Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SNHD EMT Basic Protocols > Adult Protocols > Flashcards

Adult Protocols Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

Where should patients be transported if they are outside a 50-mile radius of the protocol designated transport destination?

A

Nearest appropriate facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Criteria for patients to be placed in the hospital waiting room

A
  1. Nl vital signs
  2. No parenteral medications during transport except for a single dose of analgesia and/or antiemetic
  3. Does not require continuous cardiac monitoring (medic judgment)
  4. Can maintain a sitting position w/o adverse impact on their medical condition
  5. Verbal report to hospital personnel
  6. Not on L2K hold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An exception to hospitals being bypassed if they declare internal disaster

A

Cardiac arrest or adequate ventilation has not been established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Normal vital signs criteria for waiting room

A

HR: 60-100
RR: 10-20
Systolic BP: 100-180
Diastolic BP: 60-110
O2: >94%
A&Ox4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Destinations for sexual assault victims

A

< 13 y/o transported to Sunrise
13 - 18 y/o transport to Sunrise or IMC
18 y/o and older transport to UMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Life-threatening differentials for traumas

A

Tension pneumo
Flail chest
Pericardial tamponade
Open chest wound
Hemothorax
Intra-abdominal bleeding
Pelvis/femur fx
Spine fx/cord injury
Head injury
Extremity fx
HEENT (airway obstruction)
Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pertinent hx for adult trauma assessments

A

Time and MOI
Damage to the structure of the vehicle
Location in structure or vehilc
Others injured or dead
Speed and details of MVC
Restraints/protective equipment
PMH
Medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recommended exam for adult trauma

A

Mental status
Skin
HEENT
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Extremities
Back
Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are trauma destinations determined?

A

Trauma Field Triage Criteria Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should procedures be performed for traumas?

A

Enroute when possible. Do not delay transport for procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why should you have a high-index of suspicion for geriatric trauma pts?

A

Occult injuries may be present and geriatric pts can compensate quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pertinent medical hx for abd/flank pain and n/v?

A

Age
Medical/surgical hx
Onset
Quality
Severity
Fever
Menstrual hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pertinent sxs for abd/flank pain and n/v

A

Pain location
Tenderness
N/V/D
Constipation
Dysuria
Vaginal bleeding/discharge
Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Possible differentials for abd/flank pain and n/v

A

Liver (hepatitis)
Gastritis
Gallbladder
MI
Pancreatitis
Kidney stones
AAA
Appendicitis
Bladder/prostate disorder
Pelvic (PID, ectopic pregnancy, ovarian cyst)
Spleen enlargement
Bowel obstruction
Gastroenteritis
Ovarian and testicular tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Recommended examination for abd/flank and n/v

A

Mental status
Skin
HEENT
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Back
Extremities
Neuro
Retroperitoneal palpitation for kidney pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neuro disorders or signs of hypoperfusion/shock with the presence of abdominal pain may indicate?

A

AAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pertinent hx for allergic reaction

A

Onset and location
Insect sting or bite
Food allergy/exposure
Medication allergy/exposure
New clothing, soap, detergent
Hx reactions
PMH
Medication hx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sxs allergic reaction

A

Itching or hives
Coughing/wheezing or respiratory distress
Throat or chest constriction
Difficulty swallowing
Hypotension/shock
Edema
N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mild allergic reaction

A

Involve skin rashes, itchy sensations, or hives w/o respiratory involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Moderate allergic reaction

A

Involve skin disorders and may include respiratory involvement, including wheezing. Tidal volume air exchanged remains good.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Severe allergic reaction

A

Involve skin, respiratory difficulty, and may include hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Recommended exam for allergic reactions

A

Mental status
Skin
Heart
Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

Acute and potentially lethal multisystem allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why should you use epinephrine cautiously in the elderly?

