Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Admissions Test > Admissions Test > Flashcards

Admissions Test Flashcards

1
Q

Mixture

A

A substance made up of two or more substances not chemically bonded together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abundance

A

The percentage of atoms in the universe with a particular mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Alkali Metal + Chlorine =

A

Metal Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alkali Metal + Water =

A

Metal Hydroxide + Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Reactivity down G1?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Reactivity down G17?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Melting points down G1?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Melting points down G17?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Filtration

A

Separates insoluble solids from liquids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Crystallisation

A

Evaporation separates soluble solids from solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fractional Distillation

A

Separates liquids in a mixture with similar boiling points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Rf value

A

Distance travelled by solute / Distance travelled by solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mixtures can be separated by…

A

Physical processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Chlorine state at room temperature…

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bromine state at room temperature…

A

Liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Iodine state at room temperature…

A

Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transition elements I need to know…

A

Chromium, Manganese, Iron, Cobalt, Nickel, Copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What substances form ionic bonds?

A

Metals and Non-metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Giant Ionic Lattice

A

Huge 3D network of ions. Regular structure of positive and negative ions alternately arranged and held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When can ionic compounds conduct electricity?

A

When molten or in solution (aq).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What substances form covalent bonds?

A

Two non-metals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Melting points of ionic substances?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Examples of Giant Covalent Structures…

A

Graphite, Diamond, Silicon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Alloying a metal makes it…

A

Less reactive and harder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nanoparticles

A

1-100nm, a few hundred atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Nanotube properties

A

High tensile strength, electrical conductors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Uses of nanoparticles…

A

Medical applications, sun creams, deodorant, catalysts, cosmetics, electronics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Structure of fullerenes is based on…

A

Hexagonal rings of carbon atoms but they may also contain rings with five or seven carbon atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

First fullerene

A

Buckminsterfullerene (C60) which has a spherical shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fine particles diameter?

A

100nm - 2500nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Avogadro’s number

A

6.022 x 10^23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Moles =

A

Mass / Mr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Concentration (1) =

A

Mass / Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Convert cm^3 into dm^3…

A

Divide by 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

% yield =

A

Actual yield / Theoretical Yield x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Atom economy =

A

100 x Mr of desired product / Mr of all reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Concentration (2)=

A

Moles / Volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

1 mol of gas at room temperature and pressure occupies…

A

24 dm^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Acid + Metal

A

Salt + Hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Acid + Metal hydroxide

A

Salt + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Acid + Metal oxide

A

Salt + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Acid + Metal carbonate

A

Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Acid + Metal Hydrogen Carbonate

A

Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Acidic Oxide + Base

A

Salt + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Acid used is HCl…

A

Metal Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Acid used is H2SO4…

A

Metal Sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Acid used is HN03…

A

Metal Nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Mass of one mole of a substance in grams is numerically equal to…

A

Its Mr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How can metals be placed in order of reactivity?

A

Add the metals to water or acid and observe which ones react the most vigorously (fizzing).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Metals less reactive than carbon extracted by…

A

Reduction with carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is removed from a compound in a reduction reaction?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are metals more reactive than carbon extracted?

A

Electrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an acid?

A

A substance with a pH less than 7, that releases hydrogen ions in a solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HCl

A

Hydrochloric Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

HNO3

A

Nitric Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

H2SO4

A

Sulfuric Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a base?

A

A substance (metal oxide, hydroxide or carbonate) that will react with an acid in neutralisation reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

H+ + OH-

A

H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a salt?

A

A compound formed when some or all of the hydrogen from an acid is replaced by a metal e.g. copper sulfate, copper has replaced the hydrogen from sulfuric acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Reactivity Series

A

Potassium, Sodium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium, Carbon, Zinc, Iron, Tin, Lead, Hydrogen, Copper, Silver, Gold, Platinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When K, Na, Li and Ca react with water…

A

Fizzes and gives off hydrogen gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When Mg, Al, C, Zn and Fe react with water…

A

Reacts very slowly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When tin, lead, hydrogen, copper, silver, gold and platinum react with water…

A

No reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When K, Na, Li and Ca react with acid…

A

Explodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

When Mg, Al, C, Zn and Fe react with acid…

A

Fizzes and gives off hydrogen gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When tin and lead react with warm acid…

A

Reacts slowly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When copper, silver, gold and platinum react with acid?

A

No reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What type of reaction occurs when acids react with some metals to produce salt and hydrogen gas?

A

Redox Reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Soluble salts can be made from…

A

Acids by reacting them with solid insoluble substances such as metals, metal oxides, hydroxides or carbonates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When making soluble salts how much solid do we add?

A

We add the solid to the acid until no more acid reacts - filter excess solid off to make a salt solution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What do we do with the salt solution when making soluble salts?

A

Solution can be crystallised to form solid salts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Strong acid - ionisation

A

Strong acids are completely ionised in aqueous solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Examples of strong acids?

A

HCl, HNO3, H2SO4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Weak acid - ionisation

A

Weak acids are only partially ionised in aq solutions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

For a given concentration of acid, the stronger the acid…

A

The lower pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Acids are neutralised by…

A

Alkalis e.g. soluble metal hydroxides, and bases (e.g. insoluble metal hydroxide & metal oxides).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do aqueous solutions of alkalis contain?

A

OH-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Electrolysis

A

Using electricity to break down a substance and extract elements from a compound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Electrolyte

A

A liquid or solution containing ions can conduct electricity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Positive electrode

A

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Negative electrode

A

Cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which electrode do positive ions move towards?

A

Cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which electrode do negative ions move towards?

A

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Metals are formed at the…

A

Cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Non-metals are formed at the…

A

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Examples of weak acids?

A

Ethanoic, Citric, Carbonic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When are metals not produced at the cathode?

A

When the metal is more reactive than hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When electrolysing metal halides, where are halogen gases produced?

A

At the anode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is produced at the anode when electrolysing metal sulfates?

A

Oxygens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Gains electrons at the…

A

Cathode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Loses electrons at the…

A

Anode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Electrolysis products of molten iron bromide?

A

Iron (s) and Bromine (l)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Electrolysis products of zinc oxide?

A

Zinc and Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How are metals more reactive than carbon extracted?

A

By electrolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is added to aluminium before electrolysis and why?

A

Cryolite - lowers the m.p. of aluminium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the electrodes made out of during the electrolysis of aluminium?

A

Graphite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is formed in the electrolysis of aluminium?

A

Aluminium at the cathode, Oxygen at the anode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Products of sodium chloride electrolysis?

A

Chlorine gas and hydrogen gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

H20 (l) =

A

H+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Products of lead bromide electrolysis?

A

Lead at the cathode, Bromine at the anode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When is hydrogen produced at the cathode?

A

If the metal is more reactive than hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Exothermic Reaction

A

Energy transferred to the surroundings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Examples of exothermic reactions…

A

Combustion, respiration, oxidation, neutralisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Endothermic Reaction

A

Energy transferred from the surroundings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Examples of endothermic reactions…

A

Thermal decomposition, citric acid & sodium hydrogen carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Breaking bonds

A

Endothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Making bonds

A

Exothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the voltage produced by a cell dependent upon?

A

A number of factors including type of electrode and electrolyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How is a simple cell made?

A

By connecting two different metals in contact with an electrolyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How do rechargeable cells & batteries work?

A

Chemical reactions are reserved when an electrical external current is supplied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are fuel cells supplied by?

A

An external source of fuel e.g. hydrogen & oxygen or air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What happens to the fuel in a fuel cell?

A

It is oxidised electrochemically within the fuel cell to produce a potential difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What do cells contain?

A

Chemicals which react to produce electricity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

In non-rechargeable cells & batteries what happens?

A

The chemical reactions stop when one of the reactants have been used up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Are alkaline batteries rechargeable or non-rechargeable?

A

Non-reachargeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Overall reaction in a hydrogen fuel cells?

A

Involves the oxidation of hydrogen to produce water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What do hydrogen fuel cells offer?

A

A potential alternative to rechargeable cells and batteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Mean rate of reaction (1) =

A

Quantity of reactant used / Time taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Mean rate of reaction (2) =

A

Quantity of product formed / Time taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Factors affecting rate of reaction…

A

Temperature, surface area of a solid, concentration of reactants in solution, pressure of gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What do catalysts provide?

A

Catalysts provide an alternative route for the reaction to take place, which has a lower activation energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Le Chatelier’s Principle

A

The idea that you change the conditions of a reversible reaction at equilibrium, the system will try & counteract the change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

In a reversible reaction, equilibrium moves in the direction of the exothermic reaction…

A

You will get a greater yield for the exothermic reaction, & a lesser yield for the endothermic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

In a reversible reaction, increasing temperature…

A

Causes equilibrium to move in the endothermic direction to try to decrease it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

In a reversible reaction, equilibrium moves in the direction of the endothermic reaction…

A

You will get a greater yield in the endothermic reaction, and a lesser yield in the exothermic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Changing the pressure of a reversible reaction only affects an equilibrium…

A

Involving gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

If you increase the pressure in a reversible reaction…

A

The equilibrium tries to reduce it - it moves in the direction when there are fewer molecules of gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

If you decrease pressure in a reversible reaction…

A

Equilibrium tries to increase it - it moves in the direction where there are no molecules of gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Changing the concentration of either the reactants or the products in a reversible reaction means that…

A

The system will no longer be at equilibrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Decreasing the concentration of products in a reversible reaction…

A

The system tries to increase it again by reducing the amount of reactants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

If you decrease the temperature in a reversible reaction, the equilibrium…

A

Will move in the exothermic direction to transfer more thermal energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

The direction of a reversible reaction can be changed by…

A

Changing the conditions of the reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Equilibrium is reached when…

A

The forward and reverse reactions occur at exactly the same rate in apparatus which prevents the escape of reactants and products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

If you increase the temperature in a reversible reaction, equilibrium…

A

Moves in the endothermic direction to try and decrease it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What does increasing the concentration of reactants in a system make?

