Adrenergic Receptors 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the general local risks with alpha-agonists?

A

localized ischemia, extravasation, weaning down the dose is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are ergot alkyloids?

A

Lycergic acid compounds from a rye grass fungus that affect a variety of neural systems (LSD comes from here!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What family contains ergonovine and ergotamine? Where is their action?

A

Ergots; alpha agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the indication for ergonovine?

A

Post partum bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the indication for ergotamine?

A

acute migraine treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the general side effects of alpha agonists?

A

hypertension or headache, local ishemia, withdrawal symptoms including dramatic BP drop, nervousness, anxiety, and insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of a2 agonists such as clonidine?

A

post-synaptic a2 receptors in the solitary tract of the midbrain are activated, decreasing CNS sympathetic outflow and tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the major difference between a-methyl dopa and clonidine?

A

a-methyl dopa is a prodrug while clonidine is innately active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the major indication of B1 agonists?

A

cardiac stimulation (according to Dr. Brown this is of limited effect due to pre-existing unfixable heart damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the major indication of B2 agonists?

A

Smooth muscle relaxation including in asthma and uterine relaxation (i.e. to halt premature labor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which beta adrenergic receptors are found in the heart?

A

B1, B2, and very low levels of B3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the side effects of beta agonists?

A

cardiac arrhythmia (B1 activation) and vasodilation (B2-selective) leading to tachcardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 classes of adrenergic blockers?

A

alpha, beta, and nerve-ending blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the two first generation beta blockers. What is their selectivity?

A

Propranolol (most important) and Timolol; B1 and B2 non-selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are B1 blockers more desirable than B2 blockers?

A

B1 blockers have heart-specific effects, but a B2 blocker can induce an asthma-like attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two second generation beta blockers? What is their selectivity?

A

Atenolol and Metoprolol; B1 selective

17
Q

What is the meaning of ‘third’ generation beta blockers?

A

additional actions are seen beyond beta blocking (B1/B2 or B1 only)

18
Q

List additional properties of third generation beta blockers.

A

NO production, B2 agonism, a1 antagonism, Ca entry blockers, K channel openers, antioxidants

19
Q

What are the two major 3a generation beta blockers? What is the major additional action?

A

Labetalol and Carvedelol; B1/B2 non-selective with a1 antagonism

20
Q

Why do beta blockers help hypertension?

A

Who knows? Possible actions on renin (antagonist), norepinephrine control, NO production, a1 blocking, Ca entry blocking, K channel opening (Note that the JGA produces renin and beta blockers always work in patients with high renin levels)

21
Q

What is the effect of activation of pre-synaptic beta receptors?

A

Increase in norepinephrine release (a beta blocker would inhibit this effect)

22
Q

What major disease etiologies are treated with beta blockers?

A

hypertension, arrhythmia, angina, glaucoma, migraine, stage fright, congestive heart failure

23
Q

Are beta blockers contraindicated or first line therapy for heart failure patients?

A

Both. By weaning in a beta blocker, you can slow down the hypersympathetic tone and reduce stress on the heart. The dose must be titrated, but if done properly it is highly effective.

24
Q

Which beta blockers should be used in heart failure patients?

A

second and third generation only to limit general beta blocking effects

25
What considerations must be made in tapering off beta blockers?
Cardiac depression, (fatigue/nausea/depression), and bronchoconstriction in susceptible individuals
26
What are the two classes of alpha blockers? What are the major members of these classes?
Non-selective: phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine; Selective: Prazosin
27
What makes Phenoxybenzamine stand out from other adrenergic blockers?
It is a nitrogen mustard and thus covalently binds to alpha receptors, not competitively as the other blockers do, thus increasing its lifetime and effective duration
28
What are major side effects of alpha blockers?
Orthostatic hypotension (fainting when you stand up) and tachycardia
29
Where in the synapse are a1 and a2 receptors?
a1 is post-synaptic, and a2 is pre-synaptic
30
How do a2 receptors decrease sympathetic tone?
They are pre-synaptic and activation exerts an inhibitory effect on norepinephrine release
31
What are the major indications for alpha blockers?
Hypertension, Peripheral Vascular Disease (only small effect), Raynaud's Syndrome, Frostbite
32
What is the difference between vasoconstriction in Raynaud's Syndrome and Atherosclerosis that allows an alpha blocker to be more effective in Raynaud's?
The vessels are still healthy in Raynaud's, so there is more ability of the vessels to undergo normal vasoconstriction or vasodilation
33
What are secondary uses of alpha blockers?
Frostbite sequelae, Pheochomocytoma (with beta blockers pre-surgery), shock, benign prostatic hyperplasia
34
What is the major nerve-ending blocker?
alpha-methyl tyrosine; it blocks tyrosine hdroxylase; major treatment for non-surgical pheochomocytoma
35
What is the mechanism of action for Reserpine? Why is it rarely used?
It empties the vesicles of norepi and epi; it leads to frequent suicide
36
What is the mechanism of action for guanethidine? What is its major indication?
It displaces norepi from the vesicles, and is used in hypertension