Advanced Valuation Lecture 2 Flashcards
What are the FCF?
The CFs generated by the operating capital of the firm taking into account all investments in operating capital assuming the firm is 100% equity financed. In other words, FCF is on an unlevered basis.
Give the FCF calculation
EBITDA
-/- depr. & amort.
EBIT
-/- operating tax expense
NOPAT
+/+ depr. & amort.
-/- capex in tangibles
-/- capex in intangibles
+/+ ∆ operating provision
+/+ ∆ deferred taxes
-/- investments in operating working capital
————
FCF
What are the methods to calculate CV?
- Liquidation approach > assuming liquidation at the end of the explicit forecast period. Determine the liquidation value of the tangible assets. Useful when valuing a JV.
// - Multiples > based on EV-multiple. Should reflect steady state. But it is highly affected by growth (i.e., it’s high for growth companies)
// - Perpetuity method > assuming an infinite cash flow of the firm growing at a constant rate. CV depends on CF in last forecast period, WACC and the growth rate.
What’s a steady state? (according to lecturer)
- company growth = industry growth
- realistic long-term EBITDA margin
- WC constant as % of sales
- expansion capex needed to support the real growth on the long-term
general comment on cyclicality:
End the forecast period MID-CYCLE. If you end at a peak or trough, and you base your terminal value on it, it will be over-/undervalued.
//
Note: we do not care about SEASONALITY within a year, as we build annual statements
Give the Gordon Growth model, and also a flaw. Propose 2 solutions
CV = FCF(CV) / (WACC - G(CV))
//
Flaw: does not properly account for GROWTH. If your G increases, you must invest more in the business to facilitate that growth. So, your capex, which is reflected in the FCF, must also change. If capex increases, FCF decreases. And that’s not the case in this formula!!
//
Solutions:
1. McKinsey model
2. Bradley-Jarrel model
What does the reinvestment rate mean?
How much of NOPAT are you reinvesting back into the business
general comment on growth rate G:
It should never exceed the nominal growth rate of the economy or the industry and therefore should be lower than:
> real GDP growth + inflation
> real industry growth + inflation
What is the RONIC? How does the RONIC relate to the CV period?
It reflects the nominal return that’s generated on expansion capex.
//
In competitive industries, the long-run RONIC == WACC, as it’s not possible to generate excess return (ie positive spread). The company only makes zero-NPV investments.
//
If the firm has a competitive advantage till infinity, it’s possible to generate a positive spread (RONIC > WACC). Growth adds value.
The McKinsey Model assumes depreciation = maintenance capex
But this may not be true, as the depreciation is based on historical prices. The maintenance capex is based on today’s prices which may be higher du to inflation. For assets with short useful lives it’s negligible. But for assets with long useful life, it’s important.
//
Note: prices may also decrease due to technological advancement
Which CV model typically comes up with a lower terminal value?
The McKinsey model usually comes up with a lower terminal value, because they assume you need expansion capex to facilitate inflationary growth.
Give the CV formula for McKinsey model and Bradley Jarrel model
McKinsey: (NOPAT * (1 - G/RONIC)) / (WACC - G)
G = RI * RONIC
—
BJ: (CBNI * (1 - RI)) * (WACC - G)
G = inflation + RI * (RONIC - inflation)
What is the difference between end-period discounting and mid-period discounting?
(1 + WACC)^0,5 - 1 = WACC/2
What discounting convention do you use when the CFs exhibit strong seasonal patterns?
Break the annual FCF down into a quarterly/monthly CF and discount these with the quarterly/monthly discount factor.
How do you classify deferred taxes, and how do you value the non-operating deferred tax asset/liability
It could be operating or non-operating
- operating DTA/DTL > include in FCF (like DTL on PPE, DTL on intangibles, DTA on operating provisions)
- non-operating or financing DTA/DTL > value separately (like DTA on tax loss carry forward, pension deficits)
—
If the tax loss is 10mln and the tax rate is 25%, the DTA is 2,5mln on the balance sheet. But you need to forecast how you would realise it in the future. So, next year 0,5, 1mln year after etc. You need to discount it with COST OF EQUITY, as it contains equity risk!