A

Potential hx of CAD, tachycardia, and/or hypertension. Administration can exacerbate signs and symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pertinent hx for AMS

A

Known DM, medic alert tag
Drugs or drug paraphernalia
Report of drug use or toxic ingestion
PMH
Medications
Hx trauma
Change in condition
Changes in feeding or sleep habits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sxs AMS

A

Decreased mental status or letahry
Changes in baseline mental status
Bizarre behavior
Hypo/hyperglycemia
Irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Possible differentials for AMS

A

Head trauma
CNS (stroke, tumor, seizure, infection)
Cardiac (MI, CHF)
Hypothermia
Infection
Thyroid
Shock (septic, metabolic, traumatic)
DM
Toxicological or ingestion
Acidosis/alkalosis
Environmental exposure
Hypoxia
Electrolyte abnormality
Psychiatric disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Recommended exam for AMS

A

Mental status
HEENT
Skin
Heart
Lung Abdomen
Back
Extremities
Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Potential medical causes for behavioral emergencies

A

Hypoxia
Intoxication/OD
Hypoglycemia/electrolytes
Head injury
Post-ictal state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is excited delirium syndrome?

A

Combination of delirium, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, hallucinations, speech disturbances, disorientation, violent behavior, insensitivity to pain, hyperthermia, and increased strength.

Potentially life-threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Excited delirium syndrome is most common in?

A

Male subjects w/ hx serious mental illness and/or acute or chronic drug abuse, specifically stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is S.A.F.E.R.?

A

Stabilize the situation by containing and lowering the stimuli
Assess and acknowledge the crisis
Facilitate the identification and activation of resources (Chaplin, family, friends, or police)
Encourage to use resources and take action in best interest
Recovery or referral - leave pt in care of responsible person/professional, or transport to appropriate facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a dystonic reaction?

A

Involuntary muscle movements or spasms typically of the face, neck, and UE.

Typically adverse reactions to drugs such as Haloperidol

Medic to administer Diphenhydramine 50mg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pertinent hx for behavioral emergenies

A

Situational crisis
Psychiatric illness/medications
Injury to self or threats to others
Medical alert stage
Substance abuse/OD
DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

sxs of behavioral emergencies

A

Anxiety, agitation, confusion
Affect change, hallucination
Delusional throughs, bizarre behavior
Combative, violent
Expression of SI/HI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Differential for behavioral emergencies

A

AMS differential
Alcohol intoxication
Toxin/substance abuse
Medication effect or OD
Withdrawal sxs
Depression
Bipolar
Schizophrenia
Anxiety disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Recommended exam for behavioral emergencies

A

Mental status
Skin
Heart
Lung
Neuro

Do not irritate pt w/ prolonged exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

sxs of bradicardia

A

HR <60 bpm w/ hypotension, acute AMS, chest pain, acute CHF, seizures, syncope, or shock
Respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Differential for bradycardia

A

Acute MI
Hypoxia
Pacemaker failure
Hypothermia
Sinus bradycardia
Athletic
Head injury (elevated ICP) or stroke
Spinal cord lesion
AV block
OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Recommended exam for bradycardia

A

Mental status
HEENT
Heart
Lung Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Procedure for thermal burn exposure

A

Stop burning process w/ water or saline
Remove smoldering clothing and jewelry. Do not remove stuck clothing.
Ventilation management
Cover burned area w/ dry sterile dressing. No ointment of any kind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Procedure for chemical/electrical burn

A

Eye involvement? Flush w/ water or NS 10-15 min.

Remove jewelry, constricting items, and expose burned areas.
Identify entry and exit sites, and apply a sterile dressing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pertinent hx for burns

A

Type of exposure (heat, gas, chemical)
Inhalation injury
Time of injury
PMH and medications
Other trauma
LOC
Tetanus/immunization status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

sxs burns

A

Burns, pain, swelling
Dizziness
LOC
Hypotension/shock
Airway compromise/distress
Wheezing
Singed facial or nasal hair
Hoarseness or voice changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Superficial (1st degree) burn

A

Red and painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Partial thickness (2nd degree) burn

A

blisters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Full thickness (3rd degree)

A

painless/charred or leathery skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Recommended exam for burns

A

Mental status
HEENT
Neck
Heart
Lungs
Abdomen
Extremities
Back
Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why are circumferential burns to extremities dangerous?

