechanism of​ injury, which of the following is essential to a careful assessment of​ circulation?

Answer 150

Exposing the patient to look for major bleeding

Question 151

Which of the following findings indicates fluid in the alveoli or small​ airways?

Answer 151

Crackles

Question 152

What term is used to describe the energy of objects in motion​ that, when transferred to the body in significant​ amounts, can result in​ injury?

Answer 152

Kinetic energy

Question 153

When you arrive on the scene of a call for difficulty​ breathing, you find a​ middle-aged woman sitting in a​chair, leaning forward in​ “tripod” position. She is breathing about 24 times per minute with increased effort. There is no obvious cyanosis. When she tries to speak to answer your​ questions, she can only manage three or four words without taking a breath. Which of these is the highest priority in the care of this​ patient?

Answer 153

Administer supplemental oxygen

Question 154

After obtaining permission from a family​ member, you look through the​ patient’s kitchen cabinets for medications. In your​ search, you discover a glucometer. What meaning should you assign to that​information?

Answer 154

Someone in the house may be a diabetic

Question 155

A teenager has been struck just above the eye with a baseball that was hit with enough force to create a laceration. The type of trauma sustained in that situation is​ ___________ trauma.

Answer 155

blunt

Question 156

An elderly man is sitting on the edge of a​ chair, leaning forward in​ “tripod” position. He has some cyanosis of his​ lips, and you can hear wheezing without using a stethoscope. What should be done​ first?

Answer 156

Administer supplemental oxygen by nonrebreather mask.

Question 157

You are transporting a​ 53-year-old woman who is awake and oriented and is complaining of nausea and fatigue. A few minutes into the trip to the​ hospital, the patient complains of feeling faint. Which​ finding, if noted while repeating the primary​ assessment, makes the patient a higher​ priority?

Answer 157

The patient has become pale and is sweating profusely.

Question 158

Which of these findings indicates respiratory​ distress?

Answer 158

Requiring effort to exhale

Question 159

A patient who collapsed while in line in the grocery store does not open his​ eyes, move, or make any sound to your voice or to pinching his trapezius muscle. Using the AVPU​ scale, how would this patient be​ categorized?

Answer 159

Unresponsive

Question 160

Which of the following patients can be said to have a patent​ airway?

Answer 160

The patient is awake and speaking normally.

Question 161

An adult male is found lying in the street with a single gunshot wound to the head with apparent entry just below the right eye. He has gurgling agonal respirations and a regular pulse estimated to be about 60 beats per minute and strong. External bleeding is minimal to moderate. Which of these actions has the highest priority in caring for this​ patient?

Answer 161

Suctioning the airway

Question 162

A young woman has a large laceration on her​ forehead, sustained when she was struck with a bottle during a fight. The laceration is bleeding freely. The patient is awake. Based on the environment and her slurred​ speech, you suspect she may be under the influence of alcohol. What should you do​ first?

Answer 162

Use an absorbent dressing to control bleeding from the wound.

Question 163

As you are assessing a patient who says he was shot in the​ arm, you notice that there is blood soaked into the front of his​ shirt, as well as his pants. The MOST important action for you to take is​ to:

Answer 163

cut away the clothing as part of your primary assessment.

Question 164

Which of these skin findings should make you MOST concerned about the adequacy of a​ patient’s circulation?

Answer 164

Paleness

Question 165

A college student is found lying outside at a party where alcohol and drugs are being used. Her eyes are closed. You kneel next to her and​ say, “Cammie, are you​ alright?” The patient moans and says something incoherent. Using the AVPU​ scale, the patient is best categorized​ as:

Answer 165

verbal

Question 166

Your unit is the first to arrive on the scene of a motorcycle collision in which the driver struck the​ driver’s side of a sedan. The motorcycle driver was ejected and landed on the opposite side of the sedan. The driver of the sedan appears to be injured. There is a small amount of fluid leaking from the motorcycle. Which of these actions should you do before leaving your​ vehicle?

Answer 166

Look for​ on-coming traffic

Question 167

Which problem is indicated by hearing wheezes in a​ patient’s breath​ sounds?

Answer 167

Constriction of the bronchioles

Question 168

Which of these conditions trigger inspiration in healthy​ patients?

Answer 168

Increased carbon dioxide level in the blood

Question 169

A​ 7-year-old boy was running while chewing a large piece of bubble gum when he began coughing and gagging. When you arrive he is coughing and​ anxious, but there is adequate airflow. His respiratory rate is difficult to assess because of coughing. His skin is​ flushed, warm, and​ moist; the heart rate is 128 beats per​ minute, and the
SpO2 is 95 percent on room air. What is the MOST reasonable plan for treating this​ patient?

Answer 169

Transport without further agitating the patient

Question 170

To insert an oropharyngeal​ airway, it is properly​ measured:=

Answer 170

from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw.

Question 171

Which abnormal respiratory sound should alert you to the possibility of inadequate breathing due to narrowing of the​ bronchioles?

Answer 171

Wheezing

Question 172

Breath sounds may be auscultated as high as​ the:

Answer 172

shoulders.

Question 173

Stridor is an indication of which of the following​ problems?

Answer 173

Laryngeal edema

Question 174

The typical amount of pressure that provides adequate PEEP for MOST patients when using CPAP for prehospital problems is​ ______ cm
H2O.

