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Captain > ADVERSE WEATHER FOM > Flashcards

ADVERSE WEATHER FOM Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA)?

A

measurement of contamination type and depth, to determine expected braking capability for runway.

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2
Q

When is a runway considered “Wet” based on TALPA specific definitions?

A

more than 25% of the runway is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8 in (3 mm) or less in depth.

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3
Q

Q: What does it mean for a runway to be “Slippery When Wet” according to TALPA specific definitions?

A

when wet when the amount of rubber accumulation on a wet runway reduces braking action (BA) and RwyCCs to a lesser value

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4
Q

Q: How is a runway defined as “Contaminated” as per TALPA specific definitions?

A

more than 25% of the runway surface area covered by more than 1/8 in (3 mm) of standing water or slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

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5
Q

Q: What is the minimum runway width for all operations according to the provided information?

A

100 ft.

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6
Q

Q: What are the minimum cleared widths applicable to SkyWest aircraft as per the information provided?

A

(1) CRJ 200 – 75 ft
(2) CRJ 700, CRJ 900 — 80ft

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7
Q

Q: What does the term “FICON” stand for in aviation terminology?

A

Field Condition NOTAM.

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8
Q

Q: What information does a FICON NOTAM typically contain?

A

contains runway and taxiway surface conditions.

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9
Q

What is Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM)?

A

assess runway conditions and to assign a numerical value (Runway Condition Code – RwyCC)

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10
Q

Q: What are RwyCCs used for according to the provided information?

A

A: identify the runway third with the most limiting contaminant.

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11
Q

Q: How are RwyCCs abbreviated in the takeoff and landing report (TLR)?

A

A: RwyCCs are abbreviated as an R

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12
Q

Q: What does a RwyCC value of 0 represent based on the information provided?

A

A: A RwyCC value of 0 represents NIL BA and results in the immediate closure of the runway or taxiway until surface conditions can be improved.

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13
Q

RSC 02 5 / 3 / 3 50 PCT 1/8IN DRY SNOW AND 20 PCT COMPACTED SNOW, 40 PCT 1/4IN DRY SNOW, 25 PCT COMPACTED SNOW AND 25 PCT 1IN DRY SNOW OVER COMPACTED SNOW. 150FT WIDTH. 3IN SNOW DRIFTS 50FT SOUTHEAST FM CL. ICE PATCHES 1200FT FROM THR 22. LOOSE SAND APPLIED AR 1400. REMAINING WIDTH COMPACTED SNOW 3FT SNOWBANKS 5FT OUTSIDE SOUTHEAST AND NORTHWEST RWY EDGE. VALID FEB 14 1436 – FEB 14 2236

A
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14
Q

Q: How is RwyCC upgraded according to the TALPA guidelines?

A

A: RwyCC is only upgraded from a 0 or 1 and then only to a maximum of a 3.

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15
Q

Q: How long may a FICON NOTAM be effective for?

A

A: A FICON NOTAM may be effective for up to 24 hours.

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16
Q

What is the Landing Performance Hierarchy

A

1) RwyCC values
2) contaminant type and BA shall be used.
3) USE ACARS; however, the TLR may be used at PIC discretion.
4) The most restrictive RwyCC 5/4/3, the landing assessment is predicated on a 3.
5) RwyCCs may be used bidirectionally.
6) When there is a discrepancy between a PIREP and RwyCC, the most conservative

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17
Q

2) FICON / RSC NOTAM may contain as many as two different contaminants for each third of the runway. Contaminants in the same runway third are separated by the word “AND”. Individual runway thirds are separated by a comma. For example:
ORD RWY 04L FICON 3/5/2 50 PRCT WET AND 50 PRCT 1/4 IN WET SN OVER COMPACTED SN, 50 PRCT WET AND 25 PRCT 1/8 IN WET SN OVER COMPACTED SN, 10 PRCT 1/4 IN SLUSH OVER ICE AND 75 PRCT 1/4 IN SLUSH. 1610251625–1610261625.