A

A greater yield of products to try and decrease concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Decreasing the concentration of products in a reversible reaction…

A

The system tries to increase it again by reducing the amount of reactants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Crude oil

A

Mixture of hydrocarbons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Crude oil formation

A

Formed over millions of years from remains of ancient biomass (mostly planktons that were buried in mud).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Hydrocarbonds

A

Compound containing atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Alkane

A

Hydrocarbon that only has single bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

First 6 Alkanes

A

Methane, ethane, propane, butane, pentane, hexane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

General Formula for alkanes…

A

CnH2n+2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

The longer the hydrocarbon chain length (bp)…

A

The higher its boiling point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

The longer the hydrocarbon chain length (v)…

A

The higher the viscosity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

The longer the hydrocarbon chain length (f)…

A

The lower the flammability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Fractional distillation of crude oil…

A

Crude oil is vaporised, different molecules rise up the fractionating column and cool down, condensing at different points along the column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

A fuel…

A

A substance which when reacted with oxygen releases oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

5 useful fuels from fractional distillation…

A

Petrol, diesel, kerosene, heavy fuel oil, liquefied petroleum gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Other uses of gases from fractional distillation…

A

Solvents, lubricants, polymers, detergents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Complete Combustion

A

Hydrocarbon + Oxygen –> Water + Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Cracking…

A

The process of breaking down a long hydrocarbon into smaller molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Products of cracking?

A

Short alkanes and alkenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Why is cracking useful?

A

Smaller hydrocarbons are more useful than longer ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Two types of cracking?

A

Catalytic and steam cracking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Alkenes –>

A

Hydrocarbons with a double bond - C=C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are alkenes used for?

A

Formation of polymers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Test for alkenes…

A

Bromine water - colour change from orange to colourless.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which one out of alkenes or alkanes are more reactive?

A

Alkenes are more reactive than alkanes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

First 6 alkenes…

A

Ethene, propene, butene, pentene, hexene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

General formula for alkenes…

A

CnH2n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Are alkanes saturated of unsaturated?

A

Saturated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is a fraction?

A

Hydrocarbons with similar boiling points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Where are short chain hydrocarbons condensed within the fractionating column?

A

At the top of the column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the crude oil heated to in the fractionating column?

A

350 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Are longer or shorter hydrocarbons more or less in demand?

A

Shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Homologous Series

A

Family of organic compounds with same general formula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Combustion

A

The reaction of a fuel with oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What state are alkanes at room temperature?

A

Gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is a fractionating column used to do?

A

Separate crude oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Temperature moving up the fractionating column…

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Incomplete combustion

A

Hydrocarbon + Oxygen –> Water + Carbon Monoxide + Carbon (sometimes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What flame do alcohols burn with?

A

A blue flame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How can we test for the presence of water?

A

White anhydrous copper (II) sulfate will turn to blue hydrate copper (II) sulfate or cobalt chloride paper will turn from blue to pink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Test for carbon dioxide…

A

Colourless lime water becomes cloudy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Methane

A

CH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Ethane

A

C2H6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Propane

A

C3H8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Butane

A

C4H10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Pentane

A

C5H12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Hexane

A

C6H14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Hydrogenation

A

An addition reaction where an alkene reacts with hydrogen to form an alkane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Which halogens can react with alkenes?

A

Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Ethanoic Acid + Sodium Carbonate –>

A

Sodium Ethanoate + Water + Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Ester functional group

A

COO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Alcohols react with sodium metal to produce…

A

Sodium alkoxide + Hydrogen gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Sodium + Ethanol –>

A

Sodium Ethoxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What is produced when alcohols are burned?

A

Carbon dioxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Carboxylic Acid general formula…

A

CnH2n+1COOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Ethanol oxidised…

A

Ethanol + Oxidising Agent –> Ethanoic Acid + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Example of an oxidising agent?

A

Potassium dichromates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

pH of a solution of carboxylic acid…

A

Less than 7.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Butene isomers…

A

But-1-ene, But-2-ene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What gas is released when carbonates fizz in a solution of carboxylic acid?

A

Ester gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Esters

A

Fragrant, volatile compounds used in flavourings and perfumes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Addition polymerisation

A

Unsaturated monomer molecules open up their double bonds and join to form polymer chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Monomers in condensation polymerisation…

A

Have two functional groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid –>

A

Sodium ethanoate + Water + Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How many products are formed in addition polymerisation?

A

1 - the polymer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

How many products are formed in condensation polymerisation?

A

2 - the polymer and a small simple molecule (usually water but not always.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What groups do an amino acid contain?

A

A basic amine group and acidic carboxyl group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Monomers that make up addition polymers have a…

A

Double carbon bond - C=C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Smallest & simplest amino acid?

A

Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Polymers formed from amino acids?

A

Polypeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Isomers of alcohol with 3 carbons…

A

Propan-1-ol, Propan-2-ol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

First 6 carboxylic acid…

A

Methanoic Acid, Ethanoic Acid, Propanoic Acid, Butanoic Acid, Propanoic Acid, Hexanoic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

State of alcohols at room temperature?

A

Liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What can ethanol be formed from?

A

The fermentation of sugars.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Catalytic cracking…

A

Alkane heated to form vapours which are passed over a hot powdered aluminium oxide catalyst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Alcohol functional group?

A

OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Steam Cracking…

A

Hydrocarbon vapours mixed with steam and then heated to very high temperatures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Catalytic cracking temperature…

A

550 degrees approx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Steam cracking temperature…

A

800 degrees approx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Are alcohols soluble in water?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Which type of combustion are alkenes more likely to experience?

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What can alkenes undego?

A

Addition reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Alkene + Hydrogen –>

A

Alkane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Alkene + Water (steam) –>

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Alkene + Halogen –>

A

Halogenalkane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Functional group of alkenes…

A

C=C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Methanol

A

CH3OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Ethanol

A

C2H5OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Propanol

A

C3H7OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Butanol

A

C4H9OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Pentanol

A

C5H11OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Hexanol

A

C6H13OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

As the length of alcohol molecules increases…

A

Their solubility increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

pH of alcohol solution?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Alcohols are oxidised to form…

A

Carboxylic Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What is produced when carboxylic acids react with carbonates?

A

Salt, Water and Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Carboxylic Acid + Alcohol –>

A

Esters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What happens when carboxylic acids dissolve in water?

A

They produce an acidic solution but because they only partially dissociate in water, they are weak acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Ethene + Bromine –>

A

Dibromoethane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Ethanoic Acid + Sodium Carbonate –>

A

Sodium Ethanoate + Water + Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

General formula for alcohols…

A

CnH2n+1OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Methanoic Acid

A

CH2O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Ethanoic Acid

A

C2H4O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Propanoic Acid

A

C3H6O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Butanoic Acid

A

C4H8O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Pentanoic Acid

A

C5H10O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Hexanoic Acid

A

C6H12O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Carboxylic Acids react w/ …

A

Metals to form a salt + hydrogen, react with bases to form salt and water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Alcohol + Carboxylic Acid –>

A

Ester + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Ethanol + Ethanoic Acid –>

A

Ethyl Ethanoate + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Aq solutions of ethanol are produced when…

A

Sugar solutions are fermented using yeast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Chemical Analysis

A

Process of establishing what chemicals are present in a substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Pure Substance

A

Made of a single element or compound, not mixed with any other substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

How can pure and impure substances be distinguished?

A

By their melting & boiling points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

The boiling & melting points of pure substances…

A

Have a definite value - one specific temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Impure substances change…

A

State at a range of substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Formulation

A

A complex mixture designed as a useful product + for a specific purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Chromatography

A

A process to separate the soluble substances from a mixture e.g. dyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Stationary Phase

A

Paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Mobile Phase

A

Solvent e.g. water, ethanol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

How many spots do pure substances form on a chromatogram?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

How many spots do impure substances form on a chromatogram?

A

2 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What does a substance’s Rf value depend on?

A

Solubility of the solvent - the higher the Rf value, the more soluble the substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Hydrogen Test

A

Lit splint will give a squeaky pop in a test tube of hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Oxygen Test

A

Relights a glowing splint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Chlorine Test

A

Bleaches damp litmus paper white.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Flame Test

A

A test to identify metal ions (cations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Frame produced from a lithium containing compound…

A

Crimson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Frame produced from a copper containing compound…

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Frame produced from a sodium containing compound…

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Frame produced from a potassium containing compound…

A

Lilac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

Frame produced from a calcium containing compound…

A

Orange-red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

How can metal ions also be identified?

A

By Sodium Hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Which ions produce white precipitates?

A

Al, Mg, Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Which white precipitate dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide?

A

Al

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Cu (II) ions precipitate…

A

Blue Precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Fe (II) ions precipitate

A

Green Precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Fe (III) ions precipitate

A

Brown Precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Carbonate ion test…

A

Add an acid to generate carbon dioxide gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Halide ion test…

A

Add silver nitrate and nitric acid to generate a solid silver halide precipitate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Silver Chloride colour…

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Silver Bromide colour…

A

Cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

Silver Iodide colour…

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Sulfate ion test…

A

Add barium chloride and HCl - forms white precipitate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Instrumental Analysis

A

Use of scientific technology to perform chemical analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Instrumental Analysis is…

A

Accurate, Sensitive, Rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Flame emission spectroscopy…

A

Instrumental analysis tool for identifying metal ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Flame emission spectroscopy method…

A

Sample placed in flame, light emitted is passed through a spectroscope to give a spectrum which can be compared to a reference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Limewater

A

Calcium Hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

If a sample contains a mixture of ions…

A

Some flame colours can be masked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Two sources of evidence for gases in the early atmosphere…

A

Gases in porous rocks & atmospheres on other planets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Volcanoes give off which gases?

A

Carbon Dioxide, Nitrogen and Water Vapour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Gases in trace amounts in the early atmosphere…

A

Methane and Ammonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Photosynthesis

A

Water + Carbon Dioxide –> Glucose + Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

What gas was not present in the early atmosphere?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

After algae evolved, what gas increased in the atmosphere?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What is limestone mainly made up of?

A

Made up of a calcium carbonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Where can carbon be locked from the atmosphere?

A

Fossil fuels and in sedimentary rocks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Fossil Fuels

A

Coal, crude oil, natural gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Ammonia

A

NH3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

% of Nitrogen in today’s atmosphere?