Answer 174

10

Question 175

An elderly man complains of​ “having trouble catching my​ breath.” He is​ alert, seems a little​ anxious, and has​ pink, warm, dry skin. He is breathing 24 times per minute and pauses after every five or six words for a breath. There is no accessory muscle​ use, no​ cyanosis, and no abnormal respiratory sounds that can be heard without a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry reading is 92 percent. How would you classify the level of hypoxia the patient is​ experiencing?

Answer 175

Mild

Question 176

Which device should be avoided in the management of a patient who has significant injuries to the midfacial​ area?

Answer 176

Nasopharyngeal airway

Question 177

In most​ circumstances, an​ adult’s breathing is considered inadequate once the SpO2
drops below​_____ percent.

Answer 177

95

Question 178

Which statement BEST explains the concept of​ PEEP?

Answer 178

It maintains a certain level of pressure in the airway during expiration to prevent atelectasis.

Question 179

You are eating breakfast with your​ partner, who is seven months​ pregnant, when she begins to choke on a piece of her breakfast sandwich. She is not able to speak and is panicking. You​ should:

Answer 179

position yourself behind your​ partner, position your fist over her​ midsternum, grasp your fist with your other​ hand, and perform chest thrusts.

Question 180

normal​ breathing?

Answer 180

Negative pressure during inspiration pulls the esophagus​ closed, limiting air entry into the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 181

Which process is BEST described as the flow of air into and out of the​ airways?

Answer 181

Ventilation

Question 182

Which of the following requires immediate assistance with​ ventilations?

Answer 182

A​ 30-year-old man who was thrown from a horse and is unable to move his arms or legs and who has movement of the abdomen with​ breathing, but not of the chest wall. He is awake with respirations of 30 breaths per minute.

Question 183

Oxygen cylinders are considered full when the pressure within them is​ _______________ pounds per square inch.

Answer 183

2000

Question 184

Which of the following is easily relieved by a manual airway maneuver to open the​ airway?

Answer 184

Snoring

Question 185

A patient whose

SpO2 is less than​ ______ percent should receive supplemental oxygen.

Answer 185

95

Question 186

What is the proper rate of artificial ventilation by​ bag-valve-mask device for an adult​ patient?

Answer 186

10 to 12 breaths per minute

Question 187

A​ 62-year-old woman with COPD is complaining of increased shortness of breath. She is alert and has scattered wheezing and rhonchi throughout her lung fields. Her vital signs are heart rate 104 beats per minute​ (irregular), respiratory rate 24 breaths per​ minute, blood pressure​ 144/90 mmHg. She is on oxygen at home by nasal cannula at three​ L/min and has an
SpO2
of 89 percent. Which of the following would be an acceptable way to administer oxygen to this​ patient?

Answer 187

Nonrebreather mask at 15​ L/min

Question 188

Which of the following indicates the need to use a manual airway maneuver to open the​ airway?

Answer 188

Snoring

Question 189

Which complication of positive pressure ventilation is eliminated when ventilating a patient with a properly placed endotracheal​ tube?

Answer 189

Gastric distention

Question 190

A patient with asthma presents with wheezing. He is alert and slightly​ anxious, breathing 20 times per minute with a prolonged expiratory phase. His
SpO2 is 96 percent on room air. His capnometry reading is 47 mmHg. Which intervention BEST meets the​ patient’s needs?

Answer 190

Administration of a bronchodilator

Question 191

What is the term that describes the amount of air moved in each breath multiplied by the respiratory​rate?

Answer 191

Minute volume

Question 192

Which of the following complications of​ bag-valve-mask ventilations can be eliminated with the use of a non-visualized​ airway?

Answer 192

Inadequate mask seal

Question 193

Which sound indicates the need for oropharyngeal​ suctioning?

Answer 193

Gurgling

Question 194

Which statement regarding the anatomical differences between pediatric and adult airways is​ correct?

Answer 194

The​ child’s tongue takes up a proportionally larger space in the oral cavity.

Question 195

A patient with agonal respirations would be BEST described as​ experiencing:

Answer 195

respiratory failure.

Question 196

Which of these mechanisms is used to ensure that the regulator is sealed to the portable oxygen cylinder valve to safely maintain pressure in the delivery​ system?

Answer 196

Plastic washer

Question 197

Which of the following statements about pulse oximetry is MOST​ accurate?

Answer 197

Pulse oximetry is an indirect measurement hemoglobin saturation of oxygen.

Question 198

A patient with a history of heart problems presents with difficulty breathing and crackles in the lower lung fields. She is awake and anxious. Her skin is pale and​ moist, and she has slight cyanosis of her lips and nail beds. She has an
SpO2 of 88 percent and respirations of 24 breaths per minute. Which of the following is indicated in the care of this​ patient?

Answer 198

Supplemental oxygen by nonrebreather mask

Question 199

Which of the following can lead to severe lower airway obstruction in​ infants?

Answer 199

Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 200

You are attempting to auscultate breath sounds on a patient who is wearing several layers of clothing and a large winter jacket. In order to obtain the most accurate assessment using your stethoscope you​ should

Answer 200

remove as many layers as possible while maintaining warmth of the patient.