Adrenal disorders pt II Flashcards

1
Q

autosomal recessive disorder involving an steroidogenic enzymatic block (defective or absent enzyme) = deficiency in cortisol

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)

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2
Q

for CAH depending on the exact enzymatic block there will be ____ or ______

A

either excessive
or
deficient aldosterone and/or androgen

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3
Q

MC cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)

A

21-hydroxylase (CYP21A)

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4
Q

what are the 3 pathophys presentations of CAH

A
  1. salt wasting CAH (aldosterone def.)
  2. virilizing CAH (androgen excess)
  3. nonclassic CAH - less severe

(1&2 more severe)

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5
Q

s/s of CAH are related to what? (focusing on 21-hydroxylase deficiency)

A
  1. deficiency in mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoids
  2. excess of adrenal androgen
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6
Q

what are the 3 presentations of CAH in females? (21-hydroxylase deficiency)

A
  1. Classic virilizing adrenal hyperplasia
    - genital atypia - clitoral enlargement, labial fusion, and formation of a urogenital sinus
    - signs of adrenal (aldosterone) insufficiency within 1-4 wks if not treated
    — recurrent vomiting, dehydration, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotensive shock
  2. Simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia
    - milder genital atypia
    - variable signs of adrenal insufficiency within 1-4 weeks if not treated
    - precocious puberty - accelerated growth and early skeletal maturation
  3. Nonclassic adrenal hyperplasia
    - noticed during adolescent/early adulthood - oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility
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7
Q

what are the 3 CAH Clinical Presentation in males? (21-hydroxylase deficiency)

A
  1. Classic salt-wasting adrenal hyperplasia
    - grossly normal appearing genitalia with hyperpigmented scrotum, enlarged phallus
    - 1-4 wks - “failure to thrive
    — recurrent vomiting, dehydration, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotensive shock
  2. Simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia
    - 2-4 y/o with precocious puberty - pubic hair, adult body odor, accelerated linear growth and skeletal maturation
  3. ambiguous genitalia or female genitalia
    - inadequate testosterone production in the 1st trimester of pregnancy due to complete androgenic enzymatic block
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8
Q

what are the enzymes affected in ambiguous genitalia or female genitalia (males)?

A

complete androgenic enzymatic block
1. steroidogenic acute regulatory (StAR) protein
2. classic 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (HSD3B2)
3. 17-hydroxylase deficiency (CYP17A1)

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9
Q

work up for CAH

A
  1. Newborn Screening
    - 21-hydroxylase deficiency (CYP21A2)
  2. Ambiguous genitalia
    - immediate hormonal, genetic and chromosomal testing
  3. Hormonal workup
    - steroidogenic enzymes metabolites
    serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone (CYP17) - increased in 21-hydroxylase deficiency
    — other enzyme metabolites measured if less common deficiencies are suspected
    - Serum DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone) - increased (CYP21A1 def.)
  4. Chemistry
    - assess for electrolyte abnormalities associated with aldosterone deficiency
  5. Imaging - not necessary for diagnosis
    - unless r/o or assessing other disorders
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10
Q

If you are r/o other disorders for CAH, what are you imaging?

A
  1. CT abd - r/o bilat adrenal hemorrhage
    - used only in patients without ambiguous genitalia
  2. Pelvic US - assessing organic anomalies associated with ambiguous genitalia
    - look for renal anomalies, female sex organ abnormalities
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11
Q

what is the tx goal for CAH

A
  1. provide the smallest dose of gluco- and mineralocorticoid that will adequately suppress excess androgen precursors
  2. produce normalization of growth velocity and skeletal maturation
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12
Q

tx for CAH

A
  1. Hydrocortisone
    - Initial supraphysiologic doses (1-2 mg/kg/d) divided TID
    — monitor for normalization of serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
    - Maintenance dose (0.3–0.5 mg/kg/d) divided TID
    — adjust dose to maintain normal growth rate and skeletal maturation
  2. Fludrocortisone 0.05 - 0.15 mg daily
    - monitor BP and plasma renin activity
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13
Q

with CAH pts who might you have to refer/consult?