A

Potential vascular compromise is secondary to soft tissue swelling. Elevated extremity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Patients meeting the following criteria shall be transported to the nclosest appropriate burn center

A
  1. Second-degree burns >10% BSA
  2. Any third-degree burn
  3. Burns involving the face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints
  4. Electrical burns, including lightning
  5. Chemical burns
  6. Circumferential burns
  7. Inhalation burns
  8. Burn injury w. concomitant trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Burn percentage of adult

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pertinent hx for non-traumatic cardiac arrest

A

Events leading to arrest
Estimated down time
PMH
Medications
Existence of terminal illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Differential for non-traumatic cardiac arrest

A

Medical vs. trauma
VF vs. pulseless VT
Asystole
PEA
Primary cardiac event vs. respiratory or drug OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When should mechanical compression devices be used for cardiac arrest?

A

If available in order to provide consistent uninterrupted chest compressions and crew safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

H’s & T’s - Reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A

Hypovolemia - volume infusion
Hypoxia - oxygenation, ventilation, CPR
Hydrogen ion (acidosis) - ventilation, CPR
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia - medic drugs
Hypothermia - warming
Tension pneumo - needle decompression (medic)
Tamponade, cardiac - volume infusion
Toxins - agent specific antidote
Thrombosis, pulmonary - volume infusion
Thrombosis, coronary - emergent PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If witnessed by EMS or CPR in progress and the patient is unresponsive with no pulse:

A

Begin chest compressions 30:2 until the advanced airway is successfully placed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pertinent hx for CP and Suspected ACS

A

Age
Medications: Viagra, Levitra, Cialis
PMH MI, angina, DM
Allergies
Recent physical exertion
Palliation, provocation
Quality
Region, radiation, referred
Severity
Time of onset, duration, repetition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

sxs CP and Suspected ACS

A

CP, pressure, ache, vise-like pain, tight
Location: substernal, epigastric, arm, jaw, neck , shoulder
Radiation of pain
Pale, diaphoretic
SOB
N/V, dizziness
Time of onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Differnetial for CP and Suspected ACS

A

Trauma vs. medical
Angina vs. MI
Pericarditis
PR
Asthma, COPD
Pneumo
Aortic dissection or aneurysm
GE reflux or hiatal hernia
Esophageal spasm
Chest injury or pain
Pleural pain
Drug OD (cocaine, meth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Recommended exam for CP and Suspected ACS

A

Mental statues
Skin
HEENT
Heart
Lungs
Abdomen
Back
Extremities
Neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which demographics should you have a high index of suspicion for CP and Suspected ACS?

A

DM, geriatrics, and females

62
Q

12-Lead EKG is recommended on patients ____ experiencing vague jaw/chest/abd discomfort.

A

35 + y/o

63
Q

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in any patient with…

A

hypotension
bradycardia or tachycardia
evidence of right ventricular infarction
ED medication use within 48 hours

64
Q

What position should patient be placed in with a limb presentation during childbirth?

A

Left lateral recumbent position

65
Q

Procedure for normal presentation of childbirth

A
  1. Puncture amniotic sac if not already broken
  2. Deliver and support the head
  3. Suction mouth, then nose. Repeat several times if meconium is present.
  4. Deliver upper shoulder, then lower shoulder
  5. Deliver the remainder of the baby
  6. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord
  7. Deliver placenta
66
Q

What is the procedure for cord presentation during childbirth?

A
  1. Position the patient in Trendelenburg and slightly on the left side
  2. Wrap the cord and keep it moist
  3. Insert gloved hand to life baby off cord; obtain and document cord pulse
67
Q

What is the procedure for breech presentation during childbirth?

A

Support the body of the baby during the delivery of the head

68
Q

Pertinent hx for chilbirth/labor

A

Due date
Time contractions started/duration/frequency
Rupture of membranes (meconium)
Time and amount of any vaginal bleeding
Sensation of fetal movement
Pre-natal care
PMH and delivery hx
Medications
Gravida/Para status
High-risk pregnancy

69
Q

sxs childbirth/labor

A

Spasmodic pain
Vaginal discharge or bleeding
Crowning or urge to push
Meconium

70
Q

Differential for childbirth/labor

A

Abnormal presentation (breech, limb)
Prolapsed cord
Placenta previa
Abruptio placenta

71
Q

Recommended exam of the mother

A

Mental status
Heart
Lungs
Abdomen
Neuro

72
Q

What is a normal APGAR score?

