Adult Health II Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

pain in right anterior knee that worsens with running or jumping; painful enlargement of the tibial tubercle

A

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You should avoid aspirin, sulfa drugs, and fava root when you have

A

G6PD (glucose-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tests that include application of mediolateral valgus-varus strain w/the knee in full extension and in 15-20 degrees of flexion are utilized for?

A

collateral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

____ involves treatment by corticosteroids for decreased platelet production or increased platelet destruction

A

thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the most definitive when diagnosing gout?

A

joint fluid analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Contraindications for sumatriptan (Imitrex)

A

CAD, pregnancy, uncontrolled hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which lab test is sensitive for SLE?

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patient in office c/o of lower back pain that radiates to dorsal of foot and great toe, what is this suggestive of?

A

lumbar disk protrusion L4 to L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

patient w/new onset of depression, increased TSH, what drug to treat?

A

Synthroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most non-invasive diagnostic test for aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

CT of head w/o contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

blank staring lasting 3-50 seconds, accompanied by impaired level of consciousness describes?

A

abcense (Petit mal) seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

involuntary movements of tongue protrusion and chewing movements is

A

Dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

results of CBC show MCV=120 fL indicates which type of anemia?

A

pernicious anemia (b12 anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by

A

low back pain for 3 months duration, and improvement w/exercise but not rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pain in sole of right foot located btw 3rd and 4th toe, describes as pebble in shoe

A

Morton’s neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

prophylactic treatment of migraine headache is

A

propanolol (Inderal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what maneuver is the most useful in testing for vestibular dizziness?

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

best way to distinguish between different psychiatric disorders?

A

patient history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what maneuver to test for ankle sprain?

A

talar-tilt test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when on eliquis, what is most important teaching point for your patient?

A

do not use NSAIDs or medications w/NSAIDs in them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

polymyalgia rheumatica is associated with?

A

Giant Cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which tests the shoulder w/internal rotation at 90 degrees of forward flexion?

A

Hawkins sign test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

iron rich foods are…

A

liver, oysters, egg yolks, fish, and lean beef

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

patient presents w/ “shade or curtain that descends over right eye” could signify the patient is having a

A

Transient Ischemic attack. (carotid TIA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

non-pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis

A

weight-bearing exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

medication that is used in the prevention of secondary gout because it enhances urate excretion includes

A

probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which macrolytic anemia causes numbness in extremities and a sore tongue?

A

Vitamin B-12 deficiency (pernicious anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Patient is asked to maintain wrists in palmar flexion for full minute which causes pain to patient, this indicates

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

A

difficulty initiating involuntary movement, pill-rolling tremor, shuffling gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

patient presents w/headache that she describes as unilateral, pulsating, moderate-severe intensity, w/nausea, photophobia, photophobia

A

migraine headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

patient has a DEXA scan and it reveals a score of -1.5 which indicates what?

A

osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

subarachnoid hemorrhage is often called?

A

thunderclap headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fibromyalgia causes

A

persistent widespread pain and 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation for > or equal to 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pain upon extension of the leg after the hip is flexed at 90 degrees could be indicative of

A

nuchal rigidity in meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

lack of light exposure can be the cause of

A

seasonal affective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

polycythemia vera causes

A

hyper viscosity, hypervolemia, and sluggish blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when taking Zoloft and patient feels better, they should

A

continue medication for an additional 6-9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when attempting to wean Zoloft, how long should the dose be tampered before quitting completely?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the most helpful diagnostic test for seizures?

A

EEG

40
Q

first line treatment of tic douloureaux is

A

carbamazepine, BID

41
Q

during a simple focal seizure patient will most likely be

A

conscious

42
Q

prophylaxis for cluster headaches are

A

Calcium channel blockers

43
Q

patient complaining of vision changes (diplopia), pain to temporal area, and pain with chewing could have?

A

giant cell arteritis

44
Q

patient complains of pain when taking first step after sitting down for a prolonged period, this could be?

A

plantar fascitis

45
Q

test for scoliosis?

A

Adams forward bend test

46
Q

which corticosteroid preparation has the LEAST potentency?

A

solution

47
Q

patient has started retin-a for obstructive acne 2 weeks ago, and has started to have peeling skin, what would you tell him?

A

instruct him to use every 3rd night and increase to nightly as tolerated

48
Q

patient complaining of extreme pruritis, burrow lesions in finger webs what could this be and what to treat it?