A

78%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

% of Oxygen in today’s atmosphere?

A

21%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

% of Argon in today’s atmosphere?

A

0.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

% of Carbon Dioxide in today’s atmosphere?

A

0.04%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Main Greenhouse Gases

A

CO2, CH4, H2O vapour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Example of active transport…

A

Uptake of nitrates into plant root cells from the soil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

Which molecules are dissolved in the cytoplasm, not suspended?

A

Salt ions and sugar molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

What happens to chemical energy from respiration before it can be utilised in movement?

A

Transferred / converted to Ek.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What is it called when water moves out of the cytoplasm of a cell?

A

It has been crenated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is the unit of ultrafiltration in the kidney?

A

The nephron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What is the slowest part of the reflex arc?

A

Synapses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

When is turgor pressure created?

A

When plant cells fill with water - cell membrane pushed on cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Where are mitochondria found in sperm cells?

A

In the mid-section of a sperm cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

What do egg cells contain to be utilised by the embryo?

A

Egg cells contain large amounts of food storage for the development of the embryo once fertilisation has taken place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Can fats and carbohydrates be stored by the body?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Where is the genetic material found in a sperm cell?

A

In a nucleus in the head-section of the sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

Effect of hormones?

A

Generalised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

What main molecule does not pass into the blood of healthy individuals from the kidneys?

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Can proteins be stored by the body?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

Example of diffusion…

A

Urea entering the bloodstream from animal liver cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

What are synapses limited by?

A

Rate of diffusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

What is urea filtered by?

A

The kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Which molecules are suspended in the cytoplasm - NOT DISSOLVED?

A

Fat molecules and proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

Lithium Mass Number…

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

Aluminium Atomic Number…

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

Argon Atomic Number…

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Helium Mass Number…

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

Lithium Atomic Number…

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

Oxygen Atomic Number…

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Phosphorous Atomic Number

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Helium Atomic Number…

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

Hydrogen Mass Number…

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

Sulfur Atomic Number…

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

Neon Atomic Number…

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

Hydrogen Atomic Number…

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

Silicon Atomic Number…

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

Boron Atomic Number…

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

Carbon Atomic Number…

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

Magnesium Atomic Number…

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

Caesium Atomic Number…

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

Potassium Atomic Number…

A

19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

Beryllium Atomic Number…

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

Fluorine Atomic Number…

A

9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

Nitrogen Atomic Number…

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Sodium Atomic Number…

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

Chlorine Atomic Number…

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

Factors affecting diffusion…

A

Concentration gradient, temperature, surface area, diffusion distance, size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

What does alcohol do regarding ADH?

A

Alcohol suppresses ADH production, kidneys reabsorb less water so large volumes of diluted urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

What is the affect of ecstasy on ADH Production?

A

Increases the production of ADH, so kidneys reabsorb more water, so small volumes of concentrated urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Water brought to Earth by…

A

Icy comets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

CO2 dissolved in oceans + reacted with metal oxides to form…

A

Metal carbonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Types of shortwave radiation hitting the Earth’s surface…

A

UV and visible light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

What main type of radiation is absorbed by greenhouse gases?

A

Infrared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

Shortwave radiation is emitted by…

A

The sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

Longwave radiation emitted by the…

A

Earth’s crust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

What percentage of sun’s energy which reaches Earth is reflected…

A

Back into space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

What are the products of burning fossil fuels?

A

Releases carbon dioxide & water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Examples of Carbon Sinks…

A

Rainforests and oceans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

What is it called when CO2 is pumped into the ground to be absorbed by porous rocks…

A

Carbon capture and storage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

What is a biofuel?

A

Fuel derived from plant material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

Biofuels are…

A

Carbon neutral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

High temperatures in an engine causes…

A

Nitrogen oxides to be produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

What is acid rain caused by?

A

Nitrogen oxides & sulfur dioxide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

How is sulfur dioxide formed?

A

Formed by sulfur impurities in fossil fuels being burned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

Carbon dioxide is formed by the…

A

Complete combustion of fuel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Methane + Oxygen

A

Carbon Dioxide + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

Ammonia + Oxygen

A

Nitrogen + Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

Particulates

A

Cause global dimming + health problems for humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

Potable Water

A

Water that is safe to drink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

Which element can be added to drinking water to sterilise it?

A

Chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

What else can be used to sterilise water?

A

Ozone (O3) and UV Light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Sterilising water means to…

A

Kill any bacteria that may be in the water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

Reverse osmosis

A

Uses membranes to separate dissolved salts from salty water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Water can be purified by…

A

Distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

Sewage treatment involves…

A

The removal of organic matter and harmful microorganisms + chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Sewage treatment screening

A

Removing large solids + grit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

Sedimentation

A

Allowing large particles to settle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

Aerobic treatment of water…

A

Use microbes with oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

Anaerobic digestion…

A

Breaking down sewage sludge with microbes and oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

Smelting

A

Extracting metal from an ore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
374
Q

How can we purify copper?

A

Electrolysis - extracted by smelting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
375
Q

Copper can extracted from solutions of copper compounds…

A

By electrolysis + displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
376
Q

Phytomining

A

Extracting metal from the ground using plants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
377
Q

Bioleaching

A

Using microbes to extract metals from the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
378
Q

What does LCA stand for?

A

Life cycle assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
379
Q

Disadvantages of using distillation to purify water…

A

Requires large amounts of energy, expensive.

380
Q

How can sewage sludge be treated?

A

By separation, broken down by digestion (anaerobic), and dried.

381
Q

What can sewage sludge be used for?

A

Can be used for fertiliser as a fuel to generate electricity.

382
Q

How is most potable water produced?

A

By choosing an appropriate source of fresh water, passing the water through filter beds and sterilising.

383
Q

Why may desalination be required?

A

In areas where fresh water is limited.

384
Q

How can desalination be carried out?

A

By distillation or reverse osmosis.

385
Q

Disadvantage of desalination?

A

Large amounts of energy.

386
Q

What things produce large amounts of waste water?

A

Urban lifestyles + Industrial processes.

387
Q

What has to happen to waste water before being released into the environment?

A

It has to be treated.

388
Q

Phytomining process…

A

Uses plants to absorb metal compounds. The plants are harvested and burned to produce ash containing metal compounds.

389
Q

Bioleaching process…

A

Uses bacteria to produce leachate solutions that contain metal compounds.

390
Q

What happens with the metal compounds produced from bioleaching and phytomining?

A

We can process the to extract the copper by displacement with scrap iron or electrolysis from the solutions.

391
Q

Why are LCAs carried out?

A

To assess environmental impact of products in each of a number of stages.

392
Q

1st stage of LCA…

A

Extracting and processing raw materials.

393
Q

2nd stage of LCA…

A

Manufacturing and packaging.

394
Q

3rd stage of LCA…

A

Use and operation during its lifetime.

395
Q

4th stage of LCA…

A

Disposal at the end of its useful life, including transport + distribution at each stage.

396
Q

What does paint over metal act as?

A

A barrier to water and oxygen.

397
Q

What is stainless steel resistant to?

A

Corrosion

398
Q

Steel coated in magnesium resistant to corrosion…

A

Provides sacrificial protection - Mg more reactive than Fe.

399
Q

Metals can…

A

Oxidise in air.

400
Q

Metal oxidation occurs at…

A

Different rates.

401
Q

Very unreactive elements such as gold may…

A

Not undergo corrosion at all.

402
Q

Corrosion

A

Process which happens when a metal continues to oxidise over a long period of time.

403
Q

What does corrosion do to metals?

A

Weakens the metal - who metal could become a metal oxide.

404
Q

What is rusting?

A

Form of corrosion - iron or steel reacts with water + oxygen.

405
Q

Iron + Oxygen

A

Iron (III) Oxide

406
Q

What colour is Iron (III) oxide?

A

Orange-brown

407
Q

How can rusting be prevented easily?

A

Keeping water and oxygen away from iron or steel.

408
Q

What can metals be stored in to prevent rusting?

A

Can be stored in an atmosphere of nitrogen or argon (inert).

409
Q

Why can a desiccant be used to prevent rusting?

A

It absorbs water vapour and therefore the metal remains dry.

410
Q

Physical barriers against rusting…

A

Painting, oiling & greasing, coating with plastic.

411
Q

Electrolyte in electroplating…

A

Contains ions of the plating metal.

412
Q

Electroplating

A

Electrolysis is used to add a thin layer of metal onto an object.

413
Q

What is at the cathode and anode in electroplating?

A

Cathode - iron or steel objects, Anode - plating metal.

414
Q

Example of object electroplated?

A

Steel cutlery electroplated with the use of a silver anode and silver nitrate solution.

415
Q

Galvanisation…

A

Iron coated in zinc. Zinc layer prevents oxygen and water from reaching the iron.

416
Q

Why does coating iron with zinc protect it?

A

Zinc is more reactive than iron - sacrificial metal.

417
Q

Bronze…

A

Alloy of copper + tin.

418
Q

Brass…

A

Alloy of copper + zinc.

419
Q

Common properties of transition metals…

A

Able to form stable ions in different oxidation states, they often form coloured compounds, used as catalysts (as ions or atoms).

420
Q

Steels

A

Alloys of iron which contain diff. amounts of carbon & additional metal elements.

421
Q

Properties of steels are affected by…

A

Different compositions.

422
Q

What does high carbon steel contain in addition to iron?

A

Carbon

423
Q

High carbon steel properties?

A

Strong & brittle.

424
Q

Low carbon steel properties?

A

Softer, more easily shaped.

425
Q

What does stainless steel contain in addition to iron?

A

Chromium & nickel.

426
Q

Stainless steel properties?

A

Hard, resistant to rusting.

427
Q

Aluminium does not…

A

React with water.

428
Q

Why does Al not react with water?

A

Protected by a natural layer of aluminium oxide.

429
Q

What is aluminium resistant to?

A

Corrosion

430
Q

Magnalium…

A

Aluminium + Magnesium alloy.

431
Q

What glass is usually used?

A

Soda-lime

432
Q

How is soda-lime made?

