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Advancement study Flashcards

0
Q

P-485

A

Supply Manual

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1
Q

Hospital Corps Birthday

A

June 17, 1898

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2
Q

P-5132

A

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery Equipment Manual

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3
Q

BUMEDINST 6700.13G

A

Management and Procurement of AMAL and ADAL

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4
Q

AMAL & ADAL ___ day supplies, approved by _________. _________ reviews, distributes, manages AMAL/ADAL.

A

60 day supply, approval by Type Commanders, NAVMEDLOGCOM

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5
Q

NMLC will get approval from ________.

A

NAVCSYSCOM

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6
Q

NAVSUP 1220/2

A

Allowance Change Request

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7
Q

BUMED MED04-

A

Chief of BUMED, Logistics

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8
Q

Acquisitions > $100,000 approved by _______.

A

CNO

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9
Q

Acquisitions of $5,000 or more funded by _______.

A

NMLC

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10
Q

Acquisitions of < $5,000 funded by _______.

A

Ships OPTAR

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11
Q

Dental: flush unit water lines and hoses for _____ at beginning of day, ______ between patients, _____ at end of day.

A

1 minute at beginning of day, 30 seconds between patients, 30 seconds at end of day.

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12
Q

Aerosol particles 1.3 microns in diameter usually from dental procedures. Particles ______ can penetrate lungs.

A

<5 microns

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13
Q

______second rinses reduces up to _____ bacteria when using _____ chlorohexadine gluconate

A

3 10 second rinses, reduces bacteria up to 97%, 1.2% chlorohexadine gluconate

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14
Q

Open irrigation solution good for _____ for non-surgical use, good for ______ for surgical use.

A

1 week

1 day

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15
Q

Liquid infectious waste into ______ sinks.

A

Clinical

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16
Q

_______ technique for recapping needles.

A

Scoop

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17
Q

Wash cycle for laundry _____ minutes, water temp ______ or ______

A

25 minutes, 160 degrees F or 70 degrees C

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18
Q

Clean HVE System how often?

A

Once a week

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19
Q

________ bleach solution for mopping

A

1:100

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20
Q

BUMEDINST 6280.1B

A

Management of Infectious Waste

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21
Q

Non infectious waste

A

General waste

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22
Q

Infectious waste

A

Contains pathogens, needles

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23
Q

Segregate waste when?

A

At point of origin

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24
Q

Preferred method for liquid waste is _____.

A

Gelatinization

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25
Q

Limit storage of medical waste to______

A

7 days

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26
Q

BUMED Med 04

A

Approval is required before purchase or release of medical waste treatment

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27
Q

How many groups of regulated medical waste are there?

A

9 groups

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28
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #1?

A

Cultures, Stocks, and vaccines

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29
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #2?

A

Pathological waste

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30
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #3?

A

Blood and blood products

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31
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #4 and #7?

A

Sharps

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32
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #5?

A

Animal waste (from animals exposed to infectious agents during research, production of biologicals, or tasting in pharmaceuticals).

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33
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #6?

A

Isolation ways, including bedding from patients for animals from biosafety level 4 for BSL for agents.

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34
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #8?

A

Either, including fluids that are designated by the local infection control authority.

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35
Q

What is regulated medical waste group #9?

A

Chemotherapy trace wastes

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36
Q

Pathological waste must be stored how?

A

Store frozen after 24 hours can be stored for 30 days.

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37
Q

Replace sharps containers when?

A

When they are 3/4 full

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38
Q

What do you use to clean regulated medical waste with?

A

EPA solution, bleach 1:10 dilute with water

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39
Q

Washing your hands with gloves on increases porosity up to how much?

A

60%

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40
Q

HM manual chapter 7?

A

Oral anatomy and physiology

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41
Q

When does the first teeth, baby teeth, growth period Occur?

A

Occurs between fifth and sixth week of prenatal life

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42
Q

What are the three stages in the tooth growth period?

A

Bud stage, Cap Stage proliferation, Bill stage, Histo-differentiation

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43
Q

As the tooth begins the bell stage, it begins to take shape and form through a process called?

A

Mophodifferentiation

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44
Q

What is apposition?

A

It is the depositing of the matrix for the hard dental structures

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45
Q

What is eruption?

A

After the crown of the tooth has formed, The root begins to develop.

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46
Q

What is an Amelioblast?

A

Enamel forming cells

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47
Q

What is an odontoblast?

A

Dentin forming cell

48
Q

What is calcification?

A

Process of organic tissue becoming hardened, builds in layers

49
Q

What is Exfoliation?

A

When the root reabsorbed and the tooth falls out

50
Q

What is the makeup of the tooth?

A

Crown, root, enamel, Dentin, cementum, dental pulp

51
Q

What is an atatomic crown?

A

It’s encased in enamel

52
Q

What is a clinical crown?

A

Part exposed in the mouth

53
Q

What is the separation of a root called?

A

Furcation. 2 separations are called bifurcation

54
Q

What is enamel?

A

It’s translucent, calcified substance that covers the anatomical crown and protects the Dentin. It’s the hardest tissue in the body, can endure 100,000 PSI.

55
Q

What is enamel made up of?

A

96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic minerals, 3% water

56
Q

What is dentin?

A

Are just portion of the tooth, yellow in colorration. 70% inorganic matter, 30% organic matter and water

57
Q

What is cementum?

A

Covers the roots, anchors the teeth to tooth sockets

58
Q

What is dental pulp?

A

Where the formation of Dentin is

59
Q

What is Periodontium?

A

Tissue that surrounds and support the teeth collectively

60
Q

What is masticatory tissue?

A

Tissue that covers the hard palate and gingival. It is keratinized

61
Q

What is the hard palate structure?

A

Incisive papilla, Palitine Raphe, Palitine rugae

62
Q

What is gingiva?

A

Specialized masticatory mucosa, firm and resistant. Unattached gingiva. Gingival margin, gingival sulcus, epithelial attachment, interdental papilla

63
Q

What is the lining mucosa?

A

Specialize masticatory mucosa, firm and resistant

64
Q

The mouth is split into how many quadrants?

A

Four

65
Q

What does each quadrant of the mouth contain?

A

Central incisor, lateral incisor, cuspid, first bicuspid, second bicuspid, first, second, and third molar

66
Q

What is the universal teeth numbering system?

A

Teeth are numbered from right maxillary 3rd molar, #1, to right maxillary mandibular 3rd molar, #2

67
Q

What is the primary teeth numbering system?

A

Teeth are labeled a through K

68
Q

What are the different surfaces of the tooth?

A

Facial surface, mesial surface, distal surface, lingual surface, embrasure, Diastema

69
Q

What is the facial surface of the tooth?

A

Towards the lips or cheek

70
Q

What is the mesial surface of the tooth?

A

Proximal surface closest to the midline of the arch

71
Q

What is the distal surface of the tooth?

A

Oriented away from midline of the arch

72
Q

What is the lingual surface of the tooth?

A

Faces towards the tongue

73
Q

What is an embrasure?

A

Inter-proximal space that isn’t occupied

74
Q

What is the diastema?

A

Interproximal space with no contact point

75
Q

The bite-vertical overlap?

A

Extension of maxillary teeth over mandibular counterparts, overbite

76
Q

The bite-curve of spee?

A

Slight curved plane of the lower teeth

77
Q

That bight-curve of Wilson?

A

Concave curve of the mandibular arch

78
Q

The bite- Occlusional Plane?

A

Combination of the curve of Wilson and the curve of spee

79
Q

What is a dental angle class I?

A

Normal

80
Q

What is a dental angle class II?

A

Retrognathic (overbite)

81
Q

Is a dental angle class III?

A

Prognathic (underbite)

82
Q

What is Anadontia?

A

The absence of single or multiple teeth

83
Q

What is HM manual chapter 8?

A

Oral pathology

84
Q

Saliva averages how many micro organisms per milliliter?

A

750 million

85
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Localized collection of pus, commonly caused by bacterial infection

86
Q

What is a cyst?

A

Enclosed pouch or sac containing fluid or semi solid material

87
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

Disruption of the superficial covering of mucosa or skin

88
Q

What are vesicles?

A

Small elevation that contains fluid leaves superficial ulcers upon rupture

89
Q

What is a hematoma?

A

Localized collection of blood, well-defined and turns a dark color with Time

90
Q

What is petechiae?

A

Round, pinpoint non raised, purpleish red spots cause by mucosa or dermal hemorrhage

91
Q

What is eccymoses?

A

Large, purpleish red areas caused by blood under the skin are mucosa. Turns a blue to yellow color.

92
Q

What are dental caries?

A

Caused by streptococci, first appears as chalky white spots on enamel, incipient, indicates decalcification

93
Q

What is palpagia?

A

Pain in the dental pulp. Short sharp shooting pain that’s worse when lying down or climbing stairs

94
Q

What is pulpitis?

A

Inflammation of the dental pulp. Results from dental bacteria infection or a fractured tooth. Dull ache that can progress to severe, pulsating pain.

95
Q

What is a periapical abscess?

A

Pulp becomes inflamed, smells pus like, ulcers form and pulpal canal, can spread to the bone. Tooth feels “High” when biting, sensitive to touch

96
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Death of tissue. May not be any pain. Smells foul, rotten

97
Q

What is the most prevalent disease in mankind?

A

Periodontal disease

98
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of periodontal disease?

A

Symptoms are bleeding with brushing, tender, red swelling gums, tooth shifting, tooth elongation, mobile teeth, Purulent exudedates and between teeth, halitosis

99
Q

What is gingivitis?

A

Inflammation of the gingival tissue

100
Q

What is marginal gingivitis?

A

Most common gingival disease. Starts at the tips of the papillae, results in swelling and loss of texture, easy bleeding

101
Q

BUMEDINST 6010.13

A

Quality assurance QA program

102
Q

The clinical performance profile is what type of document?

A

Internal

103
Q

What is an inpatient acquired infection not present or incubating at the time of admission?

A

Nosocomial

104
Q

What is a determination concerning a monitor outcome confirmed through the peer review process?

A

Validation

105
Q

QA inquiries and medical records related to a potentially compensable (PCL) and Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations must be maintained in a secure location at the local command got a minimum of how many years or as long as needed thereafter?

A

2

106
Q

Who are personnel who are required to be licensed but are not included in the definition of health care practitioners?

A

Clinical Support Staff

107
Q

Fixed MTFs and DTFs meeting applicable criteria must gain and maintain what by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations?

A

Accreditation

108
Q

What is the state in which there is a variance from pre-established minimally acceptable standards of care?

A

Deficiency

109
Q

MTFs and DTFs, with guidance from higher authority, must what types of programs?

A

Clinical all Monitoring

110
Q

What is a structured approach which continuously analyzes clinical and administrative processes within preestablished boundaries using various analytical tables?

A

Continuous quality improvement

111
Q

BUMED submits a QA program summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often?

A

Annually

112
Q

All treatment facilities must fully integrate into their QA program Risk Management procedures requiring review of cases and events that represent liability or injury risk to patients and staff and must recommend methods of dreading what?

A

Liability risk

113
Q

The Naval School of Health Sciences in Bathesda Maryland will conduct how many educational workshops each year in the principles, components, and management QA programs for naval medical department personnel?

A

Two

114
Q

Naval Medical Department policy, procedures, and responsibilities for naval DTFs ashore and afloat were issued in 1987 and incorporated into this instruction in what year?

A

1989

115
Q

Who may elect to have a fleet-wide medical and dental QA program under the cognizance of the fleet medical and dental officer?

A

TYCOMS

116
Q

An executive management team may perform the command QA Committee function if it meets atleast how often?

A

Monthly

117
Q

A review of the QA program effectiveness must be completed with revisions as necessary every how often?

A

Annualy

118
Q

The Clinical Performance Profile provides a format for compiling and summarizing individual- specific information per what instruction?

A

BUMEDINST 6320.66

Advancement Study (2 decks)

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