Admin / Consultant Flashcards

1
Q

What is DMARC?

A. A protocol that determines the authenticity of an email signature.
B. A clearing house for authenticated email messages.
C. A signature-based email authenticity service.
D. A protocol that determines the authenticity of an email message.

A

D. A protocol that determines the authenticity of an email message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SPF is:

A. Spoof protocol fixing, a standard method of detecting IP spoofing in email messages.
B. A popular sunscreen rating system.
C. Sender policy framework, a DNS-based email authentication feature that allows senders to publish a list of IP addresses that are used for sending.
D. Servers per function, a DNS source-capture protocol.

A

C. Sender policy framework, a DNS-based email authentication feature that allows senders to publish a list of IP addresses that are used for sending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DKIM stands for (1)____________________ and signs messages with a cryptographic signature that (2) ________________________________.

A
  1. DomainKeys identified mail
  2. Verifies the domain and prevents spoofing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Private Domain’s two features ____________ and _________ satisfy DMARC.

A

SPF and DKIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who should purchase an SAP?

A

Anyone sending more than 100k messages/month (the minimum needed to keep a dedicated IP ramped up) who is also concerned about branding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Is SAP only for the branding accounts with a high volume to warrant a dedicated IP?

A

No, low volume accounts can use it. Low volume only affects dedicated IP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can multiple SAPs be on one account?

A

No, but you can use multiple (sub?)domains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reply Mail Management (RMM) manages:

A. Vacation autoresponders
B. Unsubscribe requests
C. Forwarding to internal users for review
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At _______________ emails per month, you can have a dedicated IP address.

A

100K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At _______________ emails per month, you must have a dedicated IP address.

A

250K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At _______________ emails per month, you need multiple dedicated email address.

A

2 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bounce rate can contribute to deliverability issues?

A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 7.5%
D. 10%

A

D. 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference in how REST and SOAP protocols are used in Marketing Cloud applications?

A

The REST API exposes broader access to Marketing Cloud capabilities. The SOAP API provides comprehensive access to most email functionality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most REST calls are

A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous

A

A. Synchronous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The recommended limit for SOAP calls is __________ per minute.

A

2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Using SSJS in email or SMS, use the _______ library.

A

Platform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Using SSJS in landing pages or applications, use the _______ library.

A

Core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

By default, the data extension retention policy deletes unused data extensions after (1)____________. The deletion process runs (2)______________.

A
  1. 6 months
  2. nightly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Journey builder has a typical processing rate of (1)________/ hr / Tenant. Assuming best practices, (2)______/ hr / Tenant is possible.

A
  1. 500K
  2. 2M
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Validation campaigns are_________________.

A. Data cleanup activities by marketing groups
B. Survey campaigns requesting explicit data from customers
C. Survey campaigns requesting implicit data from customers
D. Discounts and other incentives for adding MFA to login processes

A

B. Survey campaigns requesting explicit data from customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Journey builder has a typical processing rate of (1)________/ hr / Tenant. Assuming best practices, (2)______/ hr / Tenant is possible.

A
  1. 500K
  2. 2M
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false: Short Code is not available in the US with MobileConnect.

A

False. Long Code, available internationally, is not available in the US.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false: MMS is only available in the United States with MobileConnect.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Use multipart MIME format for international sending because:

A. it automatically translates languages
B. it allows character sets other than US-ASCII
C. it includes international currency symbols
D. French mimes are way funnier

A

B. it allows character sets other than US-ASCII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Custom Journey actions time out after

A. 20 seconds
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

A

D. 60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Medium priority triggered sends are queued up to (1)________ minute(s) by default. It then takes up to (2)_________ minute(s) to send.

A
  1. 3
  2. 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Low priority triggered sends are queued up to (1)________ minute(s) by default. It then takes up to (2)_________ minute(s) to send.

A
  1. 5
  2. 5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Default data retention period for a triggered send data extension is ______________.

A

6 months

29
Q

Which two metrics will a Marketing Cloud admin be able to view under Setup Home, given that the apps are provisioned in the account?

A. A graph displaying the number of states of automations from the last 14 days
B. The total number of emails sent from your account within the last 7 days
C. The total number of users in your account
D. The total number of content pieces in your account, including a subtotal of shared assets

A

C. The total number of users in your account
D. The total number of content pieces in your account, including a subtotal of shared assets

The graph only displays states of automations from the last 7 days.

30
Q

What are two functionalities you can work on within the Setup Assistant?

A. Create Data Extensions
B. Manage FTP Account
C. Create Automations
D. Enable Marketing Cloud Connect

A

B. Manage FTP Account
C. Create Automations

31
Q

How do you speed up heavily scripted email sends?

A. Enable Burst Sending
B. Send through Journey Builder
C. Send through Automation Studio
D. Not using scripting in emails

A

A. Enable Burst Sending.

Burst Send allows pre-build of emails

32
Q

View Audit Trail records (choose all):

A. In Automation Studio extracts
B. In Setup Home under Security
C. In each individual data extension
D. In REST API Extracts
E. In SOAP API Extracts

A

A. In Automation Studio extracts
D. In REST API Extracts

33
Q

Name the six Marketing Cloud roles

A
  • Admin
  • Viewer
  • Channel Manager
  • Security Admin
  • Content Editor
  • Publisher
34
Q

Send Classification comprises of:

A. Connected Salesforce Profile, Delivery Profile, Permissions Profile
B. Delivery Profile, DKIP Key, CAN-Spam Priority
C. Delivery Key, RMM Certification, CAN-Spam Priority
D. Sender Profile, Delivery Profile, CAN-Spam Priority

A

D. Sender Profile, Delivery Profile, CAN-Spam Priority

35
Q

Sender Profile defines (pick 3):

A. The From information (From Name and From Email Address) for a send
B. Header and footer information
C. The permissions the sender has relating to settings and content
D. Send Classification (Commercial or Transactional) and priority

A

A. The From information (From Name and From Email Address) for a send
B. Header and footer information
D. Send Classification (Commercial or Transactional) and priority

36
Q

True or false: Enhanced Sender Profiles are created either via AMPScript or adding from name and address to the sendable data extension.