A
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18
Q

when the PIC and/or dispatcher believe circumstances dictate using more restrictive performance. what table is used:

A
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19
Q

Q: When are takeoffs and landings prohibited according to the provided guidelines?

A

a) Crosswinds exceed t
b) NIL BA is reported.
c) The runway is contaminated by Wet Ice, Slush over Ice, Water over Compacted Snow, or Dry Snow/Wet Snow over Ice with RwyCC values less than 1 or BA Nil.

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20
Q

Q: When is an alternate airport required to be listed according to the provided context?

A

when RwyCC values less than 3 are reported in any third of the intended landing runway at the destination.

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21
Q

Q: Are alternates required at airports with more than one suitable runway?

A

not required when at least one suitable runway has reported RwyCC values of 3 or higher in every third.

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22
Q

Q: What precautions should be considered for takeoff and landing on contaminated runways?
greatest possible flap setting

A

Plan for a firm touchdown
Use braking, as necessary, as dictated by runway conditions or circumstances.

b) The use of reverse thrust . use of reverse thrust at low speed when dry snow is present on the runway may obscure visibility to near zero.

c) Do not attempt to exit a slippery runway or taxiway until positive braking is assured, nose wheel steering is effective, and the aircraft has decelerated to a safe speed to prevent skidding.

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23
Q

What are the conditions under which braking is prohibited upon landing according to the anti-skid system?

A

until wheel spin-up or a time delay, whichever occurs first, after the main struts are compressed (on the squat switch).

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24
Q

How does the anti-skid system manage braking at high speeds?

A

Differential braking is limited and disabled at taxi speeds.

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25
Q

How does the anti-skid system ensure maximum braking capability?

A

It monitors the speed of all four main wheels and releases brake pressure automatically when a wheel starts to lock up.

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26
Q

What action is recommended to achieve the maximum benefit from the anti-skid system?

A

Maximum brake pedal travel must be used.

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27
Q

What consequence arises from varying the pressure applied to the brake pedals after they are initially applied?

A

Answer: Varying pedal pressure requires the anti-skid system to recalculate wheel speed equations, resulting in a subsequent loss of skid protection.

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28
Q

When is it appropriate to discontinue braking according to the anti-skid system, and what alternative action should be taken?

A

Discontinue braking during hydroplaning or when the airplane is not “tracking,” and allow aerodynamic braking. After decelerating 10-15 knots, re-apply the brakes and check for normal braking response, avoiding pumping the brakes.

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29
Q

What operational techniques are recommended for landings on very wet runways to decrease aircraft landing roll?

A

minimum “safe” touchdown speed, early runway contact, early use of spoilers (when applicable), and, when possible, wheel brakes and reverse thrust are recommended.

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30
Q

What is severe icing, and how is it defined in aviation?

A

conditions outside those for which the aircraft is certificated and deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard.

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31
Q

What is the protocol regarding flying into known severe icing conditions

A

An aircraft must not be flown into known severe icing conditions.

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32
Q
  1. What are the requirements regarding dispatching and operating an aircraft to an airport experiencing freezing drizzle or freezing rain?
A

o Yes, but an alternate airport must be specified on the dispatch/flight release.

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33
Q

light or moderate freezing drizzle, or light freezing rain is actually occurring. Can you land and take off?

A

Yes
take off within HOT

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34
Q

Can you Land or take off when heavy freezing drizzle or moderate or heavy freezing rain is actually occurring.

A

NO

35
Q

What is the significance of freezing precipitation reported without a qualifier?

A

considered moderate.

36
Q

How do ASOS and AWOS ATIS report freezing drizzle and freezing rain, and what additional steps are necessary to confirm the presence of freezing precipitation?

A

ASOS and AWOS ATIS report freezing drizzle and freezing rain when the temperature is 0°C or less and precipitation is falling. However, additional steps such as PIREPs or other briefing information must be used to confirm whether a condition of freezing precipitation is actually occurring.