A

scabies, permethrin 5%

49
Q

smooth dome shaped, flesh-colored papule with central umbilication are?

A

molluscum

50
Q

patient has honey colored crusts, what would you prescribe?

A

mupirocin ointment

51
Q

patient complains of bug bite a few days ago with redness and a bulls-eye pattern, should ask him if?

A

he was bitten by a TIC

52
Q

you should have a patient follow up with dermatologist if you suspect what?

A

actinic keratosis

53
Q

if a patient presents with a skin lesion that has variable pigmentation, you would suspect?

A

melanoma

54
Q

19 year old patient c/o pruritic macerated areas in his groin for the past few days, this is most likely?

A

tinea Curtis

55
Q

what disease causes erythema infectiousum?

A

parvovirus B19

56
Q

what is the treatment of choice for erythematous seborrheic dermatitis?

A

non fluorinated topical steroid lotion

57
Q

lesion that is greasy and scaly in the nasolabial folds describes

A

seborrheic dermatitis

58
Q

use of OCPs are contraindicated in patient’s who have

A

migraines w/auras

59
Q

most often called the “suicidal headache”?

A

cluster headache

60
Q

most common demyelinating disease of CNS?

A

MS

61
Q

7th cranial nerve (facial nerve) paralysis is

A

Bell’s palsy

62
Q

Bell’s palsy may be caused by?

A

lyme disease, herpes virus

63
Q

treatment for bells palsy if caused by herpes virus?

A

acyclovir 400 mg 5x/day for 7 days

64
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia or Tic Douloureux is very painful and involves which cranial nerve?

A

5th cranial nerve

65
Q

first line treatment for bipolar disorder?

A

lithium

66
Q

positive pain on MTP squeeze test indicates?

A

morton’s neuroma

67
Q

maintaining wrists in palmar flexion for 1 min is called a

A

phelan test

68
Q

tapping over median nerve at or proximal to wrist crease causes electric shocks or paresthesias in median nerve distribution?

A

tinel sign

69
Q

s/s of osteoporosis?

A

asymptomatic, back pain, loss of heigh, kyphosis

70
Q

A t-score of <2.5 indicates

A

osteoporosis

71
Q

a T-score of >-1 indicates

A

normal DEXA scan

72
Q

Dexa scans start at what age, and how often?

A

65, every 2 years

73
Q

high RF titer and anti-citrullinated peptide antibody titer (ACPA) indicates?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

74
Q

this type of anemia causes production of condoyctes-red blood cells on smear that are thin with overproduction of cell membrane causing “bell-shaped cells” called target cells

A

thalassemia

75
Q

deficiency of enzyme that causes destruction of RBCs and can lead to hemolytic anemia w/jaundice?

A

G6PD

76
Q

G6PD is diagnosed with the

A

combes test

77
Q

what is characterized by a platelet count of <150,000?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytic purpurea

78
Q

herpes zoster causes which type of lesions?

A

grouped vesicles

79
Q

pediculosis is also called what and is treated w/?

A

lice, permethrin 1% cream

80
Q

honey colored crusts

A

impetigo

81
Q

which causes erythema, scaling of scalp, and hair loss?

A

tinea capitis

82
Q

treatment of tinea capitis is

A

griseofulvin PO for 4-8 weeks or ketoconazole shampoo

83
Q

this skin condition gets worse with hot, humid weather or use of skin oils

A

Tinea versicolor

84
Q

1st disease

A

measles

85
Q

2nd disease

A

scarlet fever

86
Q

3rd disease

A

rubella

87
Q

4th disease

A

duke’s

88
Q

5ths disease

A

erythema infectiousum

89
Q

6ths disease

A

roseola infantum

90
Q

Koplik spots are associated with?

A

measles

91
Q

small white spots with redness around found on the inside of cheeks during early measles infection?

A

Kopek spots

92
Q

disease that is caused by staph and produces scaled-looking skin is called

A

Duke’s disease or fourth disease

93
Q

red sunburnt looking skin that feels like sandpaper is caused by

A

scarlet fever (2nd disease)

94
Q

slapped cheeks rash

A

erythema infectiosum

95
Q

if severe symptoms of osgood schlatter disease, what is treatment?

A

rest, elevation, ice, NSAIDs

96
Q

gold standard treatment for rheumatoid arthritis

A

methotrexate