A

7-10

73
Q

What APGAR score requires resuscitative measures?

A

4-7

74
Q

When is the APGAR score measured?

A

One and five minutes after birth

75
Q

APGAR acronym

A

Activity/Muscle Tone
Pulse
Grimace/Reflex Irritability
Appearance/Skin Color
Respiration

76
Q

Activity/Muscle Tone APGAR Scoring

A

Absent = 0
Arms/legs flexed = 1
Active movement = 2

77
Q

Pulse APGAR SCoring

A

Absent = 0
Below 100 = 1
Above 100 = 2

78
Q

Grimace/Reflex Irritability APGAR Scoring

A

No response = 0
Grimace = 1
Sneeze, cough, pulls = 2

79
Q

Appearance/Skin Color APGAR Scoring

A

Blue-Grey, pale all over = 0
Normal, except extremities = 1
Normal = 2

80
Q

Respiration APGAR Scoring

A

Absent = 0
Slow, irregular = 1
Good, crying = 2

81
Q

What is the procedure for localized cold injury?

A

Remove from environment
Measure temperature if available
Remove wet clothing
Dry/warm pt
Passive warming measures

Monitor and reassess
General wound care
DO NOT rub skin to warm
DO NOT allow refreezing

82
Q

What is the procedure for a systemic hypothermia patient without respiratory disress?

A

Remove from environment
Measure temperature if available
Remove wet clothing
Dry/warm pt
Passive warming measures

Awake w/without AMS
Active warming measures
Adult Trauma Assessment
Shock protocol
Monitor and reassess
Continue general patient care and transport

83
Q

Pertinent hx for cold-related illness

A

Age
PMH and medications
Drug or alcohol use
Infections/sepsis
time of exposure/wetness/wind chill

84
Q

Differential for cold-related illness

A

Sepsis
Environmental exposure
Hypoglycemia
Stroke
Head injury
Spinal cord injury

85
Q

Recommended exam for cold-related illness

A

Mental status
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Extremities
Neuro

86
Q

What does active warming include?

A

Hot packs on armpits and groin. Do not place directly to skin.

87
Q

What is considered mild hypothermia?

A

90-95 degrees F
33-35 degrees C

88
Q

What is considered moderate hypothermia?

A

82-90 degrees F
28-32 degrees C

89
Q

What is considered severe hypothermia?

A

<82 degrees F
<28 degrees C

90
Q

What should you do if foam is present in the airway of a growing victim?

A

Do not suction! Bag through it initially.

91
Q

What is the procedure for a patient that does not have a protected airway and is not ventilation adequately after a drowning?

A

General Adult Assessment
Ventilation management
Consider C-collar
Oxygen 15 L
SpO2

92
Q

What is the procedure for a patient that is protecting their airway and has adequate ventilation after a drowning?

A

General Adult Assessment
Consider C-collar
Oxygen 15 L NRB
SpO2

93
Q

For drowning victims in cardiac arrest, the emphasis should be on?

A

Good oxygenation/ventilation, 30:2 compression, no continuous compressions

94
Q

Pertinent hx for drowning

A

Submersion in fluid, regardless of depth
Possibility of trauma
Duration of immersion
Temperature of water or possibility of hypothermia
Degree of water contamination

95
Q

sxs of drowning

A

Unresponsive
Mental status changes
Decreased or absent vital signs
Vomiting
Coughing, wheezing, rales, stridor, rhonchi
Apnea
Frothy/foamy sputum

96
Q

Differential for drowning

A

Trauma
Pre-existing medical conditions
Barotrauma
Decompression illness
Post-immersion syndrome

97
Q

What QI Metrics must be completed for drownings?

A

SNHD Submersion Incident Report Form

98
Q

Recommended exam for drowning

A

Trauma survey
Head
Neck
Chest
Abdomen
Back
Extremities
Skin
Neuro

99
Q

Why should all drowning victims be transported for evaluation?

A

Potential for worsening sxs over the next several hours

100
Q

What is the procedure for epistaxis?