A

By melting silicon dioxide with sodium carbonate (limestone) - then allow the molten mixture to solidify into glass.

433
Q

Borosilicate glass?

A

Another type of glass formed when silicon dioxide heated with boron trioxide.

434
Q

Difference between borosilicate glass and soda-lime glass?

A

Higher b.p.

435
Q

Clay Ceramics

A

Bricks, China, Porcelain

436
Q

Forms of poly(ethene)…

A

Both high and low density forms.

437
Q

LDPE

A

Low Density Poly(ethene)

438
Q

LDPE properties?

A

Flexible, unreactive, can be made into films.

439
Q

HDPE

A

High Density Poly(ethene)

440
Q

HDPE properties?

A

Strong, flexible, resists shattering, resists chemical attack.

441
Q

Thermosoftening plastics…

A

Melts when heated, do not have cov. bonds between neighbouring polymer molecules.

442
Q

Thermosetting plastics…

A

Do not melt when heated, burns and char. Covalent bonds are strong & prevent the plastic melting when heated.

443
Q

Composite materials…

A

Made up of two or more different materials which have different properties.

444
Q

What are composite materials made up of?

A

Reinforcement and matrix (binds reinforcement together).

445
Q

Fibre glass

A

Reinforcement - glass fibres, Matrix - polymer resin.

446
Q

Reinforced concrete

A

Reinforcement - steel, Matrix - concrete.

447
Q

Carbon Fibre reinforced polymers

A

Reinforcement - polymers, Matrix - polymer resin.

448
Q

Chipboard

A

Reinforcement - wood chips, Matrix - resin glue.

449
Q

How can composite materials be separated?

A

By physical processes.

450
Q

Glass ceramics have…

A

A high melting point, stiff, brittle, poor electrical conductivity, poor thermal conductivity, poor strength, strong under compression.

451
Q

Metals have…

A

High melting point, malleable good electrical conductivity, good thermal conductivity, strong.

452
Q

Plastics have…

A

Usually a low melting point, usually flexible, poor electrical conductivity, poor thermal conductivity, relatively weak strength.

453
Q

Composites have…

A

High m.p, stiff, brittle, poor electrical conductivity, poor thermal conductivity, strong.

454
Q

What is ammonia?

A

Important industrial product used in fertilisers, explosives and dyes.

455
Q

What is ammonia manufactured by?

A

The Haber Process - reversible reaction.

456
Q

Haber Process

A

N2 + 3H2 -><- 2NH3

457
Q

What can the Haber Process reach?

A

A dynamic equilibrium.

458
Q

1st step of the Haber Process

A

N. extracted from air & H, which is obtained from natural gas, pumped through pipes.

459
Q

2nd step of the Haber Process

A

Compressor, increase the mixture of gases to 200 atms.

460
Q

3rd step of the Haber Process

A

Pressurised gases heated to 450 degrees, and passed through a tank, containing an iron catalyst.

461
Q

4th step of the Haber Process

A

Mixture cooled so that NH3 liquefies and can be removed.

462
Q

What happens to unreacted nitrogen and hydrogen in the Haber process?

A

Recycled - saves money & increases overall yield.

463
Q

Fertilisers

A

Chemical formulations which contain nitrogen, phosphorus & potassium compounds to promote plant growth.

464
Q

What are fertilisers containing the three elements - nitrogen, potassium and phosphorous?

A

NPK fertilisers.

465
Q

What do fertilisers have to be?

A

Soluble in water.

466
Q

Soluble nitrogen forms?

A

NH4- (ammonium ions), NO3- (nitrate ions).

467
Q

Soluble phosphate forms?

A

PO43-

468
Q

Ammonium nitrate…

A

NH4NO3 - Nitrogen = essential element.

469
Q

Phosphate rock can react w/ nitric acid to form…

A

Calcium nitrate + Phosphoric acid (neutralised w/ ammonia to make ammonium phosphate).

470
Q

Phosphate rock can react w/ sulfuric acid to form…

A

Single superphosphate (calcium sulfate + calcium phosphate).

471
Q

Phosphate rock can react w/ phosphoric acid to form…

A

Triple Super Phosphate (calcium phosphate).

472
Q

Ammonium Sulfate…

A

Salt used as a fertiliser - made by reacting ammonia solution with sulfuric acid.

473
Q

pH of pure water…

A

7

474
Q

How can the pH of water be tested?

A

Checked with universal indicator paper.

475
Q

Distilled water…

A

Contains no dissolved solids = have a pH of 7.

476
Q

Waste water treatment

A

Screened by passing through a mesh to remove solids and grits, settle in large sedimentation tanks, liquid effluent produced & a semi-solid sludge. Solid sludge taken away and digested by anaerobic bacteria.

477
Q

When sludge is anaerobically digested…

A

There is the absence of oxygen, bacteria produce biogas.

478
Q

Biogas can be…

A

Burned for electricity.

479
Q

Liquid effluent contains…

A

A large amount of organic molecules and harmful microorganisms.

480
Q

Aerobic digestion…

A

In the presence of oxygen, aerobic bacteria digest the organic molecules and harmful microorganisms.

481
Q

After treatment what can happen to liquid effluent?

A

Can be safely discharged into the sea.

482
Q

Phytomining process…

A

Plants grown on land containing the metal compound that we want - absorb the metal compound - concentrate it in their tissue. Harvested & burned.

483
Q

Bioleaching process…

A

Mixed with low-grade ore & the bacteria carry out chemical reactions & produce a solution called a leachate - contains the metal compound we want.

484
Q

LCAs can be…

A

Biased

485
Q

What sometimes needs to happen regarding LCAS?

A

May need to make estimates or value judgements - not always accurate.

486
Q

Raw materials obtained by…

A

Quarrying or mining.

487
Q

Recycling metals…

A

Melt them and then recast them into different products.

488
Q

Hydrogen can be produced by…

A

Reacting methane w/ steam.

489
Q

Disproportionation reaction

A

A reaction in which the same species is simultaneously oxidised and reduced.

490
Q

Oxidation state

A

Represents the total number of electrons that the element has either accepted by an element or removed from an element to get to its current form.

491
Q

Positive Oxidation State

A

Shows the total number of electrons which have been removed from an element to get to its present state.

492
Q

Negative Oxidation State

A

Shows the total number of electrons added to an element to get to its present state.

493
Q

Oxidation

A

Involves an increase in oxidation state.

494
Q

Reduction

A

Involves a decrease in oxidation state.

495
Q

An oxidising agent…

A

Is normally a non-metal or positive ion, cause oxidation reactions to take place & gains electrons from other atoms or ions (is itself reduced).

496
Q

A reducing agent…

A

Is usually a metal or negative ion, donates electrons to another element or ion (reducing the other species), is itself oxidised.

497
Q

Redox Reaction

A

One in which both oxidation & reduction takes place.

498
Q

Example of a redox reaction?

A

Displacement reactions.

499
Q

Carbonate ion

A

CO32-

500
Q

Examples of small covalently bonded molecules…

A

Water, ammonia, methane.

501
Q

Metals exist as…

A

A giant structure of positively charged ions surrounded by delocalised electrons.

502
Q

What forces can exist between molecules?

A

Intermolecular forces

503
Q

What do intermolecular forces need to be overcome in?

A

Melting & Boiling

504
Q

pH is a measure of…

A

A measure of hydrogen ion concentration.

505
Q

A change of 1 on the pH scale corresponds to…

A

A change by a factor of 10 in H+ ion concentration.

506
Q

Monoprotic acids?

A

Can only donate one proton.

507
Q

Examples of monoprotic acids?

A

HCl, CH3COOH (acetic acid), HNO3

508
Q

Polyprotic acid

A

Can donate two or more protons.

509
Q

Examples of polyprotic acids…

A

H2SO4, H3PO4 (phosphoric acid), C10H16N2O8 (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)

510
Q

Diprotic acids

A

Can donate two protons e.g. H2SO4.

511
Q

Triprotic Acids

A

Can donate three protons e.g. H3PO4

512
Q

Catalysts do not…

A

Affect the position of equilibrium.

513
Q

Catalysts are…

A

Not used up in a reaction & are chemically unchanged at the end of a reaction.

514
Q

In an exothermic reaction…

A

Delta H is negative - negative enthalpy change.

515
Q

In an endothermic reaction…

A

Delta H is positive - positive enthalpy change.

516
Q

If a reversible reaction is exothermic in one direction…

A

It is endothermic in the other direction.

517
Q

Direct current…

A

Used in electrolysis to maintain a consistent, one-way flow of electrons.

518
Q

Polyamides

A

Polymers where the repeating units are held together by amide links.

519
Q

Formula of an amide group?

A

CONH2

520
Q

The biodegradability of polymers depends on…

A

The types of intermolecular forces within the polymer chains.

521
Q

Biodegradable polymers…

A

Are broken down by natural processes such as decomposition.

522
Q

Non-biodegradable polymers…

A

Can take hundreds of years to break down and can have long-term environmental impacts.

523
Q

The reactivity of a metal is linked to its…

A

Tendency to form positive ions & the ease of extraction of the metal.

524
Q

Fluoridation

A

The addition of small amounts of fluoride to drinking water to prevent tooth decay.

525
Q

Selective Breeding steps

A

1 - Choose parent w/ desired characteristics.
2 - Breed them together.
3 - Choose best offspring.
4 - Continue over many generations.

526
Q

Purpose of Selective Breeding…

A

Desirable characteristics.

527
Q

2 reasons for Selective Breeding?

A

Produce food crops, produce domesticated animals.

528
Q

Selectively breed for…

A
  • Disease resistance (food crops).
  • More milk/meat (animals).
  • Gentle nature (domestic animals).
  • Unusual / large flowers.
529
Q

Disadvantage of selective breeding in animals?

A

Inbreeding - health issues.

530
Q

Disadvantage of selective breeding in plants?

A

Crops - very similar DNA - genetic disease can kill all plants.

531
Q

What part of the brain controls unconscious activities i.e. heart rate and breathing rate.

A

Medulla Oblongata

532
Q

What part of the brain controls intelligence, personality, conscious thought and high-level functions e.g. language and verbal memory?