A

True

37
Q

Where can you set From addresses for use in sender profiles?

A

Setup > Feature Settings > Email Studio > From Address Management

38
Q

Delivery Profiles determine default or custom values for:

A. IP Address, Signature and Subject
B. IP Address, Header, and Footer
C. Preheader, Header, and Footer
D. Preheader, Header, and Signature

A

B. IP Address, Header, and Footer

39
Q

True or false: Turning on the BCC feature does not charge for extra emails sent via BCC.

A

False. One address in the BCC for a send would double the cost, two would triple the cost, etc.

40
Q

True or false: Send Throttling will stop emailing in the middle of a send outside of the hours set, and resume when back in hours, until all emails are sent.

A

True

41
Q

Marketing Cloud Connector is installed in (1)____________ first and requires your (2)_____________ ID be used for both Salesforce and Marketing Cloud.

A
  1. Salesforce Org
  2. Salesforce
42
Q

REST API can send up to _____________ column name / column value pairs

A

5

43
Q

True or false: REST API client ID / Secret access is controlled by BU, Scope and Data Extension

A

False. It is controlled by BU and Scope (email, SMS, contacts, etc.) only.

43
Q

When creating your first FTP user, which of the following statements are incorrect?

A. Minimum password length is 8 characters
B. The default username is the MID of that BU
C. You can restrict access by IPs
D. You must enable the user after creation

A

A. Minimum password length is 8 characters. Minimum is 12 characters.
D. You must enable the user after creation. The user is automatically enabled after creation.

44
Q

True or false: you can create users via API

A

True

44
Q

If installed, which dashboard tiles show on the Setup Home screen?

A. Journeys, Automations (last 30 days), Data Extensions, Content (Assets), Users
B. Automations (last 7 days), Data Extensions (Attributes), Content (Assets)
C. Journeys, Automations (last 7 days), Data Extensions, Content (Assets), Users
D. Automations (last 30 days), Data Extensions, Content (Assets), Users

A

C. Journeys, Automations (last 7 days, Data Extensions, Content (Assets), Users

44
Q

Setup Assistant includes (pick 3):

A. Getting Started
B. Gain Insights with Analytics
C. Create User Profiles
D. Build Engaging Content
E. Set Up Your Send Structure

A

A. Getting Started
B. Gain Insights with Analytics
D. Build Engaging Content

44
Q

True or false: Set Up Your Data Structure is the 5th step in the Setup Assistant.

A

False. Set Up Your Data Structure is Step 3.

45
Q

True or false: Best practice is to allow 5 login attempts before lockout.

A

False. Best practice is 3 attempts.

45
Q

True or false: Password expiry and inactive user (no logins) period should both be set to 90 days.

A

True.

46
Q

Best practice for session timeout period is_____________.

A

20 minutes.

47
Q

Mobile Studio is comprised of (1)_________________ and (2)________________.

A
  1. MobileConnect
  2. MobilePush
48
Q

True or false: Social Studio integrates directly with Journey Builder.

A

False. It is possible to use Advertising Studio as a middleware or via CRM.

49
Q

True or false: Interactive emails are built on CloudPages, which are built in Interaction Studio.

A

False. Cloud pages are used but they are created in Web Studio.

50
Q

Automation Studio lives under:

A. Journey Builder
B. Interaction Studio
C. Content Builder
D. Data Designer

A

A. Journey Builder

51
Q

Approvals live under:

A. Setup > Email
B. Content Builder
C. Setup Assistant > Create Automations
D. Journey Builder

A

B. Content Builder

52
Q

You can pause a journey for __________ days.

A. 20
B. 14
C. 3
D. 7

A

B. 14

53
Q

True or false: You can restart a stopped journey.

A

False.

54
Q

True or false: Only one draft version of a journey can exist at a time.

A

True

55
Q

True or false: Connected App Authentication removes SOAP & REST API limits

A

True

56
Q

When installing MC Connect, add (1)____________________ and (2)____________________ rights to user layout.

A
  1. Marketing Cloud for AppExchange User
  2. Marketing Cloud for AppExchange Admin
57
Q

What are the three things needed for a triggered send?

A
  1. Under SF side Triggered Sends: Create trigger
  2. In SF side Connector Settings: Determine which object to enable under Triggered Sends
  3. That object needs to have a lookup to the Lead or Contact object in SF
58
Q

True or false: the only declarative method of updating SF via MC Connect from the MC side is Journey Builder.

A

True.

59
Q

System Data Views give you access to _______ month(s) of data.

A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 12

A

C. 6

60
Q

Contact Delete applies only to contacts in:

A. Email Studio, MobileConnect, SocialStudio, Contact Builder
B. Email Studio, MobileConnect, MobilePush, Contact Builder
C. Contact Builder
D. MobileConnect, MobilePush, Contact Builder

A

B. Email Studio, MobileConnect, MobilePush, Contact Builder

61
Q

True or false: For Enterprise 2.0, Contact Delete enablement occurs at the business unit level.

A

False. For Enterprise 2.0, Contact Delete enablement occurs at the parent account level.

62
Q

The Contact Delete default suppression period in Contact Builder is _____ day(s).

A. 0
B. 1
C. 7
D. 14
E. 30

A

D. 14

63
Q

True or false: Contact Delete does not apply to non-sendable data extensions.

A

True.

64
Q
A