Adult Care Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of cancer invasion?

A

Growth into the surrounding tissue.

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2
Q

What is metastasis in cancer?

A

Spread to distant sites.

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3
Q

What is the most common method of cancer spread?

A

Lymphatic spread.

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4
Q

What does hematogenous spread refer to?

A

Spread related to the vascularity of the tumor.

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5
Q

What is local seeding in cancer spread?

A

Tumors shed cells or emboli that seed surfaces of other organs in a body cavity.

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6
Q

List some common risk factors for cancer.

A
  • Family history
  • Certain viruses (Epstein-Barr, hepatitis B, HPV)
  • Bacteria
  • Sun exposure
  • Tobacco
  • Chemical exposure
  • Chronic irritation
  • Low fiber and high intake of red meats/animal fat
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7
Q

What is one primary prevention strategy for breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen can be used to prevent breast cancer.

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8
Q

What are soy products used for in cancer prevention?

A

They are high in ‘false’ estrogen, which tricks the body into not producing too much of its own estrogen.

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9
Q

Which vitamins are considered antioxidants that may decrease cancer risk?

A
  • Vitamins E
  • C
  • A
  • B
  • D
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10
Q

What is a key component of personal accountability in cancer prevention?

A

Breathe clean air (no smoking or secondhand smoke).

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11
Q

At what age should women begin annual mammograms?

A

Age 40 (at-risk individuals start at age 30).

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12
Q

What does the CAUTION acronym stand for in cancer symptoms?

A
  • C: Change in bowel and bladder habits
  • A: Sore that does not heal
  • U: Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • T: Thickening or a lump
  • I: Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • O: Obvious change in wart or mole
  • N: Nagging cough or hoarseness
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13
Q

What is the purpose of surgical treatment in cancer care?

A

Surgical treatment can be used to treat, prophylactic, palliative, or reconstructive.

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14
Q

What are common nursing considerations for external radiation?

A
  • Inspect skin for redness or changes
  • Assess for dryness or cracking
  • Do not use lotions/ointments/powders/soaps
  • Avoid sun exposure
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15
Q

What is the nursing consideration for internal radiation therapy?

A

Protect visitors and caregivers and prepare the patient for isolation.

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16
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Develops when cytotoxic therapies cause the destruction of a large number of rapidly dividing malignant cells.

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17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of superior vena cava syndrome?

A
  • Edema of the face
  • Tightness of the shirt collar
  • Dyspnea
  • Erythema of the upper body
  • Swelling of neck and chest veins
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18
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Progressive deterioration of cartilage and bone in one or more joints.

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19
Q

What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Unilateral joint pain and tenderness
  • Stiffness
  • Loss of flexibility
  • Crepitus
  • Bone spurs
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20
Q

What is the primary treatment for severe osteoarthritis?

A

Total joint arthroplasty.

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21
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

A chronic, progressive, systemic inflammatory autoimmune disease affecting primarily synovial joints.

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22
Q

What are early signs of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Joint inflammation
  • Low-grade fever
  • Weakness
  • Fatigue
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23
Q

What laboratory assessments are used for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Antinuclear Antibody (ANA)
  • Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
  • Elevated ESR and CRP
24
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A chronic metabolic disease that causes progressive bone loss.

25
What is the best tool for diagnosing osteoporosis?
Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan).
26
What defines osteopenia based on T-scores?
T-score between –1 and –2.5.
27
What defines osteoporosis based on T-scores?
T-score at or < -2.5.
28
What is the best tool for diagnosing osteoporosis?
Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan) ## Footnote DEXA scan results are reported as a T-score.
29
What T-score range indicates osteopenia?
Between –1 and –2.5
30
What T-score indicates osteoporosis?
At or < -2.5
31
How often should patients aged 65 and older be screened for osteoporosis?
Every 2 years
32
Name three medications used to treat osteoporosis.
* Calcium and vitamin D supplementation * Bisphosphonates (e.g., Alendronate, Risedronate, Ibandronate) * Estrogen Agonist/Antagonist (e.g., Evista)
33
What is the recommended action after taking bisphosphonates?
Remain upright for 30 minutes
34
What condition is characterized by the deposition of crystals in joints?
Gout
35
What is the primary cause of primary gout?
Error of purine metabolism leading to increased uric acid
36
What are the clinical stages of gout?
* Asymptomatic hyperuricemia * Acute gouty arthritis * Chronic gout
37
What serum uric acid level indicates gout?
Greater than 6.5 mg/dL
38
List three medications used for acute gout episodes.
* Colchicine * Corticosteroids * NSAIDs
39
What dietary changes should be made for gout management?
* Low purine diet * Avoid organ meats, shellfish, oily fish, excessive alcohol
40
What are the three types of anemia based on MCV?
* Microcytic (MCV <80) * Normocytic (MCV 80 to 100) * Macrocytic (MCV >100)
41
What does a low serum iron and high TIBC indicate?
Iron deficiency anemia
42
What are common symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?
* Fatigue * Weakness * Pallor * Brittle nails * Soreness of the tongue
43
What should be avoided when taking iron supplements?
Coffee, tea, milk, cereals, dietary fiber, carbonated beverages
44
What is the main cause of pernicious anemia?
B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor
45
What are the classic signs of pernicious anemia?
* Beefy red tongue * Sore mouth * Difficulty walking
46
What is a common treatment for pernicious anemia?
B12 injections
47
What are B symptoms associated with leukemias and lymphomas?
* Fevers * Night sweats * Unintentional weight loss * Infections
48
What characterizes Acute Myeloid Leukemia?
Immature myeloblasts in the bone marrow
49
What is the goal of treatment for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?
Control the proliferation of WBCs/induce remission
50
What is a common finding in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
51
What is a common treatment for early-stage Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Radiotherapy with a cure rate of 80%
52
What does the CRAB acronym stand for in the context of Multiple Myeloma?
* C: elevated calcium * R: renal insufficiency * A: anemia * B: bone lesion
53
What is a common symptom of Multiple Myeloma?
Bone pain
54
What is the first sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
55
True or False: Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma typically starts with one node and spreads throughout the body.
True