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Adult Care > Adult Care Exam 4 > Flashcards

Adult Care Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of cancer invasion?

A

Growth into the surrounding tissue.

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2
Q

What is metastasis in cancer?

A

Spread to distant sites.

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3
Q

What is the most common method of cancer spread?

A

Lymphatic spread.

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4
Q

What does hematogenous spread refer to?

A

Spread related to the vascularity of the tumor.

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5
Q

What is local seeding in cancer spread?

A

Tumors shed cells or emboli that seed surfaces of other organs in a body cavity.

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6
Q

List some common risk factors for cancer.

A
  • Family history
  • Certain viruses (Epstein-Barr, hepatitis B, HPV)
  • Bacteria
  • Sun exposure
  • Tobacco
  • Chemical exposure
  • Chronic irritation
  • Low fiber and high intake of red meats/animal fat
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7
Q

What is one primary prevention strategy for breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen can be used to prevent breast cancer.

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8
Q

What are soy products used for in cancer prevention?

A

They are high in ‘false’ estrogen, which tricks the body into not producing too much of its own estrogen.

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9
Q

Which vitamins are considered antioxidants that may decrease cancer risk?

A
  • Vitamins E
  • C
  • A
  • B
  • D
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10
Q

What is a key component of personal accountability in cancer prevention?

A

Breathe clean air (no smoking or secondhand smoke).

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11
Q

At what age should women begin annual mammograms?

A

Age 40 (at-risk individuals start at age 30).

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12
Q

What does the CAUTION acronym stand for in cancer symptoms?

A
  • C: Change in bowel and bladder habits
  • A: Sore that does not heal
  • U: Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • T: Thickening or a lump
  • I: Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
  • O: Obvious change in wart or mole
  • N: Nagging cough or hoarseness
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13
Q

What is the purpose of surgical treatment in cancer care?

A

Surgical treatment can be used to treat, prophylactic, palliative, or reconstructive.

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14
Q

What are common nursing considerations for external radiation?

A
  • Inspect skin for redness or changes
  • Assess for dryness or cracking
  • Do not use lotions/ointments/powders/soaps
  • Avoid sun exposure
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15
Q

What is the nursing consideration for internal radiation therapy?

A

Protect visitors and caregivers and prepare the patient for isolation.

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16
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Develops when cytotoxic therapies cause the destruction of a large number of rapidly dividing malignant cells.

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17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of superior vena cava syndrome?

A
  • Edema of the face
  • Tightness of the shirt collar
  • Dyspnea
  • Erythema of the upper body
  • Swelling of neck and chest veins
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18
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Progressive deterioration of cartilage and bone in one or more joints.

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19
Q

What are common symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • Unilateral joint pain and tenderness
  • Stiffness
  • Loss of flexibility
  • Crepitus
  • Bone spurs
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20
Q

What is the primary treatment for severe osteoarthritis?

A

Total joint arthroplasty.

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21
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

A chronic, progressive, systemic inflammatory autoimmune disease affecting primarily synovial joints.

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22
Q

What are early signs of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Joint inflammation
  • Low-grade fever
  • Weakness
  • Fatigue
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23
Q

What laboratory assessments are used for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Antinuclear Antibody (ANA)
  • Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
  • Elevated ESR and CRP
24
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A chronic metabolic disease that causes progressive bone loss.

25
Q

What is the best tool for diagnosing osteoporosis?

A

Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan).

26
Q

What defines osteopenia based on T-scores?

A

T-score between –1 and –2.5.

27
Q

What defines osteoporosis based on T-scores?

A

T-score at or < -2.5.

28
Q

What is the best tool for diagnosing osteoporosis?

A

Dual x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA scan)

DEXA scan results are reported as a T-score.

29
Q

What T-score range indicates osteopenia?

A

Between –1 and –2.5

30
Q

What T-score indicates osteoporosis?

A

At or < -2.5

31
Q

How often should patients aged 65 and older be screened for osteoporosis?

A

Every 2 years

32
Q

Name three medications used to treat osteoporosis.

A
  • Calcium and vitamin D supplementation
  • Bisphosphonates (e.g., Alendronate, Risedronate, Ibandronate)
  • Estrogen Agonist/Antagonist (e.g., Evista)
33
Q

What is the recommended action after taking bisphosphonates?

A

Remain upright for 30 minutes

34
Q

What condition is characterized by the deposition of crystals in joints?

A

Gout

35
Q

What is the primary cause of primary gout?

A

Error of purine metabolism leading to increased uric acid

36
Q

What are the clinical stages of gout?

A
  • Asymptomatic hyperuricemia
  • Acute gouty arthritis
  • Chronic gout
37
Q

What serum uric acid level indicates gout?

A

Greater than 6.5 mg/dL

38
Q

List three medications used for acute gout episodes.

A
  • Colchicine
  • Corticosteroids
  • NSAIDs
39
Q

What dietary changes should be made for gout management?

A
  • Low purine diet
  • Avoid organ meats, shellfish, oily fish, excessive alcohol
40
Q

What are the three types of anemia based on MCV?

A
  • Microcytic (MCV <80)
  • Normocytic (MCV 80 to 100)
  • Macrocytic (MCV >100)
41
Q

What does a low serum iron and high TIBC indicate?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

42
Q

What are common symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Pallor
  • Brittle nails
  • Soreness of the tongue
43
Q

What should be avoided when taking iron supplements?

A

Coffee, tea, milk, cereals, dietary fiber, carbonated beverages

44
Q

What is the main cause of pernicious anemia?

A

B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor

45
Q

What are the classic signs of pernicious anemia?

A
  • Beefy red tongue
  • Sore mouth
  • Difficulty walking
46
Q

What is a common treatment for pernicious anemia?

A

B12 injections

47
Q

What are B symptoms associated with leukemias and lymphomas?

A
  • Fevers
  • Night sweats
  • Unintentional weight loss
  • Infections
48
Q

What characterizes Acute Myeloid Leukemia?

A

Immature myeloblasts in the bone marrow

49
Q

What is the goal of treatment for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?

A

Control the proliferation of WBCs/induce remission

50
Q

What is a common finding in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

51
Q

What is a common treatment for early-stage Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Radiotherapy with a cure rate of 80%

52
Q

What does the CRAB acronym stand for in the context of Multiple Myeloma?

A
  • C: elevated calcium
  • R: renal insufficiency
  • A: anemia
  • B: bone lesion
53
Q

What is a common symptom of Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bone pain

54
Q

What is the first sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Enlarged cervical lymph nodes

55
Q

True or False: Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma typically starts with one node and spreads throughout the body.

A

True

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