A

Cerebrum

533
Q

What part of the brain controls balance, coordination of movement and muscle activity?

A

Cerebellum

534
Q

Accommodation

A

The process of changing the shape of the lens to focus on near or distant objects.

535
Q

What lens can be used to treat hyperopia?

A

Convex spectacle lenses.

536
Q

What lens can be used to treat myopia?

A

Concave spectacle lenses.

537
Q

Other eye treatments…

A

Contact lenses, laser eye surgery, replacement lenses.

538
Q

Myopia

A

Short-sightedness: when distant objects appear blurred, therefore rays of light focus in front of the retina.

539
Q

Hyperopia

A

Long-sightedness: when near object looks blurred because rays of light focus behind the retina.

540
Q

Reasons for hyperopia…

A

Eyeball too short - distance between lens and retina is too small; a loss of elasticity of the lens - cannot become thick enough to focus - often age-related.

541
Q

What happens to the pupil in bright light?

A

Radial muscles relax, circular muscles contract, contracted pupil = smaller.

542
Q

Reasons for myopia…

A

Eyeball being too long/elongated, distance between lens and retina = too great; lens beings too thick and curved - light focused in front of the retina.

543
Q

Suspensory Ligament

A

Tightens and slackens to control the shape of the lens.

544
Q

Sclera

A

Tough, white outer-layer of the eye. Helps protect eye from injury.

545
Q

What happens to the pupil in dim light?

A

Radial muscles contract, circular muscles relax, pupil becomes dilated.

546
Q

How does the eye focus on near objects?

A

Ciliary muscles contract, suspensory ligaments slacken, so lens is thick and more curved (refracts light rays more strongly).

547
Q

How does the eye focus on distant objects?

A

Ciliary muscles relax, suspensory ligaments pulled tight, lens is thinner and flatter - only refracts light rays slightly.

548
Q

Where is the cell body found on the sensory neurone?

A

Along/on the neurone fibre.

549
Q

Where is the cell body found on the motor neurone?

A

Beginnings of the neurone fibre.

550
Q

Hormones used in IVF?

A

FSH, LH

551
Q

FSH inhibits…

A

Oestrogen

552
Q

Oestrogen stimulates…

A

LH

553
Q

Where is progesterone produced?

A

Corpus luteum

554
Q

Hormones produced in the pituitary gland?

A

LH + FSH + ADH

555
Q

Where are auxins produced?

A

Meristems

556
Q

Where is ethene gas produced in plants?

A

Gas produced by ageing parts of the plant.

557
Q

Gibberellin

A

Stimulates seed germination, stem growth and flowering.

558
Q

Ethene

A

Influences the growth of the plant by controlling cell division - also stimulates enzymes that cause fruit to ripen.

559
Q

Auxins

A

Control the growth of a plant in response to light - phototropisms & gravitropisms/geotropisms.

560
Q

Progesterone

A

Maintains uterus lining.

561
Q

Progesterone inhibits…

A

FSH & LH

562
Q

FSH

A

Egg development and maturation.

563
Q

LH

A

Ovulation

564
Q

Oestrogen

A

Causes uterus lining to rebuild.

565
Q

If the motor area is stimulated during electrical stimulation, the patient is…

A

Making involuntary movement.

566
Q

Using electrical stimulation…

A

Scientists stimulate different parts of the brain with a weak electric current and ask patients to describe what they experienced.

567
Q

MRI

A

Brain imaging technique - magnetic resonance imaging.

568
Q

EEGs

A

Created and studied to observe the electrical activity of the brain.

569
Q

If the visual area is stimulated by electrical stimulation, the patient may…

A

See a flash of colour.

570
Q

The brain controls…

A

Complex behaviour.

571
Q

How to MRIs work?

A

Use strong magnetic fields and radio waves to show details of brain structure and function.

572
Q

Levels of organisation…

A

Cells - tissues - organs - organ systems.

573
Q

Role of mitosis in…

A

Growth by increasing cell numbers, repair of tissues, replacement of worn out cells, and asexual reproduction.

574
Q

Role of meiosis in…

A

Reducing the chromosome number.

575
Q

Full chromosome complement restored in…

A

Fertilisation

576
Q

Asexual reproduction involves…

A

Two parents and offspring are genetically identical when no mutations occur.

577
Q

Sexual reproduction involves…

A

Two parents, offspring are genetically different in relation to each other and the parents - leading to increased variation.

578
Q

Iris reflex

A

Controls the size of your pupil.

579
Q

Optic Nerve

A

Carries impulse between the brain and eye.

580
Q

Cells found in the retina…

A

Rod & Cone cells.

581
Q

How many rod cells are approximately in the retina?

A

120 million

582
Q

What is the pancreas?

A

A coordination centre

583
Q

CNS

A

Brain + Spinal Cord

584
Q

Oestrogen inhibits…

A

FSH release.

585
Q

Oestrogen stimulates…

A

Luteinising hormone

586
Q

What hormones can be found in contraceptive pills?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone.

587
Q

What hormones are issues as fertility drugs?

A

FSH & LH

588
Q

Disadvantages of IVF treatment…

A

Emotional & physically stressful, success rates are not high, can lead to multiple births - putting both the babies and mother at risk.

589
Q

The endocrine system…

A

Is composed of glands which secrete chemicals called hormones directly into the bloodstream.

590
Q

What happens to the amino acids in the liver?

A

Deaminated to form ammonia.

591
Q

What happens to ammonia in the blood?

A

Ammonia is toxic so it is immediately converted to urea for safe excretion.

592
Q

What hormone controls water levels?

A

ADH

593
Q

Where is ADH released from?

A

Pituitary gland

594
Q

What does ADH cause?

A

More water to be reabsorbed back into the blood from the kidney tubules as a result of increased permeability.

595
Q

How are thyroxine levels controlled?

A

By negative feedback.

596
Q

After auxins are produced…

A

They move backwards to stimulate cell elongation (enlargement) process which occurs in the cells just behind the tips.

597
Q

Extra auxin promotes…

A

Growth in the shoot but inhibits growth in the root.

598
Q

When a shoot tip is exposed to light…

A

More auxin is accumulated on the side that is in the shade than the side that is in the light.

599
Q

What does the accumulation of auxins on the shade cause?

A

Cells to grow faster on the shaded side, to the shoot bends towards the light.

600
Q

When a shoot is growing sideways…

A

Gravity produces an unequal distribution of auxin in the tip, with more auxin on the lower side.

601
Q

When more auxin is concentrated on the lower side of the shoot, what happens?

A

The lower side grows faster, so the shoot bends upwards.

602
Q

Excess ______ are removed via the kidneys in the urine?

A

Water, ions and urea are removed via the kidneys in the urine.

603
Q

3 uses of auxins?

A

Killing weeds, growing from cuttings with rooting powder, growing cells in tissue culture.

604
Q

How can auxins be used to kill weeds?

A

Most weeds are broad-leaved, which are the type of plants that auxins affect. Auxins disrupt their normal growth patterns, which kills them.

605
Q

What happens when we grow cuttings using rooting powder containing auxins?

A

They will produce roots rapidly and start growing new plants, allowing growers to produce clones on plants quickly.

606
Q

What drugs may need to be taken with a mechanical valve?

A

Anticlotting drugs.

607
Q

A biological heart transplant may…

A

Be rejected from the body.

608
Q

To reduce the chance of a heart being rejected, what drugs can be taken?

A

Immunosuppressants.

609
Q

Which individuals cannot take statins?

A

People with liver disease or people who are pregnant or breastfeeding.

610
Q

Tissue

A

Group of cells with similar structures working together for a specific function.

611
Q

Amylase is produced in…

A

Salivary gland & pancreas.

612
Q

Proteases are produced in…

A

Stomach, pancreas, small intestine.

613
Q

Lipases are produced in…

A

Pancreas & small intestine.

614
Q

Function of bile?

A

Emulsifies fats & neutralises food from stomach.

615
Q

Risks of food tests?

A

Ethanol is flammable, Biuret is corrosive.

616
Q

Differentiation

A

Process where a cell becomes specialised/adapted to perform specific functions.

617
Q

Stem Cell

A

Undifferentiated cell with the potential to become specialised.

618
Q

Cloning

A

Production of an identical offspring by asexual reproduction/mitosis.

619
Q

Which diseases can be treated with stem cell treatment?

A

Paralysis, diabetes, blindness.

620
Q

Therapeutic Cloning

A

An embryo is produced with the same genes as the patient.

621
Q

How can stem cells be used in regards to plants?

A

Rare species can be cloned to protect from extinction, crop plants with special features such as disease resistance can be cloned to produce large numbers of identical plants for farmers.

622
Q

Measles can be spread…

A

By droplet infection.

623
Q

HIV can be spread…

A

By sexual contact - exchange of bodily fluids (shared needles, blood transfusions).

624
Q

What does a plant infected by TMV look like?

A

Mosaic pattern of discolouration on leaves.

625
Q

What does TMV cause?

A

Destroys chloroplasts, so decreases photosythesis.

626
Q

Name 2 bacterial diseases?

A

Salmonella, gonorrhoea.

627
Q

Salmonella bacteria can be found in…

A

Raw meat, chicken, eggs.

628
Q

Symptoms of salmonella?

A

Fever, abdominal cramps, diarrhoea, vomiting.

629
Q

Symptoms of gonorrhoea?

A

Yellow/green discharge from penis/vagina, pain on urination.

630
Q

Long-term effects of gonorrhoea?

A

Long-term pelvic pain, infertility, ectopic pregnancies.

631
Q

Name a fungal disease in humans?

A

Athlete’s foot.

632
Q

Name a fungal disease in plants?

A

Rose Black Spot

633
Q

Malaria spread by…

A

Female anopheles mosquitoes

634
Q

Malaria damages…

A

Blood & liver cells.

635
Q

Symptoms of malaria?

A

Fevers and shaking.

636
Q

How is rose black spot spread?

A

Carried on the wind or water.

637
Q

Symptoms of measles?

A

Fever and red skin rash.

638
Q

What does rose black spot look like?