A

Compress nose with direct pressure
Tilt head forward
Position of comfort

If bleeding is controlled, perform general adult assessment.

If bleeding is not controlled, have patient blow nose and suction active bleeding. Then administer2 sprays of Oxymetazoline or Phenylephrine in each nostril.
Follow with direct pressure.

101
Q

Pertinent hx for epistaxis

A

Age
PMH
Medications (HTN, anticoagulants, ASA, NSAID)
Previous episodes of epistaxis
Trauma
Duration of bleeding
Quantitiy of bleeding

102
Q

Differential for epistaxis

A

Trauma
Infection
Allergic rhinitis
Lesions
HTN

103
Q

What are some common anticoagulants?

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)
Heparin
Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
Other OTC headache powder relief

104
Q

What are some common anti-platelet agents?

A

ASA
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
Aspirin/dipyridamole (Aggrenox)
Ticlopidine (Ticlid)

105
Q

sxs of heat cramps

A

Normal to elevated body temperature, weakness, muscle cramping.
Usually secondary to dehydration.

106
Q

sxs of heat exhaustion

A

Elevated body temperature
Cool, moist skin
Weakness
Anxious
Tachypnea
Dizziness
AMS
Headache
Muscle cramping
N/V

Vital signs: tachycardia, hypotension, elevated temp

Usually secondary to dehydration and salt depletion

107
Q

sxs of heat stroke

A

High body temperature <104 F
Hot, dry skin (absences of sweating)
Hypotension
AMS/coma
Tachycardia

108
Q

What is the procedure for heat cramps?

A

General Adult Assessment
Remove from environment
Measure temperature if available
Remove tight clothing
Passive cooling measures
PO fluids as tolerated
Monitor and reassess
Continue general patient care and transport

109
Q

What is the procedure for heat exhaustion?

A

General Adult Assessment
Remove from environment
Measure temperature if available
Remove tight clothing
Active cooling measures

If poor perfusion is present, proceed to the appropriate shock or trauma protocol
If poor perfusion is not present, continue to monitor and reassess.

continue general patient care and transport

110
Q

What is the procedure for heat stroke?

A

General Adult Assessment
Remove from environment
Measure temperature if available
Remove tight clothing
Airway as indicated
AMS as indicated
Active cooling measures

If poor perfusion is present, proceed to the appropriate shock or trauma protocol
If poor perfusion is not present, continue to monitor and reassess.

continue general patient care and transport

111
Q

Pertinent hx for heat-related illness

A

Age
Exposure to increase temperature and/or humidity
PMH/ medications
Time and duration of exposure
Poor PO intake, extreme exertion
Fatigue and/or muscle cramping

112
Q

Differential for heat-related illness

A

Fever
Dehydration
Medications
Hyperthyroidism
DTs
Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stroke
CNS lesions or tumors

113
Q

Recommended exam for heat-related illness

A

Mental status
Skin
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Extremities
Neuro

114
Q

What drugs can cause an elevated body temperature?

A

Cocaine
Amphetamines
Salicylates

115
Q

What are considered active cooling techniques?

A

Cold packs
Ice
Fanning
Air conditioning

116
Q

Pertinent medical hx for obstetrical emergency

A

Medical hx
HTN medications
Prenatal care
Prior pregnancies/births
Previous pregnancy complications

117
Q

sxs of obstetrical emergency

A

Vaginal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Seizures
HTN
Severe HA
Visual changes
Edema of hands or face

118
Q

Differential for obstetrical emergency

A

Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia
Placenta previa
Placenta abruptio
Spontaneous abortion

119
Q

Recommended exam for obstetrical emergency

A

Mental status
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Neuro

120
Q

What medical condition can cause severe headaches, vision changes, or RUQ pain in a pregnant patient?

A

Pre-eclampsia

121
Q

What is hypertension defined as in a pregnancy?

A

Systolic >140
Diastolic >90

OR increase of 30 systolic and 20 diastolic from pt’s nl pre-pregnancy BP

122
Q

When does postpartum eclampsia present?