A
  1. Pediatric endocrinologist
  2. Pediatric urologist or gynecologist
    - specializing in genital reconstruction if ambiguous genitalia
  3. Geneticist
  4. Mental health professional
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14
Q

inadequate control of CAH can lead to:

A
  1. precocious puberty (males) and masculinity (females)
  2. rapid skeletal maturation
    - tall children → short adults
  3. adrenal crisis
  4. psychosocial disturbances
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15
Q

A condition resulting from hypersecretion of aldosterone that doesn’t suppress with sodium loading

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism

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16
Q

causes of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

A
  1. bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia - 60-70%
  2. unilateral aldosterone-producing tumor - 30-40%
    - benign adenoma - aka Conn Syndrome
    - malignant carcinoma
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17
Q

28 y/o pt comes in with
refractory hypertension
HA
muscle weakness, fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, paresthesias, tetany
BMP reveals serum sodium of 400 mmol/L (normal: 145 mmol/L
no other risk factors for their HTN
what could they possibly have?

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism
- often onset at young age without other risk factors
- symptoms of hypokalemia - inconsistent finding

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18
Q

someone with primary hyperaldosteronism has increased CO2, what does this mean?

A

metabolic alkalosis (increase bicarbonate)
- results from increased urinary H-/Na+ exchange and shifting of hydrogen ions into the cell due to hypokalemia
- asx or if severe muscle twitching, cramps, tingling in fingers/toes

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19
Q

for initial lab findings of primary hyperaldosteronism, what happens with Plasma Renin Activity (PRA) and Aldosterone Concentration (PAC)

A
  • obtained in AM in a seated position
  • PRA - low
  • PAC - elevated
  • Plasma aldosterone/renin ratio¹
    — normal is < 10
    — ratio > 20-25 (95% sensitivity and 75% specificity for primary aldosteronism)
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20
Q

what are the PAC/PRA Ratio Limitations

A
  1. circadian rhythm of aldosterone secretion
    - Recommended for lab draw:
    — out of bed for 2 hrs
    — seated for 15-60 min before blood draw (between 8-10 AM)
  2. Medications altering lab results
    - Avoid mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (spironolactone and eplerenone), ACE inhibitors, ARBs, direct renin inhibitors
    - Safe BP meds - slow-release verapamil, hydralazine, terazosin, and doxazosin
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21
Q

what is the confirmatory testing for primary hyperaldosteronism

A
  1. Salt loading - oral or IV
    - Oral - 3 d unrestricted salt (> 5g/d)
    serum K+ assessed every day due to increased risk of low K+
    — day 3 assess serum electrolytes and begin 24 h urine collection for aldosterone, sodium and creatinine
    ——– urine aldosterone > 12 mcg/24h - confirms
  2. IV - 2L NS / 4 hr while seated
    - plasma aldosterone concentration > 10 ng/dL - consistent with dx
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22
Q

if you’re doing a salt loading and their 24 hr urine collection comes back normal urine creatinine, what does that ensure?

A

adequate urine sample

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23
Q

if you’re doing a salt loading and their 24 hr urine collection comes back as urine Na > 250 mEq/L, what does that ensure?

A

adequate sodium loading

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24
Q

you suspect primary hyperaldosteronism and order a CT scan of the abdomen as part of your work up. You find a unilateral adrenal mass <4cm. What does that indicate?

A

Conn syndrome

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25
Q

you suspect primary hyperaldosteronism and order a CT scan of the abdomen as part of your work up. You find a unilateral adrenal mass >4cm. What does that indicate?

A

consider carcinoma

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26
Q

you suspect primary hyperaldosteronism and order a CT scan of the abdomen as part of your work up. Nothing was found, what is the next step?

A

adrenal vein sampling
1. assessing aldosterone levels in blood from adrenal vein
- experienced interventional radiologist
- last resort testing - invasive, expensive and often unsuccessful
- recommended only if severely uncontrolled HTN AND adrenalectomy is being considered for tx in order to determine which gland is hyperactive

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27
Q

tx/medical management for Primary Hyperaldosteronism

A
  1. Low sodium diet
  2. K+ sparing diuretics
    - spironolactone (DOC) - mineralocorticoid receptor blockade preventing aldosterone secretion
    — alternative: eplerenone (Inspra) - if unable to tolerate SE of spironolactone
  3. Additional BP meds
    - ACE inhibitor, HCTZ
    - Second-line K+ sparing diuretics: amiloride, triamterene
28
Q

who might you have to refer to for a pt with Primary Hyperaldosteronism

A
  1. Endocrinologist
    - once screening indicates hyperaldosteronism
  2. Cardiologist
    - in the presence of long-standing HTN as cardiovascular complications are common
29
Q

a pt with Primary Hyperaldosteronism
what must you monitor?