A

Purple or black spots develop on leaves, which often turn yellow and drop early.

639
Q

Plasma

A

A component of blood - yellow liquid which carries blood cells, proteins and dissolved substance around the body.

640
Q

Platelets function?

A

Blood clotting.

641
Q

Arteries (compared to veins)…

A

Thicker walls, more elastic tissue, no valves.

642
Q

Veins (compared to veins)…

A

Thinner walls, less elastic tissues, have valves.

643
Q

Blood flowing in arteries…

A

Oxygenated (generally), more nutrients, less wastes.

644
Q

Blood flowing in veins…

A

Deoxygenated, less nutrients, more wastes.

645
Q

Double circulatory system.

A

One part carries blood between the heart and lungs - the other carries blood between the heart and the rest of the body.

646
Q

Left side of the heart…

A

Is thicker.

647
Q

Method to unblock a coronary artery…

A

Stent

648
Q

Statins reduce…

A

Blood cholesterol levels.

649
Q

What valves are used to replace a damaged heart valve?

A

Mechanical or biological valves.

650
Q

Natural Pacemaker…

A

A group of cells in the right atrium that controls the resting heart rate.

651
Q

Artificial Pacemaker…

A

Sends strong, regular electrical signals to the heart to stimulate it to contract properly.

652
Q

What do artificial hearts do?

A

Can be used as a temporary treatment while waiting for a heart transplant.

653
Q

Ribcage…

A

Protects the heart & lungs.

654
Q

What is the name of the tissue that covers and protects the surface surface of plants?

A

Epidermal Tissue

655
Q

Xylem and phloem are organised…

A

In bundles, with xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside - the vein.

656
Q

Potometer used to…

A

Stimulate transpiration rate.

657
Q

Organs

A

Aggregations of tissues performing specific functions.

658
Q

Coronary heart disease?

A

Layers of fatty material builds up inside the coronary arteries, narrowing them.

659
Q

The build up of fatty deposits in the coronary arteries reduces…

A

The flow of blood through the coronary arteries, resulting in a lack of oxygen for heart muscle.

660
Q

Stents used to…

A

Keep the coronary arteries open.

661
Q

Heart valves may become faulty in some people, preventing…

A

The valve from opening fully, or the heart valve might develop a leak.

662
Q

In the case of heart failure…

A

A donor heart or heart & lungs can be transplanted.

663
Q

Risks of cardiovascular disease?

A

Diet, smoking and lack of exercise.

664
Q

Examples of cardiovascular disease?

A

Coronary heart disease, heart attacks, heart failure, faulty valves.

665
Q

Benefits of stents…

A

Relatively quick surgery, effective for a long time, blood can flow naturally.

666
Q

Issues with stents…

A

Requires surgery, the patient could later develop a blood clot near the stent; a thrombosis, does not treat the cause of the issue.

667
Q

Statins alter…

A

The balance of cholesterol in the bloodstream, increasing the good cholesterol (HDL) and decreasing the bad cholesterol (LDL).

668
Q

Cholesterol is…

A

A type of lipid.

669
Q

Benefits of statins?

A

Ensures that blood can keep flowing, increase the vol. of good cholesterol (HDL), but decrease the vol. of bad cholesterol (LDL), lowers the risk of coronary heart disease and other cardiovascular diseases.

670
Q

Issues with statins?

A

Need to be taken regularly, can also cause side effects such as headaches, such as headaches, kidney failure & liver problems.

671
Q

Heart valves may become faulty due to…

A

Age, heart attacks & infections.

672
Q

Biological valves…

A

Come from another human, a pig, or a cow.

673
Q

Which type of valves last longer?

A

Mechanical valves.

674
Q

Homozygous

A

The individual has two alleles for this gene.

675
Q

Heterozygous

A

The individual has two different alleles for this gene.

676
Q

Genotype

A

The genetic makeup of an organism for a particular gene.

677
Q

Phenotype

A

The displayed characteristic due to the interactions between alleles.

678
Q

Female genotype

A

XX

679
Q

Male genotype

A

XY

680
Q

Polydactyly

A

Genetic condition causing the individual to have extra fingers or toes.

681
Q

Is polydactyly recessive or dominant?

A

Dominant condition - PP or Pp (homozygous dominant or heterozygous).

682
Q

Is cystic fibrosis dominant or recessive?

A

Recessive - cc (homozygous recessive), would result on cystic fibrosis.

683
Q

Methods for screening embryos?

A

Amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, IVF

684
Q

Concerns of screening embryos?

A

Causing miscarriage, ethical concerns, inaccurate results, expensive.

685
Q

Benefits of screening embryos?

A

Know if your child will have a disorder, able to decide if to proceed with a pregnancy or abortion.

686
Q

Is Huntington’s dominant or recessive?

A

Dominant

687
Q

2 gametes in flowering plants?

A

Pollen and egg cells.

688
Q

Recessive

A

The individual needs two copies of their alleles for its phenotype to be seen.

689
Q

What do injections/implants/skin patches release?

A

Slowly releases progesterone to inhibit the maturation & release of eggs for a number of months or years.

690
Q

What do barrier contraceptive methods do?

A

Prevent the sperm from reaching the egg.

691
Q

Intrauterine devices…

A

Prevent the implantation of an embryo or releases hormones.

692
Q

Dominant

A

The individual only needs one copy of this allele for its phenotype to be seen.

693
Q

Auxins used in growing cells in tissue culture…

A

Auxins are added to the growth medium, along with nutrients, to stimulate the cells to divide to form both roots & shoots.

694
Q

When a shoot tip is exposed to light…

A

More auxin accumulated on the side that is in the shade compared to the side that is in the light.

695
Q

Gibberellin used to control dormancy?

A

Seeds can be treated with gibberellin to alter dormancy & make them germinate @ times of the year they wouldn’t normally. Can also ensure all seeds in a batch germinate at the same time.

696
Q

Gibberellins used to induce flowering?

A

Some plants require certain conditions to flower i.e. longer days, low temperatures. Gibberellins allows plants to flower without a change in their environment, or to grow bigger flowers.

697
Q

Gibberellins used regarding fruits?

A

Seedless fruits do not grow as large as seeded fruits, but if gibberellins are added to these fruits, they will grow larger to match the size of the normal varieties.

698
Q

Ethene influences…

A

The growth of plants by controlling cell division. It also stimulates enzymes that causes fruit to ripen.

699
Q

Ethene’s use commercially…

A

It can be used to speed up the ripening of fruits either when they are still on the plants or during transport to shops.

700
Q

Disadvantages of dialysis?

A

Carefully controlled diet / long periods connected to a machine (poor quality of life as immobile when connected).

701
Q

Concentration of urea in the dialysis fluid…

A

Zero/none.

702
Q

2 treatments for kidney failure?

A

Dialysis and kidney transplant.

703
Q

Muscle adaptations?

A

Special proteins for concentration, many mitochondria for energy, store glycogen to release glucose for respiration.

704
Q

What cells keep the phloem alive?

A

Companion cells

705
Q

Surgical contraceptive methods…

A

Female + Male sterilisation.

706
Q

Genetic Engineering

A

1 - Select desired characteristic.
2 - Isolate gene w/ restriction enzymes.
3 - Insert gene into vector - joined by a ligase enzyme.
4 - Replicate

707
Q

GM crops include…

A

Crops that are resistant to insect attack or to herbicides. Generally show increased yields.

708
Q

Concerns of GM crops?

A

The effect on populations of wild flowers & insects, the effects of eating GM crops on human health have not been fully explored.

709
Q

Genetic Engineering

A

Modifying the genome of an organism to give a desired characteristic.

710
Q

Tissue Culture

A

Using small groups of cells from part of a plant to grow identical new plants.

711
Q

What is tissue culture important for?

A

Preserving rare plant species or commercially in nurseries.

712
Q

Cuttings

A

Produce many identical plants from a parent plant.

713
Q

Embryo transplants

A

Splitting apart cells from a developing animal embryo before the become specialised, then transplanting the identical embryos into host mothers.

714
Q

2 examples of genetic engineering in practice…

A

Bacterial cells engineered to produce insulin, plant crops engineered to be resistant to disease / have bigger & better fruits.

715
Q

Fossils may be formed from…

A

Hard parts of animals not decaying properly, conditions didn’t allow decay, minerals replaced parts of the organisms it decayed, traces (e.g. footprints) preserved.

716
Q

Why is the fossil record incomplete?

A

Soft bodies of early animals decayed easily, geological activities destroyed fossils.

717
Q

Extinction can be caused by…

A

New predators, new diseases, one species outcompeting another.

718
Q

Example of a disease resistant to antibiotics?

A

MRSA

719
Q

Antibiotics should not be…

A

Prescribed inappropriately e.g. should not be prescribed for viral infections.

720
Q

People should complete…

A

Their course of antibiotics.

721
Q

Agricultural use of antibiotics is…

A

Restricted

722
Q

3 types of adaptations?

A

Structural, behavioural, functional.

723
Q

Animals may compete for…

A

Water, mates, territory, food.

724
Q

Plants may compete for…

A

Nutrients, water, space, light.

725
Q

Abiotic factors

A

Light intensity, temperature, moisture, soil pH, wind intensity, carbon dioxide levels, oxygen levels.

726
Q

Biotic factors

A

Food availability, new predators, new pathogens, species outcompeting.

727
Q

Percentage of biomass transferred from one trophic level to another?

A

0.1%

728
Q

Biomass is lost from the food chain because…

A

Not all of the material is eaten e.g. bones + teeth, energy lost as faeces.

729
Q

Extremophile

A

Organism that survives and reproduces in the most difficult conditions.

730
Q

Functional adaptations?

A

Internal adaptations, can be related to processes such as reproduction and metabolism.

731
Q

Extremophiles can live in…

A

Very high concentrations of salt.

732
Q

Examples of extreme environments?

A

Very high temperatures, pressure or salt concentration.

733
Q

Stable Community

A

One where all the species and environmental factors are in balance, so that population sizes remain constant.

734
Q

Aerobic respiration

A

Exothermic reaction that breaks down glucose to release energy using oxygen.

735
Q

Aerobic respiration equation?

