Advanced Life Support Patient Care Standards Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

In a Medical Cardiac Arrest, what should you consider for early transport after 1st analysis?

A

Consider very early transport after the 1
st analysis (and defibrillation if indicated) in the following
settings: pregnancy presumed to be ≥20 weeks gestation (fundus above umbilicus, ensure manual
displacement of uterus to left), hypothermia, airway obstruction, suspected pulmonary embolus,
medication overdose/toxicology, or other known reversible cause of arrest not addressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What cardiac arrest directive should you follow for opioid overdose?

Is there a role for Naloxone during cardiac arrest?

A

In cardiac arrest associated with opioid overdose, continue standard medical cardiac arrest directive.
There is no clear role for routine administration of naloxone in confirmed cardiac arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest

A

VF OR pulseless VT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Trauma TOR conditions:

A
Trauma TOR
Age ≥16 years
LOA Altered
HR 0
RR 0
SBP N/A
Other No palpable pulses AND
No defibrillation delivered
AND Monitored HR = 0
OR Monitored HR >0
with the closest ED ≥30
min transport time away.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Medical TOR conditions:

A
Medical TOR
Age ≥18 years
LOA Altered
HR N/A
RR N/A
SBP N/A
Other Arrest not witnessed by
EMS AND No ROSC
AND No defibrillation
delivered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contraindications Medical TOR

A

Medical TOR
Arrest thought to be of non-cardiac
origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Contraindications Trauma TOR

A
Trauma TOR
Age <16 years
Defibrillation delivered
Monitored HR >0 and closest ED <30
min transport time away
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If the patient is in cardiac arrest following removal of a obstruction, Do you Still treat as a Foreign Body Airway Obstruction
Cardiac Arrest?

A

Following removal of the obstruction, initiate management as a
medical cardiac arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is considered a Neonatal patient?

A

<30 days of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a 7 days old newborn patient HR is under 60 but greater than 0. What should you do

A

If the patient’s HR is less than 60 bpm but
greater than ‘0’ you must still start with
effective PPV on room air prior to initiating
PPV with 100% O2 and chest compressions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When a newly born patient is in cardiac

arrest (HR of 0) you must do what?

A

you must still start with
effective positive pressure ventilations
(PPV) on room air prior to initiating chest
compressions. In other words, follow the algorithm outlined in your medical directive
(without skipping any steps) regardless of
the newly born patient’s initial heart rate. In
MOST cases effective PPV/ventilation of
the lungs will increase the newly born
patient’s heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is MR SOPA

A
‘MR SOPA’ - adjusting Mask to
assure good seal, Reposition airway to
“sniffing” position, Suction mouth and
nose of secretions if necessary, Open
mouth using manual manoeuvres,
increase Pressure to achieve adequate
chest rise, consider an Alternate Airway
if available (ACP should consider ETT
as an alternate airway).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(ROSC) Medical Directive:
Conditions
Contraindications

A
0.9% NaCl Fluid Bolus
Age ≥2 years
LOA N/A
HR N/A
RR N/A
SBP Hypotension
Other Chest auscultation is clear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(ROSC) Medical Directive:What should you your target SPO2 and ETCO2

A

Consider optimizing ventilation and oxygenation
Titrate oxygenation 94-98%
Avoid hyperventilation and target ETCO2 to 30-40 mmHg with continuous waveform capnography
(if available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cardiac Ischemia Medical Contraindications ASA and NTG

A
ASA
Allergy or sensitivity to ASA or
NSAIDs
If asthmatic, no prior use of ASA
Current active bleeding
CVA or TBI in the previous 24 hours
Nitroglycerin
Allergy or sensitivity to nitrates
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor use within
the previous 48 hours
SBP drops by one-third or more of its
initial value after nitroglycerin is
administered
12-lead ECG compatible with Right
Ventricular MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do you need to do a 12 Lead before administering NTG?

A

12 Lead Acquisition: Considering 12 lead acquisition and interpretation for STEMI is now a defined step in the treatment of cardiac
ischemia and precedes Nitroglycerin consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 12 lead acquisition should be performed under __ from the PT contact

A

The recommendation that a 12 lead be performed within the first 10 minutes of patient contact is a goal. Understanding that not all situations allow for a 12 lead to be performed within the first 10 minutes of patient
contact, the Paramedic should document barriers that did not allow for this goal to be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PT presented with an inferior AMI should not receive NTG, WHY?

A

These patients are often preload dependent and the administration of
nitroglycerin to these patients may cause significant hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

PT presenting with chest pain took 2 ASA at 2pm. Will you still give him more for the Cardiac Ischemia directive?

A

ASA is a safe medication with a wide therapeutic index (the effective dose without side effects can be from 80
– 1500 mg). The additional dose provided by Paramedics will not exceed the therapeutic dose while ensuring the correct administration of correct dose of the medication. Therefore, apply the cardiac ischemia medical
directive as if no care had been rendered prior to your arrival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PT presenting with CHF and is STEMI positive. What is the maximum number of doses of NTG should you give?

A

Many patients who are at risk of having a cardiac event (MI) may also have a history of CHF and it can
sometimes be difficult to determine what issue is driving the other. It is likely that the STEMI is causing, or
exacerbating the CHF, and as such, following the Cardiac Ischemia Medical Directive and administering a
maximum of 3 x 0.4mg doses of nitroglycerin is most appropriate. The reduced number of doses in STEMI
reduces adverse outcomes associated with liberal nitroglycerin use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors, are used for what

A

The use of these medications has diversified to include treatment of pulmonary hypertension and congestive
heart failure (CHF).
The most appropriate categorization is as phosphodiesterase (PDE) 5 inhibitors.
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) 5 inhibitor list (many known as erectile dysfunction drugs [EDD])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

your STEMI PT received 2 doeses of NTG he now falls under the 1/3 systolic rule. 5 minutes later his pressure is at an acceptable LVL. Will you give him his last NTG dose?

A

If a patient’s vital signs fall outside the medical directive’s parameters (i.e.: hypotension), the patient can no
longer receive that medication (i.e.: nitroglycerin or morphine) even if the patient’s vital signs return to acceptable
ranges

23
Q

In cases where the administration of nitroglycerin results in hypotension in patients with acute cardiogenic
pulmonary edema. Can you still give a fluid bolus?

A

In cases where the administration of nitroglycerin results in hypotension in patients with acute cardiogenic
pulmonary edema and a PCP AIV paramedic is attending, a fluid bolus is permitted despite the presence of
crackles. Once the patient is normotensive, discontinue the fluid bolus and withhold further doses of nitroglycerin.

24
Q

Acute Cardiogenic Pulmonary
Edema Medical Directive:
Indications
Contraindications

A

Indications
Moderate to severe respiratory distress;
AND
Suspected acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Contraindications
Allergy or sensitivity to nitrates
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor use within
the previous 48 hours
SBP drops by one-third or more of its
initial value after nitroglycerin is
administered
25
Q

Hypoglycemia Medical Directive:

Indications

A
Indications
Agitation; OR
Altered LOA; OR
Seizure; OR
Symptoms of stroke.
26
Q

If you patient is apneic. what should be the first medication considered

A

Epinephrine should be the 1
st medication administered if the patient is apneic. Salbutamol MDI may
be administered subsequently using a BVM MDI adapter.

27
Q

Moderate to Severe Allergic Reaction
Medical Directive:
Indications

A

Indications
Exposure to a probable allergen;
AND
Signs and/or symptoms of a moderate to severe allergic reaction (including anaphylaxis).

28
Q

where should you capillary blood sample be taken for pediatric patient

A

heel of the foot (pediatric patients who have not begun to walk).

29
Q

what are the common symptoms of bronchoconstriction

A

Symptoms of bronchoconstriction may include wheezing, coughing, dyspnea, decreased air entry and silent
chest.

30
Q

you Deliver 500mcg of salbutamol to a adult patient. PT no longer has any wheezing, should you continue your treatment or stop?

A

When a dose of MDI salbutamol is administered, the intent is to deliver all six (6) (pediatric) or eight (8)
(adult) sprays to complete a dose. It would be under unusual circumstances to deliver less than the full
dose.

31
Q

A PT presenting with 1 severe allergy symptoms to a single body system. will you give Epinephrine or diphenhydramine first?

A

Usually involves symptoms in more than one body
organ or system, with symptoms presenting as per
above post exposure
Severe symptoms to a single body system should
be considered as a severe allergic reaction

32
Q

12 years old PT presenting with Severe Croup. what should you do?

A

Croup is occurring more and more frequently in older patients including adults, and if the indications are met,
a patch to a BHP would be required to consider treatment under this medical directive.

33
Q

Croup Medical Directive:

Indications

A
Indications
Severe respiratory distress;
AND
Stridor at rest;
AND
Current history of URTI;
AND
Barking cough or recent history of a barking cough.
34
Q

Contraindications:

Acetaminophen

A
Acetaminophen use within previous 4
hours
Allergy or sensitivity to
acetaminophen
Hx of liver disease
Active vomiting
Unable to tolerate oral medication
Suspected ischemic chest pain
35
Q

Contraindications:

Ibuprofen

A
NSAID or Ibuprofen use within
previous 6 hours
Allergy or sensitivity to ASA or
NSAIDs
Patient on anticoagulation therapy
Current active bleeding
Hx of peptic ulcer disease or GI bleed
Pregnant
If asthmatic, no prior use of ASA or
other NSAIDs
CVA or TBI in the previous 24 hours
Known renal impairment
Active vomiting
Unable to tolerate oral medication
Suspected ischemic chest pain
36
Q

Define Unable to tolerate oral medication

A

Unable to Tolerate Oral Medications Defined:
 Definition of ‘unable to tolerate oral medications’: For example: A patient that: must remain in the supine position
(i.e. on a backboard), is vomiting or nauseated, has difficulty swallowing or has a feeding tube in place would not
be able to tolerate oral medications.

37
Q

Suspected renal colic patients should routinely be considered for NSAIDS: WHY?

A

Suspected renal colic patients should routinely be considered for NSAIDS (either ibuprofen or ketorolac)
administration because of the anti-inflammatory action and smooth muscle relaxant effects (reduces the
glomerular filtration rate which reduces renal pelvic pressure and stimulation of the stretch receptors) as well as
its inhibition of prostaglandin production makes them ideal agents to treat renal colic (Davenport & Waine, 2010).
The only advantage of parenteral ketorolac over oral ibuprofen is the ability to administer an NSAID despite
vomiting. The overall clinical effect of these drugs is almost identical.

38
Q

Is Naloxone for respiratory distress AND LOA?

A

Remember, naloxone is ONLY being administered to improve respiratory status, NOT to improve LOA or for any
other purpose.

39
Q

what is the preferred method of delivery for naloxone and why?

A

In keeping with the conventions of the medical directives, the order of preference of route of administration is as
listed: SC is first, then IM, then IN and then IV (where certified and authorized in IV initiation). SC is the preferred
route (Clarke, Dargan & Jones, 2005). Specific details for each subsequent route are included below.
 IM
o faster onset and shorter duration than via SC route.
 IN
o rapid absorption,
o concern with proximity to the patient’s mouth (for safety),
o no sharps,
o consider splitting dose between nares.
 IV
o smaller dose,
o virtually instantaneous effect,
o very short duration,
o ideal in the apneic patient.

40
Q

Opioid Toxicity Medical Directive:
Indications
Conditions
Contraindications

A
Indications
Altered LOC;
AND
Respiratory depression;
AND
Inability to adequately ventilate;
AND
Suspected opioid overdose.
Conditions
Naloxone
Age ≥12 years
LOA Altered
HR N/A
RR <10 breaths/min

Contraindications
Allergy or sensitivity to naloxone
Uncorrected hypoglycemia

41
Q

where should you transport a opioid overdose and why?

A

Naloxone is shorter acting than most narcotics and these patients are at high risk of having a
recurrence of their narcotic effect. Every effort should be made to transport the patient to the closest
appropriate receiving facility for ongoing monitoring

42
Q

Suspected Adrenal Crisis Medical
Directive:
Conditions

A
Hydrocortisone
Other Paramedics are presented with
a vial of hydrocortisone for the
identified patient AND
Age-related hypoglycemia OR
GI symptoms (vomiting,
diarrhea, abdominal pain) OR
Syncope OR
Temperature ≥38C or
suspected/history of fever OR
Altered level of awareness OR
Age-related tachycardia OR
Age-related hypotension
43
Q

8yrs old PT with suspected DKA is hypotensive. what should you do?

A

Mandatory Provincial Patch Point
Patch to BHP for authorization to administer 0.9% NaCl fluid bolus to hypotensive patients ≥2 years
to <12 years with suspected Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)

44
Q
Cardiogenic Shock Medical Directive
– AUXILIARY:
Indications
conditions
Contraindications
A

Indications
STEMI-positive 12-lead ECG;
AND
Cardiogenic shock.

Conditions
0.9% NaCl Fluid Bolus
Age ≥18 years
LOA N/A
HR N/A
RR N/A
SBP Hypotension
Other Chest auscultation is clear
0.9% NaCl Fluid Bolus

Contraindications
Fluid overload
SBP ≥90 mmHg

45
Q
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
(CPAP) Medical Directive –
AUXILIARY:
Indications
conditions
Contraindications
A

Indications
Severe respiratory distress;
AND
Signs and /or symptoms of acute pulmonary edema or COPD.

Conditions
CPAP
Age ≥18 years
LOA N/A
HR N/A
RR Tachypnea
SBP Normotension
Other SpO2 <90% or accessory
muscle use
Contraindications
CPAP
Asthma exacerbation
Suspected pneumothorax
Unprotected or unstable airway
Major trauma or burns to the head or
torso
Tracheostomy
Inability to sit upright
Unable to cooperate
46
Q
Supraglottic Airway Medical
Directive – AUXILIARY:
Indications
Conditions
Contraindications
A

Indications
Need for ventilatory assistance or airway control;
AND
Other airway management is ineffective.

Conditions
Supraglottic Airway
Age N/A
LOA N/A
HR N/A
RR N/A
SBP N/A
Other Patient must be in cardiac
arrest
Contraindications
Supraglottic Airway
Active vomiting
Inability to clear the airway
Airway edema
Stridor
Caustic ingestion
47
Q

what is considered an attempt to supraglottic airway insertion and how many can you try?

A

Clinical Considerations
An attempt at supraglottic airway insertion is defined as the insertion of the supraglottic airway into
the mouth.

The number of attempts is clearly defined as two (2) total per patient, and not per provider

48
Q

what is the formula to calculate hypotension in Peds PT?

A

SBP = 70 + (2 x age).

49
Q

Once a bolus has been initiated what is the minimum volume that may be administered before discontinuing. adults and Peds

A

Once a bolus has been initiated, a minimum volume of 100 ml in pediatrics and 250 ml in adults may be
administered prior to discontinuing the fluid bolus should the patient become normotensive.

50
Q

You determine that a 8 years old PT normotension should be 116 SYS (90+(2x8). should you use 116mmHg or 100mmHg for your directives?

A

Formulas for pediatric normotension and hypotension are to be used until the calculation meets or exceeds the
adult definitions at which point the adult values are to be used. For example, at 6 years of age, the pediatric
calculation for normotension results in 102 mmHg; therefore use the adult value of 100 mmHg.

51
Q

Define what is a cardiogenic shock?

A

Cardiogenic shock is normally defined as a state in which the heart has been damaged to such an extent that it
is unable to supply enough blood to the organs, tissues and cells of the body.

52
Q

VSE PT becomes ROSC, should you remove immediately your SGA?

A

ROSC:
 In the event the patient with a SGA in place sustains a ROSC, the SGA should only be removed if the gag
reflex is stimulated or the patient begins to vomit; expect to remove it as the level of awareness improves.

53
Q

should you always treat nausea and vomiting with your NAUSEA / VOMITING MEDICAL DIRECTIVE – AUXILIARY?

A

While the indications list nausea or vomiting, patients presenting with these symptoms do not necessarily
require treatment.

54
Q
Electronic Control Device Probe
Removal Medical Directive –
Indications
Conditions
Contraindications
A

Indications
Electronic Control Device probe(s) embedded in patient.

Conditions
Probe Removal
Age ≥18 years
LOA Unaltered
HR N/A
RR N/A
SBP N/A
Other N/A

Contraindications
Probe embedded above the clavicles,
in the nipple(s), or in the genital area