A

close monitoring of BP and K+

30
Q

Adrenal tumors are categorized as follows:

A
  1. functional (hormone-secreting) or silent
  2. benign or malignant
  3. incidentaloma¹
31
Q

CT findings indicative of adrenal malignancy:

A
  1. > 4 cm (40mm)
  2. nodule growth (comparison required)
  3. density > 10 HU
32
Q

a highly vascular tumor of the sympathetic paraganglia that arises most frequently from the adrenal medulla, that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

Pheochromocytoma

33
Q

what are known as catecholamines

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

34
Q

Pheochromocytoma is MC in what location?

A

adrenal medulla (90%)

35
Q

avg age of onset for Pheochromocytoma

A

40
can occur in early childhood and late adulthood

36
Q

what is the Rules of 10’s for Pheochromocytoma

A

10% are bilateral
10% are extra-adrenal
10% are malignant

MOST are unilateral, on the adrenal medulla, and benign

37
Q

what is the classic triad of Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. Episodic palpitations
  2. HA
  3. profuse diaphoresis
  • associated with anxiety, pallor, presyncope/syncope, tachycardia
  • paroxysms last < 1 hour
  • Classic triad plus HTN is highly suggestive
38
Q

what can cause the classic triad of Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. emotions/physical stressors
  2. change in position
  3. urination (“bladder pheo”)
  4. various medications
39
Q

what is the most sensitive test for Pheochromocytoma
describe this test

A

Plasma free metanephrines
1. collection technique is key
- sitting for 15 minutes before collection;
if elevated - repeat in supine after lying down x 30 min
- check with lab
2. interpretation
- normal results = r/o pheochromocytoma
- elevated - assess urine metanephrines
3. interfering factors - false elevation
- any stressor, sleep apnea, certain drugs

40
Q

what is the lab work up for Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. Urine fractionated metanephrines and creatinine
    - collection options:
    — 24 h collection (preferred)
    — overnight collection
    — shorter collection time frames
    ——- check with lab on normal ranges
    - interpretation:
    - Normal: total urinary metanephrine levels < 1300 mcg/24 hours

Both plasma and urine metanephrine evaluation both need to be > 3x upper limit of normal to be diagnostic

41
Q

work up - imaging for Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. CT/MRI w/ contrast chest/abdomen/pelvis
    - MRI preferred in children and pregnant women
  2. PET scan - utilized to rule out malignancy
42
Q

management of Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. Complete resection of tumor is recommended
  2. Refer to a surgeon who is experienced in resection of pheochromocytomas
    - BP extremely labile during surgery
    - anesthesiology needs to also be experienced in managing pheo surgical patients
  3. Post-surgery assess ACTH level
    - risk of post-surgical adrenal insufficiency
43
Q

while waiting for surgery what is given to pts to manage their Pheochromocytoma

A
  1. BP needs to be consistently < 160/90 prior to surgery
    - alpha-adrenergic blockers - at least 14 d prior to surgery
    — doxazosin (Cardura)
    — prazosin (Minipress)
    — terazosin (Hytrin)
    - additional BP agents if needed - BB’s, CCB’s, ACEI
  2. Diet - high salt and increased water intake
    - start 3 days after alpha adrenergic blockade due to risk of orthostasis
44
Q

complications of Pheochromocytoma

A

hypertensive crisis
cardiac arrhythmias
cerebral vascular accident
myocardial infarction

45
Q

benign neoplasm of adrenocortical cells that does not secrete steroids is what disease?

A

Nonfunctioning adrenal adenoma

46
Q

benign neoplasm >1 cm arising from the adrenal cortex that secrete steroids independently from ACTH or the RAA system
is what disease?

A

Functional adrenal adenoma
- cells of the zona glomerulosa - Primary Aldosteronism
- cell of the zona fasciculata - Cushing’s Disease
- cells of the zona reticularis - hyperandrogenism (rare)
- adrenal medulla - pheochromocytoma

47
Q

presentation of adrenal adenoma

48
Q

presentation of functional adrenal adenoma

A

related to respective cellular involvement
- zona glomerulosa - hyperaldosteronism
- zona fasciculata - Cushing’s Disease
- zona reticularis - hyperandrogenism
- adrenal medulla - pheochromocytoma

49
Q

work up for adrenal adenoma

A
  1. Detailed H&P to determine presence hormone excess
  2. Labs ordered based upon suspected adrenal zone affected by mass
  3. Imaging - CT abdomen
50
Q

management for adrenal adenoma

A

refer to experienced surgeon

51
Q

etiology and risk factors of adrenal carcinoma

A

most are sporadic
some hereditary cancer syndromes

risk factors:
children living in southern Brazil (environmental and genetic)
adrenal hyperplasia

52
Q

adrenal carcinoma MC happens when?

A

2 peaks
- birth -10 years - functional tumors more common
- 30-40 y/o - nonfunctional tumors are more common

functional (60%)
nonfunctional (40%)

53
Q

presentation of functional adrenal carcinoma

A

will present with symptoms respective of adrenocortical cells involved
1. virilization, cushinoid symptoms, hyperaldosteronism
2. feminization - rare
- gynecomastia in males
- precocious sexual development in young females

54
Q

presentation of nonfunctional adrenal carcinoma

A

presents with sx related to malignancy and/or metastasis
1. most present with advanced disease and multiple metastatic sites
2. Hx: Fever, wt loss, abd pain/tenderness/fullness, back pain
3. PE - palpable, firm, adherent mass of the abdomen

55
Q

work up of adrenal carcinoma

A
  1. hormonal evaluation
    - pheochromocytoma
    - hyperaldosteronism
    - hypercortisolism
    - hyperandrogenism
    — FSH, LH, DHEAS, prolactin, 17-OHP, and total and free testosterone
  2. Image
    - CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
    - PET - increased uptake leads to a higher index of suspicion
  3. Fine Needle Aspiration
    - only to r/o metastasis in known malignancy
    must r/o pheochromocytoma prior to FNA
    - not recommended to simply differentiate between adenoma and carcinoma
    — unreliable with risk of tumor seeding into the retroperitoneum
56
Q

management of adrenal carcinoma

A
  1. Staging of the malignancy
    - TNM Staging
  2. Refer to surgeon for complete resection
57
Q

MOA of glucocorticoids

A

Mimic physiologic steroids
1. Inhibit the inflammatory response
2. Decrease chemotaxis of inflammatory cells
3. Depress migration of polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes
4. Lympholysis (lysis of lymphocytes) → Decreased # of circulating lymphocytes
5. Reverse capillary permeability
6. Reduce phagocytic and killing ability of neutrophils & macrophages

58
Q

indication of glucocorticoids

A

inflammatory conditions - lungs, skin, GI tract, neurologic eye, kidney, musculoskeletal; allergic reactions; autoimmune disorders, endocrine disorders

59
Q

caution with glucocorticoids in ?

A

PUD, CVD or HTN with CHF, varicella, TB, acute psychosis, DM, osteoporosis, glaucoma

60
Q

CI of glucocorticoids

A

hypersensitivity, coadministration with live vaccines, systemic fungal infections

61
Q

dosing for glucocorticoids

A

Dosing titration indicated if >7-10 days of therapy

62
Q

DDI of glucocorticoids

A

live vaccine, inactivated vaccine, other immunosuppressants (oral/topical)

63
Q

monitoring for glucocorticoids

A

elevated glucose, Na retention, K+ loss

64
Q

pt ed for glucocorticoids

A

take with meals - avoid GI upset

65
Q

SE of glucocorticoids

A
  1. Endocrine and metabolic
    - Suppression of HPA axis
    - Growth failure in children
    - Hyperinsulinemia/insulin resistance
    - Abnormal glucose tolerance test result/DM
  2. GI
    - Gastric irritation, peptic ulcer
    - Acute pancreatitis
    - Fatty infiltration of liver
  3. CV
    - HTN
    - Congestive heart failure in predisposed patients
  4. Hemopoietic
    - Leukocytosis
    - Neutrophilia
    - Lymphopenia
    - Eosinopenia
    - Monocytopenia
  5. immune
    - Suppression of delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity (important with Mantoux testing for tuberculosis)
    - Inhibition of leukocyte and tissue macrophage migration
    - Inhibition of cytokine secretion/action
    - Suppression of the primary antigen response
  6. MSK
    - Osteoporosis, spontaneous fractures
    - Avascular necrosis of femoral and humeral heads and other bones
    - Myopathy (particularly of the proximal muscles)
  7. Ophthalmic
    - Posterior subcapsular cataracts
    - Elevated intraocular pressure/glaucoma
  8. CNS
    - Sleep disturbances, insomnia
    - Euphoria, depression, mania, psychosis
    - Obsessive behaviors
    - Pseudotumor cerebri
  9. Other cushingoid features
    - Hypokalemia