A

48 hours after childbirth

123
Q

Pertinent hx for OD/poisoning

A

Ingestion or suspected ingestion
Substance ingested, route, quantity
Time of ingestion
Reason (suicidal, accidental, criminal)
Available medications in home
PMH, medications

124
Q

sxs OD/poisoning

A

Mental status change
Hypotension.hypertension
Decreased RR
Tachycardia, dysrhythmias
Seizures
SLUDGE
Malaise, weakness
GI sxs
Dizziness
Syncope
Chest pain

125
Q

Differential for OD/poisoning

A

TCA OD
Acetaminophen OD
ASA
Depressants
Stimulants
Anticholinergic
Cardiac medications
Solvents, alcohols, cleaning agents, insecticides

126
Q

Recommended exam for OD/poisoning

A

Mental status
Skin
HEENT
Heart
Lung
Abdomen
Extremities
Neuro

127
Q

sxs of acetaminophen OD

A

Initially normal or N/V
Tachypnea
AMS
Renal dysfunction, liver failure, and or/cerebral edema

128
Q

sxs of depressant OD

A

Decreased HR, BP, tempearture, and RR

129
Q

sxs of anticholinergic OD

A

Increased HR and temperautre
Dilated pupils
AMS changes

130
Q

sxs of solvent OD

A

N/V
cough
AMS

131
Q

sxs stimulant OD

A

Increase HR, BP, temperature, dilate pupils, seizures, and possible violence

132
Q

What is the ideal scene time for a patient having a stroke?

A

Less than 10 minutes

133
Q

What are the possible causes of hypovolemic shock?

A

Hemorrhage
Trauma
GI bleeding
Ruptured AA
Pregnancy related bleeding

134
Q

How far should the head be elevated for a suspected traumatic brain injury?

A

30 degrees

135
Q

What are the possible causes of obstructive shock?

A

Pericardial tamponade
PE
Tension pneumo

136
Q

When is cervical stabilization not performed?

A

Penetrating trauma to the head and/or neck without evidence of spinal injury
Injuries where placement of collar might compromise assessment, airway management, ventilation and/or hemorrhage control
Patients in cardiac arrest

137
Q

What should happen to orogastric or nasogastric tubes during transfer?

A

Left in place
Closed off
Set to suction

138
Q

A DNR or POLST order shall be validated by confirming the patient’s:

A

Name
Age
Condition of identification form

139
Q

How long should eyes be flushed if they are exposed to chemicals?

A

10-15 minutes

140
Q

What protocols must be followed in the specific sequence noted?

A

General Assessment

141
Q

All trauma calls that meet the Trauma Field Triage Criteria and occur within any other area of Clark County are to be transported to UMC. T/F

A

True

142
Q

What are possible causes of Cardiogenic Shock?

A

Heart failure
MI
Cardiomyopathy
Myocardial contusion
Toxins

143
Q

What triage methodologies can be used when patients exceed available resources?

A

SMART
STARTS

144
Q

Patients must have suspected hyperkalemia OR EKG findings consistent with hyperkalemia BEFORE initiating treatment. T/F

A

True

145
Q

Patients with a possible spinal injury found in MVC should not be asked if they can exit the motor vehicle on their own. T/F

A

False

146
Q

Tape, head straps, wedges, and head and/or neck support devices are not recommended during spinal immobilization. T/F

A

True

147
Q

Patients are not to be transported on backboards (unless movement off the backboard would delay immediate transport of patients w/ life-threatening injuries or acute spinal injuries). T/F

A

True

148
Q

What is considered a hypertensive patient in the setting of Pulmonary Edema/CHF?

A

Diastolic BP > 100 mmHg

149
Q

Hospitals that have declared internal disaster should be bypassed, except for patients presenting with what condition(s)?

A

Cardiac arrest
Inability to ventilate

150
Q

What are the approved Hypothermia Centers?

A

Centennial Hills
Desert Springs
Henderson Hospital
Mountain View Hospital
St. Rose Siena
Southern Hills
Spring Valley
Summerlin
Sunrise
UMC
Valley

151
Q

What are the possible causes of Disruptive Shock

A

Sepsis
Anaphylaxis
Neurogenic
Toxins

SNHD EMT Basic Protocols (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions