Advancement study Flashcards
0
Q
P-485
A
Supply Manual
1
Q
Hospital Corps Birthday
A
June 17, 1898
2
Q
P-5132
A
Bureau of Medicine and Surgery Equipment Manual
3
Q
BUMEDINST 6700.13G
A
Management and Procurement of AMAL and ADAL
4
Q
AMAL & ADAL ___ day supplies, approved by _________. _________ reviews, distributes, manages AMAL/ADAL.
A
60 day supply, approval by Type Commanders, NAVMEDLOGCOM
5
Q
NMLC will get approval from ________.
A
NAVCSYSCOM
6
Q
NAVSUP 1220/2
A
Allowance Change Request
7
Q
BUMED MED04-
A
Chief of BUMED, Logistics
8
Q
Acquisitions > $100,000 approved by _______.
A
CNO
9
Q
Acquisitions of $5,000 or more funded by _______.
A
NMLC
10
Q
Acquisitions of < $5,000 funded by _______.
A
Ships OPTAR
11
Q
Dental: flush unit water lines and hoses for _____ at beginning of day, ______ between patients, _____ at end of day.
A
1 minute at beginning of day, 30 seconds between patients, 30 seconds at end of day.
12
Q
Aerosol particles 1.3 microns in diameter usually from dental procedures. Particles ______ can penetrate lungs.
A
<5 microns
13
Q
______second rinses reduces up to _____ bacteria when using _____ chlorohexadine gluconate
A
3 10 second rinses, reduces bacteria up to 97%, 1.2% chlorohexadine gluconate
14
Q
Open irrigation solution good for _____ for non-surgical use, good for ______ for surgical use.
A
1 week
1 day
15
Q
Liquid infectious waste into ______ sinks.
A
Clinical
16
Q
_______ technique for recapping needles.
A
Scoop
17
Q
Wash cycle for laundry _____ minutes, water temp ______ or ______
A
25 minutes, 160 degrees F or 70 degrees C
18
Q
Clean HVE System how often?
A
Once a week
19
Q
________ bleach solution for mopping
A
1:100
20
Q
BUMEDINST 6280.1B
A
Management of Infectious Waste
21
Q
Non infectious waste
A
General waste
22
Q
Infectious waste
A
Contains pathogens, needles
23
Q
Segregate waste when?
A
At point of origin
24
Preferred method for liquid waste is _____.
Gelatinization
25
Limit storage of medical waste to______
7 days
26
BUMED Med 04
Approval is required before purchase or release of medical waste treatment
27
How many groups of regulated medical waste are there?
9 groups
28
What is regulated medical waste group #1?
Cultures, Stocks, and vaccines
29
What is regulated medical waste group #2?
Pathological waste
30
What is regulated medical waste group #3?
Blood and blood products
31
What is regulated medical waste group #4 and #7?
Sharps
32
What is regulated medical waste group #5?
Animal waste (from animals exposed to infectious agents during research, production of biologicals, or tasting in pharmaceuticals).
33
What is regulated medical waste group #6?
Isolation ways, including bedding from patients for animals from biosafety level 4 for BSL for agents.
34
What is regulated medical waste group #8?
Either, including fluids that are designated by the local infection control authority.
35
What is regulated medical waste group #9?
Chemotherapy trace wastes
36
Pathological waste must be stored how?
Store frozen after 24 hours can be stored for 30 days.
37
Replace sharps containers when?
When they are 3/4 full
38
What do you use to clean regulated medical waste with?
EPA solution, bleach 1:10 dilute with water
39
Washing your hands with gloves on increases porosity up to how much?
60%
40
HM manual chapter 7?
Oral anatomy and physiology
41
When does the first teeth, baby teeth, growth period Occur?
Occurs between fifth and sixth week of prenatal life
42
What are the three stages in the tooth growth period?
Bud stage, Cap Stage proliferation, Bill stage, Histo-differentiation
43
As the tooth begins the bell stage, it begins to take shape and form through a process called?
Mophodifferentiation
44
What is apposition?
It is the depositing of the matrix for the hard dental structures
45
What is eruption?
After the crown of the tooth has formed, The root begins to develop.
46
What is an Amelioblast?
Enamel forming cells
47
What is an odontoblast?
Dentin forming cell
48
What is calcification?
Process of organic tissue becoming hardened, builds in layers
49
What is Exfoliation?
When the root reabsorbed and the tooth falls out
50
What is the makeup of the tooth?
Crown, root, enamel, Dentin, cementum, dental pulp
51
What is an atatomic crown?
It's encased in enamel
52
What is a clinical crown?
Part exposed in the mouth
53
What is the separation of a root called?
Furcation. 2 separations are called bifurcation
54
What is enamel?
It's translucent, calcified substance that covers the anatomical crown and protects the Dentin. It's the hardest tissue in the body, can endure 100,000 PSI.
55
What is enamel made up of?
96% inorganic minerals, 1% organic minerals, 3% water
56
What is dentin?
Are just portion of the tooth, yellow in colorration. 70% inorganic matter, 30% organic matter and water
57
What is cementum?
Covers the roots, anchors the teeth to tooth sockets
58
What is dental pulp?
Where the formation of Dentin is
59
What is Periodontium?
Tissue that surrounds and support the teeth collectively
60
What is masticatory tissue?
Tissue that covers the hard palate and gingival. It is keratinized
61
What is the hard palate structure?
Incisive papilla, Palitine Raphe, Palitine rugae
62
What is gingiva?
Specialized masticatory mucosa, firm and resistant. Unattached gingiva. Gingival margin, gingival sulcus, epithelial attachment, interdental papilla
63
What is the lining mucosa?
Specialize masticatory mucosa, firm and resistant
64
The mouth is split into how many quadrants?
Four
65
What does each quadrant of the mouth contain?
Central incisor, lateral incisor, cuspid, first bicuspid, second bicuspid, first, second, and third molar
66
What is the universal teeth numbering system?
Teeth are numbered from right maxillary 3rd molar, #1, to right maxillary mandibular 3rd molar, #2
67
What is the primary teeth numbering system?
Teeth are labeled a through K
68
What are the different surfaces of the tooth?
Facial surface, mesial surface, distal surface, lingual surface, embrasure, Diastema
69
What is the facial surface of the tooth?
Towards the lips or cheek
70
What is the mesial surface of the tooth?
Proximal surface closest to the midline of the arch
71
What is the distal surface of the tooth?
Oriented away from midline of the arch
72
What is the lingual surface of the tooth?
Faces towards the tongue
73
What is an embrasure?
Inter-proximal space that isn't occupied
74
What is the diastema?
Interproximal space with no contact point
75
The bite-vertical overlap?
Extension of maxillary teeth over mandibular counterparts, overbite
76
The bite-curve of spee?
Slight curved plane of the lower teeth
77
That bight-curve of Wilson?
Concave curve of the mandibular arch
78
The bite- Occlusional Plane?
Combination of the curve of Wilson and the curve of spee
79
What is a dental angle class I?
Normal
80
What is a dental angle class II?
Retrognathic (overbite)
81
Is a dental angle class III?
Prognathic (underbite)
82
What is Anadontia?
The absence of single or multiple teeth
83
What is HM manual chapter 8?
Oral pathology
84
Saliva averages how many micro organisms per milliliter?
750 million
85
What is an abscess?
Localized collection of pus, commonly caused by bacterial infection
86
What is a cyst?
Enclosed pouch or sac containing fluid or semi solid material
87
What is an ulcer?
Disruption of the superficial covering of mucosa or skin
88
What are vesicles?
Small elevation that contains fluid leaves superficial ulcers upon rupture
89
What is a hematoma?
Localized collection of blood, well-defined and turns a dark color with Time
90
What is petechiae?
Round, pinpoint non raised, purpleish red spots cause by mucosa or dermal hemorrhage
91
What is eccymoses?
Large, purpleish red areas caused by blood under the skin are mucosa. Turns a blue to yellow color.
92
What are dental caries?
Caused by streptococci, first appears as chalky white spots on enamel, incipient, indicates decalcification
93
What is palpagia?
Pain in the dental pulp. Short sharp shooting pain that's worse when lying down or climbing stairs
94
What is pulpitis?
Inflammation of the dental pulp. Results from dental bacteria infection or a fractured tooth. Dull ache that can progress to severe, pulsating pain.
95
What is a periapical abscess?
Pulp becomes inflamed, smells pus like, ulcers form and pulpal canal, can spread to the bone. Tooth feels "High" when biting, sensitive to touch
96
What is necrosis?
Death of tissue. May not be any pain. Smells foul, rotten
97
What is the most prevalent disease in mankind?
Periodontal disease
98
What are the signs and symptoms of periodontal disease?
Symptoms are bleeding with brushing, tender, red swelling gums, tooth shifting, tooth elongation, mobile teeth, Purulent exudedates and between teeth, halitosis
99
What is gingivitis?
Inflammation of the gingival tissue
100
What is marginal gingivitis?
Most common gingival disease. Starts at the tips of the papillae, results in swelling and loss of texture, easy bleeding
101
BUMEDINST 6010.13
Quality assurance QA program
102
The clinical performance profile is what type of document?
Internal
103
What is an inpatient acquired infection not present or incubating at the time of admission?
Nosocomial
104
What is a determination concerning a monitor outcome confirmed through the peer review process?
Validation
105
QA inquiries and medical records related to a potentially compensable (PCL) and Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations must be maintained in a secure location at the local command got a minimum of how many years or as long as needed thereafter?
2
106
Who are personnel who are required to be licensed but are not included in the definition of health care practitioners?
Clinical Support Staff
107
Fixed MTFs and DTFs meeting applicable criteria must gain and maintain what by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations?
Accreditation
108
What is the state in which there is a variance from pre-established minimally acceptable standards of care?
Deficiency
109
MTFs and DTFs, with guidance from higher authority, must what types of programs?
Clinical all Monitoring
110
What is a structured approach which continuously analyzes clinical and administrative processes within preestablished boundaries using various analytical tables?
Continuous quality improvement
111
BUMED submits a QA program summary report required by DoD Directive 6025.13 how often?
Annually
112
All treatment facilities must fully integrate into their QA program Risk Management procedures requiring review of cases and events that represent liability or injury risk to patients and staff and must recommend methods of dreading what?
Liability risk
113
The Naval School of Health Sciences in Bathesda Maryland will conduct how many educational workshops each year in the principles, components, and management QA programs for naval medical department personnel?
Two
114
Naval Medical Department policy, procedures, and responsibilities for naval DTFs ashore and afloat were issued in 1987 and incorporated into this instruction in what year?
1989
115
Who may elect to have a fleet-wide medical and dental QA program under the cognizance of the fleet medical and dental officer?
TYCOMS
116
An executive management team may perform the command QA Committee function if it meets atleast how often?
Monthly
117
A review of the QA program effectiveness must be completed with revisions as necessary every how often?
Annualy
118
The Clinical Performance Profile provides a format for compiling and summarizing individual- specific information per what instruction?
BUMEDINST 6320.66