37
Q

What is the significance of the precipitation designator “UP” in a METAR report, and how does it impact flight operations?

A

“UP” (Unknown Precipitation) indicates the possibility of freezing precipitation. However, flight operations are not necessarily prohibited based solely on this indication. The decision to proceed with flight operations depends on the PIC’s determination of operational feasibility, as outlined in the provided guidelines.

38
Q

How is small hail defined and reported in METAR observations, and what happens when the size of hail is 1/4 inch or greater?

A

Hail is considered “Small Hail” when size is not specified

When hail is 1/4 inch or greater, size will be described in remarks section at the end of METAR. Hail that is 1/4 inch or greater is not considered small hail.

GR

39
Q

Can you fly in

(1) Freezing drizzle/rain (FZDZ, FZRA)
(2) Ice pellets (PL)
(3) Snow pellets (GS)
(4) Snow grains (SG)
(5) Ice crystals (IC)
(6) Heavy snow (+SN)
(7) Small hail, less than 1/4 inch in size (GR)
(8) Hail, 1/4 inch or greater in size (GR)

(9) Freezing fog (FZFG)
(10) Unknown precipitation (UP)

A

Yes

40
Q

can you take off in

b) Takeoff in:
(1) Light and moderate freezing drizzle (-FZDZ, FZDZ)
(2) Light freezing rain (-FZRA)
(3) Snow pellets (GS)
(4) Small hail, less than 1/4 inch in size (GR)
(5) Light and moderate ice pellets (-PL, PL)
(6) Snow grains (SG)
(7) Ice crystals (IC)
(8) Heavy snow (+SN) (CRJ 700/900 and ERJ 175 only)
(9) Freezing fog (FZFG)
(10) Unknown precipitation (UP)

A

Yes

41
Q

Can you land in?

c) Land in:
(1) Light and moderate freezing drizzle (-FZDZ, FZDZ)
(2) Light freezing rain (-FZRA)
(3) Light and moderate ice pellets (-PL, PL)
(4) Snow pellets (GS)
(5) Small hail, less than 1/4 inch in size(GR)
(6) Snow grains (SG)
(7) Ice crystals (IC)
(8) Heavy snow (+SN)
(9) Freezing fog (FZFG)
(10) Unknown precipitation (UP)

A

Yes

42
Q

Can you tak off

(1) Severe ice
(2) Heavy freezing drizzle (+FZDZ)
(3) Moderate/heavy freezing rain (FZRA, +FZRA)
(4) Heavy Snow (+SN) (CRJ 700/900, ERJ 175 are authorized to takeoff in Heavy Snow)
(5) Hail, 1/4 inch and greater in size (GR)

A

No

43
Q

can you land in.
(1) Severe ice
(2) Heavy freezing drizzle (+FZDZ)
(3) Moderate/heavy freezing rain (FZRA, +FZRA)
(4) Hail, 1/4 inch and greater in size (GR)

A

no

44
Q

do you need alternate?

a) Freezing drizzle (FZDZ)
b) Freezing rain (FZRA)
c) Heavy Snow (+SN)
d) Hail (GR)
e) Freezing Fog (FZFG)
f) Unknown precipitation (UP)

A

yes

45
Q

How is freezing fog classified in terms of precipitation type, and what impact does it have on the dispatch or flight operations of an aircraft?

A

not categorized as a precipitation type. As a result, its presence does not hinder dispatch or flight operations of an aircraft.

46
Q

What temperature range is conducive to the formation of icing in clouds or visible moisture?

A

between +10°C and -40°C in clouds or visible moisture.

47
Q

At what temperature range does icing occur most frequently, and where is the highest risk located relative to the freezing point?

A

between +5°C and -10°C, with the highest risk just below the freezing point.

48
Q

Is there a specific altitude range where severe icing is typically found, and what is the usual thickness of severe icing areas?

A

Severe icing can occur at any altitude, but severe icing areas are typically several hundred feet thick.

49
Q

How does a change in altitude affect ice formation, and by what degree of altitude change does a noticeable decrease in ice formation occur?

A

A change in altitude of 1,000 feet can produce a noticeable decrease in ice formation.

50
Q

What is the general identification and operational guidance concerning cumulonimbus clouds?

A

Answer: Cumulonimbus clouds are commonly known as thunderstorm clouds, and it is mandatory to avoid them for all operations.

However, if trapped with no alternative or an inadvertent entry occurs, the PIC may proceed to operate in a cumulonimbus cloud or thunderstorm.

51
Q

How is a thunderstorm defined, and what are its primary causes?

A

A thunderstorm is defined as a storm containing lightning and thunder, caused by unstable atmospheric conditions.

52
Q

What atmospheric conditions lead to the development of thunderstorms, and what is the result of this atmospheric interaction?

A

Answer: When cold upper air sinks and warm, moist air rises, it leads to the development of storm clouds or thunderheads, resulting in thunderstorms.

53
Q

What are the characteristics and potential hazards associated with severe thunderstorms?

A

Severe thunderstorms can occur singularly, in clusters, or in lines, and they can bring heavy rains, flash floods, strong winds, lightning, hail, and tornadoes.

54
Q

What are the two basic types of thunderstorms?

A

The two basic types of thunderstorms are airmass and frontal.

55
Q

what are the radar techniques?

A

1) Use preset gain or, when this feature is not available, a constant low gain setting.

2) Take particular care to avoid storms with hooked fingers, figure six echoes, sharp rainfall gradients, and rapidly changing shapes.

3) Never fly under the overhang of a thunderstorm.

4) A 40-mile range setting is good, but frequent check of the longer ranges must be made to avoid flying into a blind alley.

56
Q

What action should be taken if an airplane experiences a static discharge or lightning strike?

A

Immediately check the airplane for any visible or functional indication of damage.

57
Q

What action should be taken if evidence of damage is found after a static discharge or lightning strike?

A

If evidence of damage is found that raises questions about the airworthiness of the airplane and the PIC deems it advisable, land at the nearest suitable airport.

58
Q

What checks should be made on the magnetic compass after a static discharge or lightning strike?

A

Check the magnetic compass for accuracy by comparing it with other flight deck indicators and by retracting and extending the landing gear.

59
Q

What communication and navigation checks should be made after a static discharge or lightning strike?

A

Check communication and navigation radios and radar equipment for normal operation.

60
Q

When in an area where considerable lightning is occurring or where a static discharge is probable, what precautions should be taken?

A

Turn up instrument lights.
Avoid looking out of the flight deck.

Set up the autopilot for use, especially if temporarily blinded.

61
Q

Severe or greater turbulence encounters must be recorded, in accordance with

A
62
Q

B. Standard Terminology for Turbulence Duration

A
  • Occasional - Less than 1/3 of the time
  • Intermittent - 1/3 to 2/3 of the time
  • Continuous - More than 2/3 of the time
63
Q

light turbulence

A

slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw)

64
Q

Light Chop

A

Turbulence causing slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.

65
Q

Light turbulence affect on people

A

Occupants may feel a slight strain against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects may be displaced slightly. Food service may be conducted and little or no difficulty is walking

66
Q

Moderate Turbulence
Occupants feel definite strains against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult.

A

that is similar to Light Turbulence but with greater intensity. Changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually causes variations in indicated airspeed.

67
Q

Modorate Chop

A

Turbulence that is similar to Light Chop but of greater intensity. Causes rapid bumps or jolts without appreciable changes in aircraft altitude or attitude. Report as Moderate Chop.

68
Q

Moderate Turbulence
Occupants feel

A

definite strains against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult.

69
Q

Severe Turbulence Occupants are forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are tossed about. Food service and walking are impossible.

A

causing large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude. Usually causes
large variations in indicated airspeed. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control. Report as Severe Turbulence.

70
Q

Severe Turbulence

A

Occupants are forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are tossed about. Food service and walking are impossible.

71
Q

Extreme Turbulence in

A

which the aircraft is violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control. It may cause structural damage.

72
Q

Unexpected turbulence encounter – moderate or greater * Make PA:

A

“Flight attendant(s), be seated immediately; flight attendant(s), be seated immediately.”

  • Immediately stops service.
  • Leaves carts with brakes set.
  • Takes the nearest available seat (i.e., jumpseat, passenger seat) or drops to the floor of the aircraft.
73
Q

Turbulence improves/ subsides – moderate or greater * Make PA:

A

“Flight attendant(s) take your jumpseat; flight attendant(s), take your jumpseat.”

  • Move carts to galley and sets brake, but does not stow.
  • Occupies jumpseat and notifies flight deck.
74
Q

Turbulence ceases –
moderate or greater * Determines it is safe for flight attendant(s) to resume duties.
* Notifies flight attendant(s), using interphone, it is safe to resume duties and/or of any subsequent expected turbulence or crew actions.

  • Informs flight deck on the status of cabin and passengers.
  • Resumes duties at the direction of the PIC.
A
75
Q

turbulence advisories. coverage areas. when is it silent

A

1) Advisories:
a) On INIT and below FL200 are silent; above FL200 is a SELCAL
c) Are based on a distance setting of:
(1) 15 NM either side of planned route, horizontally, and
(2) 1,000 ft vertically (above and below).

76
Q

a) Several tools exist to determine whether or not the possibility of or actual mountain wave exists.

A
  • WSI PILOTBRIEF OPTIMA
  • Other Weather Reports
  • Pilot Reports
  • ATC
77
Q

a) Mitigation strategies when operating in an area of forecast or actual mountain wave include:

A
  • Deviation routes.
  • Altitude avoidance.
  • Active monitoring of the aircraft state.
  • Avoid holding or increase holding speed, as necessary.
78
Q

Regarding microbursts, what are their characteristics, where can they occur, and what precautionary measures should be taken by pilots during takeoffs or landings when microburst alerts are in effect at the airport?

A

most hazardous form of windshear.

They can occur anywhere convective weather conditions occur.

five percent of all thunderstorms produce a microburst.

a few hundred to 3,000 feet across.

not attempt takeoffs or landings. consider holding or diverting until conditions improve.

79
Q

A. Windshear - General Precautions

A

Avoidance is the best precaution.

80
Q

A. Windshear - Takeoff Precautions

A

1) Power setting - Maximum takeoff power
2) Runway selection - Use the longest runway that avoids suspected areas of windshear.
3) Takeoff flap selection - takeoff flap settings show the greater flap setting provides the best performance
4) Increased airspeed -

81
Q

A. Windshear - Approach Precautions

A

1) Stabilized approach
2) Power management - Minimize power reductions.
3) Runway selection - Use the most suitable runway .
1) Increased airspeed - Increased

82
Q

INCREASED TOUCHDOWN SPEEDS INCREASE STOPPING DISTANCE. AN ADDITIONAL 20 KNOTS AT TOUCHDOWN CAN INCREASE STOPPING DISTANCE BY

A

AS MUCH AS 25 PERCENT AND IN SOME CASES MAY EXCEED BRAKE ENERGY LIMITS.

83
Q

2) During volcanic ash encounters, smoke or dust accompanied by an acrid odor may be detected in the flight and passenger compartments. Additionally, the following may be observed:

A

a) Electrostatic discharge across the windshields.
b) Decreased visibility.
c) Bright glow in the engine inlets.
d) Engine malfunctions (e.g., stalls, fluctuating engine parameters, increasing ITT, torching from the tailpipe and flameout).

84
Q

FLIGHTS MUST BE PLANNED AND OPERATED AT LEAST _________ FROM ANY SUSPECTED AREAS OF VOLCANIC ASH.

A

100 NM

Captain (3 decks)

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