A

Glucose + Oxygen –> Carbon Dioxide + Water

736
Q

Oxygen debt

A

Amount of oxygen needed to break down lactic acid.

737
Q

What do plants produce in anaerobic respiration?

A

Plants produce ethanol and carbon dioxide.

738
Q

Functions of the liver?

A

Detoxification, breakdown of old blood cells, remove lactic acid (convert to glucose).

739
Q

Fermentation

A

Glucose –> Ethanol + Carbon Dioxide

740
Q

Anaerobic respiration equation

A

Glucose –> Lactic Acid

741
Q

Photosynthesis has…

A

Endothermic

742
Q

Correlation

A

A link between 2.

743
Q

Causation

A

One thing leads to another.

744
Q

Risk factors for developing cancer…

A

Smoking, obesity, common viruses, UV exposure, genetic factors.

745
Q

Mothers drinking alcohol during pregnancy can cause…

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome.

746
Q

Long-term heavy drinking can lead to…

A

Liver cirrhosis, liver cancer & brain damage.

747
Q

Carcinogen in cigarette smoke…

A

Tar

748
Q

Tobacco smoke & cardiovascular diseases…

A

Increased heart rate, damage artery lining, increase risk of clot formation, increase blood pressure.

749
Q

Smoking effect on fetuses…

A

Premature birth, low birthweight, still birth.

750
Q

High fat diet leads to…

A

Fat deposits in coronary arteries.

751
Q

Spread of malaria can be stopped by…

A

Using mosquito nets, using insecticides, removing standing water, take antimalarial drugs.

752
Q

Nitrate ions in plants…

A

Make proteins.

753
Q

Magnesium ions in plants…

A

Make chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

754
Q

Symptom of magnesium deficiency in plants?

A

Antibacterial chemicals/poisons.

755
Q

Physical adaptations in plants to defend against herbivores?

A

Thorns/hairy stems & leaves/dropping or curling/mimicry.

756
Q

Physical barriers against pathogens (plants)…

A

Cellulose cell wall / tough-waxy cuticle / bark on trees / leaves fall.

757
Q

Digitalis originates from…

A

Foxgloves

758
Q

Aspirin originates from…

A

Willow Trees

759
Q

What is used in preclinical testing?

A

Cells, tissues and live animals used in preclinical testing.

760
Q

Double-blind trial?

A

Neither the doctors nor the patients know who gets the real drug / placebo.

761
Q

Stage 1 of Drug Development

A

Preclinical testing

762
Q

Stage 2 of Drug Development

A

Phase 1 clinical trials - Low doses tested on a few healthy individuals to check for side-effects.

763
Q

Stage 3 of Drug Development

A

Phase 2 clinical trials - Low doses tested on a few healthy individuals to check for side-effects.

764
Q

Stage 4 of Drug Development

A

Phase 3 clinical trials - Large number of people are tested to check that the drug works.

765
Q

Producing mAbs…

A

Inject mouse w/ a pathogen, combining B-lymphocytes w/ tumour cells - creates a hybridoma cell, placed in a petri dish to produce lots of antibodies.

766
Q

Hybridoma cells can produce…

A

Lots of antibodies and still divide rapidly by mitosis.

767
Q

Microorganism that produces penicillin…

A

Penicillium

768
Q

What are drugs tested for?

A

Toxicity, efficacy and dose.

769
Q

To reduce the risk of measles…

A

Most young children are vaccinated against measles.

770
Q

HIV can be controlled with…

A

Antiretroviral drugs

771
Q

Treatment for gonorrhoea

A

Antibiotics.

772
Q

Treating rose black spot…

A

Can be treated using fungicides and/or removing and destroying the affected leaves.

773
Q

To restrict the spread of malaria, we can prevent…

A

Mosquitoes from breeding together.

774
Q

How can plant diseases be detected?

A

Stunted growth, spots on leaves, areas of decay (rot), growths, malformed stems or leaves, discolouration, the presence of pets.

775
Q

Can identify plant diseases by..

A

Referencing a gardening manual or website, taking infected plants to a laboratory to identify the pathogen, using testing kits that contain mAbs.

776
Q

Stunted growth in plants can be caused by…

A

A nitrate deficiency.

777
Q

Chlorosis can be caused by…

A

A magnesium deficiency.

778
Q

Health

A

A state of physical and mental wellbeing.

779
Q

Factors that affect health?

A

Diet / Stress / Life situations (e.g. hygiene) / pathogens / immune system.

780
Q

Pathogens spread by…

A

Air/droplet infection, direct contact, water.

781
Q

Methods to prevent the spread of disease?

A

Isolation, maintain good hygiene, destroy vectors, vaccination.

782
Q

TMV virus spread by…

A

Direct contact/vectors.

783
Q

3 Viral diseases

A

Measles, HIV/AIDS, TMV.

784
Q

Measles

A

Can lead to blindness & brain damage.

785
Q

Most phenotypic features are…

A

The result of multiple genes rather than a single gene inheritance.

786
Q

Chromosomes contain…

A

DNA

787
Q

Protein synthesis involves the production…

A

Of proteins from amino acids.

788
Q

Genetic engineering in a medical sense?

A

Looking at ways to treat HIV, sickle cell anemia, Huntington’s and CF.

789
Q

Antibiotic resistance is an example of…

A

Evolution through natural selection.

790
Q

Variation can be…

A

Genetic/inherited (resulting in a range of phenotypes), environmental (affects a range of phenotypes.

791
Q

Nasal Cavity

A

Air warmed and filtered as it enters the body.

792
Q

Trachea

A

Brings air into the lungs. Supported by rings of cartilage that prevent it collapsing.

793
Q

Bronchus

A

Branches off the trachea to bring air into the lungs -supported by cartilage rings.

794
Q

Bronchiole

A

Branch off the bronchi.

795
Q

Alveoli

A

Small air sacs that are the site of gas exchange.

796
Q

Lung

A

Organ where gas exchange occurs.

797
Q

Ribs

A

Protect internal organs of the thorax.

798
Q

Thorax

A

Part of the body between the neck and abdomen.

799
Q

Intercostal muscles

A

Muscles between the ribs that aid breathing.

800
Q

Diaphragm

A

Sheet of muscle below the ribs that aids breathing.

801
Q

Pleural membranes

A

Thin layers that reduce friction between the lungs and inside of the chest wall during breathing.

802
Q

Pleural Fluid

A

Fluid found in the pleural cavity (between the pleural membrane layers). It further reduces friction during breathing.

803
Q

Inhalation

A

Intercostal muscles contract, ribs move up and out, diaphragm contracts, moving downwards, thorax increases in vol. and pressure decreases, causing air to enter the lungs.

804
Q

Exhalation

A

Intercostal muscles relax, ribs move down and in, diaphragm relaxes, returning to its domed shape, thorax decreases in vol. and pressure increases, forcing air out of the lungs.

805
Q

What can ECGs be used to do?

A

Monitor heart activity.

806
Q

What does ECG stand for?

A

Electrocardiogram.

807
Q

ECG

A

Looks at the electrical activity of the heart which is what controls the heart’s activity. Sensors attached to the body are couple w/ a machine, that gives an ECG reading. Normal and abnormal activity can be identified.

808
Q

Digestion

A

The breakdown of large, insoluble molecules of food into smaller, soluble molecules.

809
Q

Rectum

A

Stores faeces prior to egestion.

810
Q

Anus

A

Where faeces are egested.

811
Q

Peristalsis

A

The process by which food moves through the digestive system - a wave of muscle contractions in the gut wall which forces food down the gut.

812
Q

Absorption

A

Involves the small, soluble molecules from digestion being taken into the bloodstream through the wall of the intestine.

813
Q

Ingestion

A

Intake of substance into the body via the mouth e.g. through eating and drinking.

814
Q

Assimilation

A

The movement of digested food molecules into the cells where they are used.

815
Q

Egestion

A

The passing of undigested food as faeces through the anus.

816
Q

Excretion

A

The removal of waste products from the body and substances that are in excess.

817
Q

Urinary system

A

Includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra.

818
Q

Lifestyle changes which can be made to manage/treat cardiovascular disease?

A

Reducing smoking, more exercise, and a balanced diet.

819
Q

What controls the natural, resting heart rate?

A

Natural pacemaker.

820
Q

When can artificial pacemakers be used ?

A

If the individual has an irregular heartbeat.

821
Q

Can genetics act as a risk factor to cardiovascular disease?

A

Yes, there are six genetic variants associated with CHD.

822
Q

Fatty deposits in the coronary arteries are known as…

A

Plaques

823
Q

Coronary Bypass Surgery

A

Coronary heart disease can be treated using bypass surgery -involves taking a healthy blood vessel from another part of the body and surgically inserting it so the blocked vessels are bypassed.

824
Q

Anti-coagulants

A

Prevents arteries becoming blocked, reducing the risk of CHD. Can cause excessive bleeding if a person is wounded.

825
Q

Anti-platelets

A

Prevents clots forming in arteries and thus, reduces the risk of CHD.

826
Q

Anti-hypertensives

A

Can reduce blood pressure, protecting arteries so that their walls are not damaged and reduces the risks of plaques forming.

827
Q

Prophylactic Treatment

A

Preventative treatment

828
Q

Ecosystem

A

The interaction of a community of living organisms (biotic) with the non-living (abiotic) parts of their environment.

829
Q

Interdependence

A

Describes how organisms in a community depend on other organisms for vital services.

830
Q

Some species live together in a…

A

Symbiotic relationship

831
Q

Mutualism

A

If it provides some benefit or resource to the other species, for instance providing nutrients, it is known as a mutualistic relationship.

832
Q

Parasitism

A

Involves taking nutrients from another species, to the detriment of other species.

833
Q

Commensalism

A

Is where there is no damage caused to either species, and there is often mutual benefit.

834
Q

Pyramids of Biomass

A

Shows the relative biomass @ each trophic level.

835
Q

Carbon cycle -photosynthesis.

A

Carbon dioxide is removed from the air in photosynthesis by green plants and algae. Carbon used to make carbs, proteins and fats. Plants are eaten, transferring carbon up the food chain.

