Adv Self Care Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Bendaryl
A
diphenhydramine
2
Q
Chor-trimetron
A
Chlorpheniramine
3
Q
Sominex
A
Doxylamine
4
Q
Astepro
A
Azelastine
5
Q
Nasalcrom
A
Cromolyn sodium
6
Q
Zyrtec
A
Cetirizine
7
Q
Xyzal
A
Levocetirizine
8
Q
Claritin
A
Loratidine
9
Q
Allegra
A
Fexofenadine
10
Q
Afrin
A
Oxymetazoline
11
Q
Nardil
A
Phenelzine
12
Q
Flonase
A
Fluticasone
13
Q
Tylenol
A
Acetaminophen
14
Q
Advil, Motrin
A
Ibuprofen
15
Q
Aleve
A
Naproxen
16
Q
Ecotrin
A
Aspirin enteric-coated
17
Q
Bayer
A
Aspirin
18
Q
Petadolex
A
Butterbur
19
Q
Benzedrex
A
Propylhexedrine
20
Q
Medicated Vapoinhaler
A
Levmetamfetamine
21
Q
Sudafed
A
Pseudoephedrine
22
Q
Parnate
A
tranylcypromine
23
Q
Alka-Seltzer
A
Aspirin effervescent tabs
24
Q
Excedrin
A
Acetaminophen-Aspirin-Caffeine
25
Refresh Tears
Artificial tears, carboxymethylcellulose sodium
26
Omega-3 Fish Oil Caps
EPA + DHA
27
Visine
28
Refresh Redness Relief Drops
29
Lumify
Brimonidine OTC
30
Alphagan-P drops
Brimonidine Rx
31
Zaditor
ketotifen
32
Naphcon-A
naphazoline HCl
33
Pataday
Olopatadine
34
Lastacaft
alcaftadine
35
Muro Ointment
hypertonic NaCl
36
Structure __ claims must be accompanied by the disclaimer "this statement has not been evaluated by the FDA..."
function
37
2006 legislation required contact info/phone # on OTC drugs and dietary supplements to facilitate ADR reporting to this post-marketing surveillance program
MedWatch
38
The __ facts label format is required on all products containing vitamins, minerals, herbs, etc
Supplement
39
The __ legislated the standards for the strength and purity of manufactured drugs
PFDA
40
These claims are not allowed on the label of a dietary supplement
Disease claims
41
OTC Drug Review actions/results are published in this journal of the government
Federal Register
42
The agency that regulates the advertisement of OTC drugs and dietary supplements
FTC
43
The legislation that redefined herbs as being dietary supplements
DSHEA
44
The FDCA exempted drugs marketed before 1938, they were given __ status
GRAS/E
45
The amendment that created two categories of drugs
Durham Humphrey
46
OTC Drug Review category II drugs were determined to be __ GRAS/E
not
47
These are standard by which drugs and dietary supplements are manufactured and now exist for all supplement manufacturers
CGMPs
48
The drug __ label format is required for non-prescription drugs
facts
49
A __ dietary ingredient is a dietary ingredient not marketed in the US before Oct 15, 94
new
50
The Kefauver Harris amendment was __ to 1938
Retroactive
51
Drugs that came on the market between 1938 and 1962 are known as __ drugs
DESI
52
"this product is sodium-free" is an example of a __ claim
nutrient content
53
the 1st dietary supplement banned by the FDA by the authority given to it by DSHEA
Ephedra
54
A legal recipe book for an OTC drug category, establishes conditions under which an OTC is GRAS/E and not misbranded
OTC Drug Monograph
55
The agency that regulates the advertisement of prescription drugs
FDA
56
The FDCA legislated that manufacturers must prove this before drugs could be marketed
safety
57
The OTC Drug __ is the most massive project the FDA has ever undertaken
Review
58
The Kefauver Harris amendment required this to be proven of all new drugs
efficacy
59
hCG is detectable in urine about 1-2 __ after fertilization
weeks
60
Knowing a woman's cycle __ may help to determine when to start using urine ovulation test sticks
length
61
Using a pregnancy test too soon after a miscarriage has occurred may result in a false __ test
positive
62
A measure of true negativity
specificity
63
If pregnancy does not occur, the number of days between ovulation and the start of the next menstrual cycle
14
64
the __ of the ovum = 12-24 hours, for sperms its 72 hrs
viability
65
The type of thermometer/route that should be used in infants <6 months
rectal
66
This oral fertility drug does not interfere with home pregnancy tests
clomiphene
67
the home HIV test OraQuick tests a sample of __
saliva
68
As fertility approaches, a saliva microscope will show the saliva starts drying in a __ like pattern
fern
69
the enzyme that indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine
leukocyte esterase
70
Urine that is too __ may cause a false negative pregnancy test
dilute
71
Patients with obese arms may not be able to use a typical digital BP monitor with an arm cuff, it might be ok to recommend a BP __ monitor even though they are slightly less accurate
wrist
72
A test may be FDA __ if its manufacturer submits extensive data on its use and results to the FDA for evaluation
approved
73
the OraQuick test recommends testing at least __ months after a high risk event
three
74
The current definition of infertility depends on the __ of the woman
age
75
Basal thermometers detect the rise in BBT that occurs __ ovulation
after
76
A measurement of true positivity
Sensitivity
77
The name of the water-soluble vitamin that interferes with many tests including the OTC UTI test
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
78
Number of consecutive bowel movements that are tested with a home toilet bowl FOB test
Three
79
Home menopause tests are designed to detect the presence of this hormone
LSH
80
A more sensitive immune based test for detecting blood in the stool is the fecal immunichemical test or __ test
FIT
81
__ thermometers mat be used for female fertility awareness
basal
82
Ovulation is triggered by the LH __
surge
83
The increase in BBT post ovulation is due to __ from the corpus luteum
progesterone
84
If 1st AM urine is not used, urine may be concentrated by not drinking for __-__ hours before testing
4-6 hours
85
Tests that report results as being + or - are known as __ tests
qualitative
86
an FDA __ test has been found to be substantially equivalent to a similar predicate test or device on the market
cleared
87
Strict vegetarians will not get accurate UTI results with the __ test
Nitrite
88
the __ of a home test is a comparison of the test performed by a professional lab
accuracy
89
Ovulation detection kits are designed to detect the quantity of this hormone in the urine
LH
90
Pregnancy tests detect the presence of this hormone in the urine
hCG
91
To use oral 1st gen antihistamines, FDA approved dosing for children starts at __ years old
6 yrs old
92
The most sedating antihistamine found in Unison sleep aid tablets and many NyQuil products
doxylamine
93
2nd gen antihistamines may be used in children as young as __ years old
two
94
the clinically superior oral decongestant and may be used short-term in patients assessed to have well controlled HTN
pseudoephedrine
95
1st gen antihistamines may worsen __ retention in men with symptomatic BPH
urinary
96
Paroxysmal __ is a common symptom of allergic rhinitis
sneezing
97
1st gen antihistamines have __ side effects
anticholinergic
98
Longer acting topical decongestant
oxymetazoline
99
Intranasal mast cell stabilizer that is recognized as being safe in pregnancy
cromolyn sodium
100
1st gen antihistamine are contraindicated in __ angle glaucoma
narrow
101
antihistamines do not relieve this nasal symptom of allergic rhinitis
congestion
102
phenelzine class
MAO-B inhibitor
103
These histamine storage cells are highly concentrated in the nose and eyes
mast cells
104
the chemical mediator of the early symptoms of the allergic response
histamine
105
__ of the nose or eyes is common in allergic rhinoconjunctivitis
itching
106
least sedating of the 1st gen antihistamines
chorpheniramine
107
perennial allergies are also known as __ allergies
persistent
108
patients with __ allergic rhinitis have repetitive and predictable symptoms
seasonal
109
the decongestant ingredient available in oral and intranasal dosage forms
phenylephrine
110
oral decongestants may be used in children starting at __ years old
four
111
eye symptoms that may raise concern
pain
photophobia
112
__ conjunctivitis: eyes may be matted shut in the AM with gooey gunk pus-like discharge
bacterial
113
Some gentle preservatives do this once you put them in the eye
disappear
114
A distinguishing symptom of allergic conjunctivitis, prominent __
itching
115
a commonly used ocular non-medicated sterile ointment base, sterile white __
petroleum
116
(pain/discomfort) with difficulty in opening the eye may indicate the patient has a corneal __
abrasion
117
ophthalmic antihistamine and decongestant combo products should not be used longer than __
3 days
118
this patient population has a higher prevalence of dry eyes
elderly
119
the overuse of topical nose or eye sympathomimetic decongestant causes __ congestion
rebound
120
eye lubricant dosage form usually applied at bedtime
ointment
121
ophthalmic drug used in higher strengths for glaucoma and a lower strength to relieve redness of the eyes
brominodine
122
gentle pressure with warm compress may be recommended for pts with one of these
stye
123
__ sodium chloride preparations are sued to draw fluid from edematous corneas
hypertonic
124
Ocular lubricant that is not as viscous as cellulose derivatives, might interact with other eye drops
PVA
125
tear loss by __ increases in conditions of low relative humidity
evaporation
126
These have a complex 3-lay structure
tear film
127
Blood vessels are located within this eye surface layer
conjunctiva
128
excess __, a symptom of dry eyes that people usually don't associate with dry eyes
tearing
129
slang for viral conjunctivitis
pink eye
130
__ conjunctivitis: profuse watery discharge, extremely contagious
viral
131
A preservative, may cause dry eye or other problems if overused, __ chloride
benzalkonium (BAK)
132
Derivatives of this are found in the most viscous ocular lubricant drops
cellulose
133
an ophthalmic antihistamine and mast call stabilizer, may be used chronically (Zaditor)
Ketotifen
134
Pts who wear these should be referred if they have ocular complaints
contact lenses
135
dietary supplement you should associate with the eye
burberry
136
__ salicylic acid = aspirin
acetic
137
has synergistic effect when combined with certain analgesics
caffeine
138
The OTC NSAID that may be used in pediatric patients
ibuprofen
139
Dose dependent ADR caused by magnesium
diarrhea
140
__ salicylate: the OTC nonacetylated salicylate that is commonly marketed for back pain
magnesium
141
A useful non-drug therapy for dysmenorrhea
heat
142
supplement ingredient that contains hepatotoxic PAs that must be removed in manufacturing process
butterbur
143
NAPQI is a byproduct of __ metabolism that can cause liver damage if not detoxified by glutathione
acetaminophen
144
The type of headache usually characterized as dull ache or tight band around the head
tension
145
the type of headache associated with the overuse of analgesics
rebound
146
the primary reason to treat a fever
to relieve discomfort
147
primary dysmenorrhea typically does not occur until at least __ months after menarche
6 months
148
Those with an allergy to this plant may have cross reactivity with feverfew and butterbur
Asteraceae
149
Dosage form of ASA usually recommended for chronic therapy
ER
150
Max ibuprofen per day for self care
1200mg
151
Max naproxen per day for self care
660mg
152
This OTC analgesic that reduces PGs primarily through a central mechanism
acetaminophen
153
These are the primary chemical mediators of fever, pain, and dysmenorrhea
prostaglandins
154
For patients >2yrs, fever should not be self-treated for more than __ days
3
155
riboflavin is __
vitamin B2
156
the type of headache often worse in the morning, when bending down or when blowing the nose
sinus headache