836
Q

Carbon cycle - respiration.

A

Carbon dioxide is returned to the air when plants, algae and animals respire. Decomposers respire while they return nutrients to the soil.

837
Q

Carbon cycle - combustion.

A

Carbon dioxide is returned to the air when wood and fossil fuels are burnt - as they contain carbon from photosynthesis.

838
Q

When biological material decays…

A

It produces compost.

839
Q

Optimum conditions for decomposition?

A

Temperature, oxygen availability, water availability, number of decay organisms.

840
Q

Decomposition

A

The breakdown and digestion of biological material by organisms called decomposers.

841
Q

Decomposers

A

Include microorganisms - bacteria and fungi - and detritus feeders.

842
Q

Microorganisms decompose waste anaerobically to produce…

A

Methane gas

843
Q

Methane gas can be burnt as…

A

Fuel

844
Q

_____ Generators are used to produce methane…

A

Biogas.

845
Q

The sun’s energy causes…

A

Water to evaporate from the sea and lakes, forming water vapour.

846
Q

Water vapour is also formed as a result of…

A

Transpiration.

847
Q

Water vapour…

A

Rises and condenses to form clouds.

848
Q

Specific Heat Capacity Equation

A

Δ E = m c Δ θ

849
Q

Specific Latent Heat

A

E = mL

850
Q

Specific Latent Heat word equation

A

Energy to change state = mass x specific latent heat

851
Q

Magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor

A

F = BIl

852
Q

Magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor word equation

A

Force = magnetic flux density x current x length of conductor in a magnetic field.

853
Q

Transformer coil equation

A

Vp / Vs = Np / Ns

854
Q

Transformer current equation

A

VpIp = VsIs

855
Q

Pressure in a fluid…

A

Pressure = height of column x density of fluid x gravitational field strength

856
Q

Planets in order from the sun…

A

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.

857
Q

A planet is…

A

A body that orbits a star, is massive enough for its own gravity to make it round-shaped - has ‘cleared its neighbourhood’ of smaller objects around its orbit.

858
Q

Moon

A

A natural object which orbits a planet.

859
Q

How old is the universe?

A

Roughly 13.8 billion years ago.

860
Q

Nuclear fusion

A

Two small nuclei fuse together to form one large nucleus - releasing energy in the reaction.

861
Q

When are all naturally occurring irons up to iron produced?

A

In fusion in stars.

862
Q

When are elements heavier than iron produced?

A

In the supernova.

863
Q

How are elements heavier than iron distributed?

A

Across the universe in the supernova explosion.

864
Q

Orbits of planets…

A

Circular

865
Q

Artificial Satellite

A

Something man-made which is in orbit of the Earth.

866
Q

In circular orbit…

A

There is changing velocity despite constant speed as the body constantly changes direction.

867
Q

If the speed of an orbit changes…

A

The radius of orbit also changes.

868
Q

Doppler Effect

A

Observed frequency of waves emitted by a moving object appear changed.

869
Q

Red-shift

A

An observed increase in the wavelength of light from most distant galaxies.

870
Q

The further away the galaxies…

A

The faster they are moving and the bigger the observed increase in wavelength.

871
Q

Big Bang Theory

A

Suggests the universe began from a very small region that was extremely hot and dense.

872
Q

Red-shift supports the Big Bang Theory because…

A

It shows that the universe is expanding - must once have been smaller.

873
Q

Observations of supernovae suggest…

A

That the furthest away galaxies are moving away from us even faster.

874
Q

Absorption spectrum…

A

A spectrum containing every wavelength of light but with dark lines where certain wavelengths have been absorbed.

875
Q

Universe is expanding…

A

Slower than epected.

876
Q

Scientists predict what % of the universe is dark energy?

A

68%

877
Q

Scientists predict what % of the universe is dark matter?

A

27%

878
Q

Stars begin life as…

A

A cloud of dust & gas - a nebula.

879
Q

What is the next stage in the formation of stars after a nebula?

A

Gravity causes the nebula to collapse and the temperature rises to millions of degrees celsius - forms a protostar.

880
Q

If the temperature is high enough in a protostar…

A

Hydrogen will join in nuclei fusion to form helium. Releases a huge amount of energy. Protostar is now a main sequence star.

881
Q

What happens to a main sequence star which is the same size as the sun…

A

Red Giant - White Dwarf - Black Dwarf

882
Q

Red giant formation…

A

When its hydrogen fuel source runs out, the outwards force due to fusion is lower than the inward force due to gravity - the star therefore collapses, temp. increases, so helium nuclei join to form heavier elements. Expands to form a reactant.

883
Q

White dwarf

A

Red giant stops fusing helium and shrinks to become a white dwarf.

884
Q

Black dwarf

A

White dwarf is no longer carrying out nuclear fusion - the temperature of the star decreases until the energy it emits is less significant - Black dwarf star formed.

885
Q

What happens to a main sequence star greater in size that the sun?

A

Red Super Giant - Supernova - Black hole or neutron star.

886
Q

Red Super Giant

A

Star’ Hydrogen fuel begins to run out - expands to form a Red Super Giant.

887
Q

Supernova

A

After it becomes a Red Super Giant, it eventually stops carrying out nuclear fusion & the star goes into supernova.

888
Q

Black Hole

A

Large gravitational force - not even light can escape from.

889
Q

Neutron Star

A

Made of neutrons densely packed together.

890
Q

Geostationary Satellite

A

Orbit once every 24 hours, points to the same point of Earth.

891
Q

Moon’s orbit around Earth is…

A

Virtually circular.

892
Q

A moon…

A

Natural object which orbits a planet.

893
Q

Artificial Satellite

A

Something man-made which is in orbit of the Earth.

894
Q

Orbit

A

The curved path of one celestial object or spacecraft around another celestial object.

895
Q

Planet is trying to move in…

A

Instantaneous Velocity

896
Q

Amount of energy carried by a photon depends on…

A

The frequency of the radiation.

897
Q

Types of radiation which can cause ionisation (EM spectrum)?

A

UV, X-rays, Gamma

898
Q

Ionisation

A

When radiation hits an atom or molecule, it can sometimes have enough energy to remove an electron and change the atom + molecule.

899
Q

Detectors

A

Objects that absorb infrared radiation.

900
Q

What will absorb / stop beta radiation?

A

A sheet of aluminium, approx 5mm.

901
Q

In beta decay, the mass number of the parent nucleus…

A

Stays the same.

902
Q

Activity

A

Rate at which decay occurs.

903
Q

Range of gamma radiation

A

Unlimited

904
Q

Half-life

A

The time taken for number of radioactive nuclei in a sample to halve or the time taken for count rate (or activity) from a sample to fall to half its initial value.

905
Q

An irradiated object does not…

A

Become radioactive itself.

906
Q

Ionising power of beta radiation…

A

Moderate

907
Q

Radioactive Decay

A

An unstable nucleus changes to become more stable and gives out radiation.

908
Q

Types of radiation

A

Alpha, Beta, Gamma

909
Q

Radius of an atom

A

0.1nm

910
Q

Ionising power of radiation

A

How likely it is to ionise atoms which it comes into contact with.

911
Q

Emission of radiation from an atom may lead to…

A

Electrons moving to a lower energy level.

912
Q

Contamination

A

The unwanted presence of materials containing radioactive atoms.

913
Q

What will absorb / stop gamma radiation?

A

Several cm’s of lead.

914
Q

Range of Beta radiation in air.

A

Approximately 1m.

915
Q

What will absorb / stop alpha radiation?

A

Paper/skin.

916
Q

If ionisation happens in DNA, it can…

A

Cause mutations which may result in cancer.

917
Q

Ionising Power of Gamma radiation

A

Low ionising Power

918
Q

Count rate

A

Number of decays recorded each second by a Geiger-Muller tube.

919
Q

Units of activity

A

Bq - Becquerels

920
Q

Ionising Power of Alpha radiation

A

Very High Ionising Power

921
Q

Range of Alpha radiation

A

Short - 5 cm in air.

922
Q

Count rate

A

Number of counts / time

923
Q

Activity

A

Activity of material x mass

924
Q

Random nature of radioactive decay?

A

Cannot predict which nuclei will next decay or when it will decay.

925
Q

Medical radioisotopes have to have a short half-life to…

A

Reduce damage to tissues / organs.

926
Q

Braking Distance

A

The distance travelled in the process of coming to a stop.

927
Q

Thinking Distance

A

The distance travelled in the process of braking.

928
Q

Stopping Distance

A

Braking Distance + Thinking Distance

929
Q

Inertia

A

The property of an object to remain in a constant state unless acted on by an external resultant force.

930
Q

Walking velocity

A

1.5 m/s

931
Q

Running velocity

A

3 m/s

932
Q

Cycling velocity

A

6 m/s

933
Q

Boyle’s Law

A

As pressure increases, volume decreases, because they are inversely proportional. As you go down to an area of higher pressure, gas will compress proportionally.

934
Q

Change of state from liquid - solid?

A

Solidifying / Freezing

935
Q

Physical State

A

A change that does not produce a new substance. If the change is reversed, the substance recovers its original properties.

936
Q

What is the Kinetic Theory of Matter?

A

Particle model of solids, liquids & gases which describes their properties.

937
Q

Random motion

A

Unpredictable path that an individual gas particle follows.

938
Q

Internal energy

A

The total energy in the kinetic & potential stores of all the particles (atoms & molecules) that make up a system.

939
Q

Horizontal line on a temperature vs time graph…

A

Represents a change of state.

940
Q

Reversible Change

A

A change to a substance, which when reversed, allows the substance to recover its original properties.

941
Q

Particles in a solid.

A

Strong forces, regular structure, packed close together and vibrate.

942
Q

Specific Latent Heat of Vaporisation

A

The amount of energy required to change one kg of a liquid into a gas (vapour) w/ no change in temperature.

943
Q

Evaporating

A

When a liquid changes to a gas below the b.p.

944
Q

Chemical Change

A

A change in which the chemical bonds are broken & reformed to form new products.

945
Q

Gas - density

A

Least dense state of matter.

Admissions Test (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions