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ADI Oral > ADI Oral > Flashcards

ADI Oral Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ECCAIRS System used for?

A

Mandatory Occurrence Reporting (MORs)

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2
Q

What form would be used for an Alleged Infringement of Legislation

A

CA939

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3
Q

What Class of Airspace is SVFR permitted in?

A

Class D (CTR)

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4
Q

What is the SVFR Minima for aircraft other than helicopters

A

Ground Visibility : Less than 1500m

Cloud Ceiling : Less than 600ft

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5
Q

What is the SVFR Minima for Helicopters

A

Ground visibility : Less than 800m

Cloud Ceiling : Less than 600ft

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6
Q

Is a full flight plan required for SVFR?

A

No

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7
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that aerodrome inspections are completed?

A

The Aerodrome Operator

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8
Q

2 reasons to conduct aerodrome inspections?

A

To ensure that ATC becomes aware of any unserviceabilities or obstructions

To ensure that unserviceabilities and obstructions receive attention.

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9
Q

When should inspections be made?

9

A
  • H24 Unit : After First light
  • Non H24 unit: Before first aircraft movement
  • Before night flying
  • At the cessation of work
  • When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
  • Following an aircraft accident
  • Abandoned take-off by a turbine aircraft due to engine malfunction/burst tyres
  • During snow and ice conditions
  • When considered necessary by ATC/Aerodrome operatator
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10
Q

What are the basic uses of the Aerodrome Traffic Monitor?

4

A
  • Determine the landing order/spacing
  • Assist in applying longitudinal separation on departure
  • Ensuring that deps are conforming to the clearance issued
  • Provide information on CCT traffic and those carrying out IAPs
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11
Q

What are the advanced uses of the Aerodrome Traffic Monitor?

6

A
  • Validate and Verify SSR Mode A and C
  • Monitor overflights
  • Establish separation between departing aircraft
  • Pass traffic information
  • Missed approach separation
  • correcting action when arriving separation is reduced below the minima
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12
Q

What is the aerodrome operator responsible for?

A

The operation status of the aerodrome in respect of:

  • Routine operational limitations
  • Unforeseen hazards to aircraft operations with regard to:
  1. The closure and re-opening of the aerodrome
  2. The withdrawal or return to use of runways, taxiways and lighting aids.
  3. Revision of declared distances
  4. Surface Markings
  5. NOTAM action to promulgate serviceability changes
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13
Q

What are the responsibilities of ATC with regard to restricted operations?

A

Where an operation occurrence has resulted in an obstruction in the vicinity of the runway, withholding landing and take-off clearances when:

  • The obstruction is in the Cleared and Graded area; or
  • The location of the obstruction is unknown

If the obstruction is outside of the Cleared and graded area, ATC should advise the pilot.

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14
Q

What services shall Aerodrome Control provide?

3

A
  • Basic Service
  • Alerting Service
  • Aerodrome Control Service
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15
Q

What are the responsibilities of Aerodrome Control?

A

Issue clearances and information to achieve a Safe, Orderly and Expeditious flow of air traffic.

With the object of Preventing collisions between:

  • Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ
  • Aircraft taking off and landing
  • Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

Assist in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron/s

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16
Q

Specific Responsibilities of the aerodrome controller?

6

A
  1. Notifying emergency services as per the local instructions
  2. Informing aircraft of any depletion in RFFS cover
  3. Providing approach control services when delegated by approach control.
  4. Supplying information to approach control such as:
    - Pertinent IFR, SVFR VFR deps
    - Essential aerodrome info
  5. Inform the aerodrome operator when there is a deterioration in aerodrome serviceability
  6. Overdue action where there is no approach control unit
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17
Q

ADC co-ordination to APC

A
  1. Departing IFR aircraft

2. Arriving aircraft, making their first call on the tower frequency

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18
Q

APC Co-ordination to ADC

A
  1. Aircraft approaching to land
  2. Arriving aircraft who have been cleared to VRPs
  3. Aircraft routing through the CCT
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19
Q

When is transfer of control effected?

VMC vs IMC

A

VMC : Prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome or prior to the aircraft entering IMC

IMC : Immediately after the aircraft is airborne

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20
Q

What are the 11 items of Essential Aerodrome information?

A
  1. Construction work on the manoeuvring area
  2. Rough portions on the manoeuvring area
  3. Failure of the Aerodrome lighting system
  4. Failure of the approach aids
  5. Aircraft parked close to the runway or performing ground runs
  6. Depth of snow layers
  7. Information on ice/snow clearance
  8. Braking action
  9. Bird Formations
  10. Water on runway
  11. Arrestor gear information
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21
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

The incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft taking-off and landing

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22
Q

What are the uses of the surface movement radar?

A
  1. To monitor movements on the manoeuvring area
  2. To provide advice on safe movement, including:
    a. Departing aircraft lined up on the same runway
    b. Determining that a runway is clear of traffic
    c. Determining when aircraft have started the take-
    off run
    d. Monitor positions of aircraft
    e. Monitor and assist emergency services vehicles
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23
Q

How do you identify an aircraft on the SMR?

A
  1. Visual observation and correlation
  2. Other ATS Surveillance system and correlation
  3. Compliance with an ATC instruction and correlation
  4. Position report from A/C or Vehicle and correlation
  5. Aircraft actual position and correlation
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24
Q

What 5 pieces of information should be provided to aircraft taxiing?

A
  1. Runway in use
  2. Surface wind
  3. QNH
  4. OAT
  5. Significant MET conditions
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25
Q

When may multiple line-ups occur?

5

A
  1. During Daylight hours
  2. All A/C continuously visible to AD controller
  3. All aircraft are on the same RTF frequency
  4. The pilot is advised of:
    a. Number in the departure sequence
    b. From which point the other aircraft is dep. from
  5. Physical characteristics of the runway do not preclude the succeeding aircraft from seeing the preceding
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26
Q

What are the 2 conditions that must be fulfilled prior to an aircraft departing?

A
  1. Aircraft must have its ATC route clearance

2. A release must be obtained from approach control

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27
Q

When may the land after procedure be used?

A
  1. The runway must be long enough for safe separation.
  2. During daylight hours
  3. No backtrack for the preceding aircraft
  4. Following aircraft has the preceding in sight
  5. Following aircraft is warned
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28
Q

When should noised abatement NOT be a factor when deciding runway in use?

A
  1. If the noise preferential runway is not equipped with Glide path guidance
  2. If the surface condition is adversely affected
  3. When the visibility is less than 1900m
  4. When windshear has been reported or forecast
  5. Thunderstorms are likely to affect the departure or approach areas
  6. Crosswind component including gusts: >15kts
  7. Tailwind component including gusts: >5kts
  8. When the ceiling is lower than 500ft
  9. If the approach requires greater minima than 300ft:
    a. The ceiling is lower than 800ft AAL
    b. The visibility is less than 3000m
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29
Q

When must the aerodrome operator be advised of the release of racing pigeons?

A

At least 14 days prior, if the release is within 13km of a licenced aerodrome.

ATC should be further notified 30 minutes prior to release.

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30
Q

What airspace classification does CAS-T assume?

A

Class D

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31
Q

When is CAS-T Active?

A

15 minutes prior to, and 30 minutes after the ETA/ETD of the Royal flight

32
Q

How wide are Temporary class D airways?

A

5nm each side from the intended track

33
Q

Why do diversions occur?

6

A
  1. Weather at destination aerodrome
  2. Obstruction at the landing aerodrome
  3. Failure of airborne equipment
  4. Failure of ground aids
  5. Unacceptable delay
  6. Closure of original destination aerodrome
34
Q

What is the definition of a dry runway?

A

The surface is not affected by contaminants (Water, snow, slush or ice)

35
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

A change of colour of the runway surface due to moisture

36
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

Surface soaked, but no standing water is present

37
Q

What is the definition of water patches?

A

Significant patches of standing water.

25% of the assesed area covered by water more than 3mm deep.

38
Q

What is the definition of a Flooded runway?

A

Extensive patches of standing water are visible.

50% of the assesed area covered by water more than 3mm deep.

39
Q

What is ice?

A

Water in its solid state

40
Q

What is dry snow?

A

A condition where snow can be blown loose, or if compacted will fall apart again on release

41
Q

What is compacted snow?

A

Snow which has been compressed into a solid mass, that resists further compression and will hold together or break up into large chunks when lifted.

42
Q

What is wet snow?

A

A composition which, if compacted by had will tend to form a snowball

43
Q

What is slush?

A

A water saturated snow which, with a heel to toe slap down action with the foot against the ground, will be displaced with a splatter.

44
Q

What are significant changes with regard to runway contaminants?

A
  1. Any changes in the surface deposit
  2. Changes greater than:
    a. 20mm for dry snow
    b. 10mm for wet snow
    c. 3mm for slush
  3. Any change in the available length of the runway
  4. Any change in the type of deposit
  5. Any change in the distance apart of snow banks
  6. Any U/S AGL
45
Q

How is breaking action measured and what type of contaminants can it be used on?

A

Continuous Friction Measuring equipment (CFME)

e.g. Griptester or a MU-Meter

Only to be used on Compacted snow and Ice

46
Q

What is the Runway Strip?

A

An area that encloses a runway and any associated stopway, Containing:

  • Visual Aids
  • Radio Aids
  • Radar Aids

The only things inside the runway strip should be those that cannot function outside of it.

47
Q

What is the clear and graded area?

A

An area within the runway strip whose dimensions are determined by the function of the strip within which it lies.

48
Q

What are the dimensions of the clear and graded area?

A

75m from the runway centreline

by 300m along the runway length 105m

49
Q

Where are the SRATCOH regulations found?

A

CAP 670

50
Q

What should the controller taking over watch do?

A

LOINS: (Latest Orders, Instructions, Notices and Signals)
Equipment : Serviceability
Weather: F214 F215, Trends and Met brief
Traffic: Understand the traffic situation fully

51
Q

What should the controller handing over watch do?

A

Pass:

  1. General information - Including variations from standard operations
  2. Other Supplementary information relating to the position
  3. The detailed traffic situation
52
Q

When should the watch log be signed

A

TOW : When presenting for duty

HOW : When the TOW controller is full conversant with the situation

53
Q

How long should ATS records be retained for?

A

12 Months - ATC Watch log
RVR Log

6 Months - AIRPROX Reports

30 Days - Paper FPS / EFPS + Co-ordination data
Meteorological records
AFTN Messages

Discretion of the aerodrome operator - Movement log

54
Q

Under what flight rules can a visual approach be carried out?

A

IFR

55
Q

What are the criteria for allowing Visual approaches?

A

Pilot must be able to maintain visual reference to the surface and:

  1. The reported cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment.
  2. The pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing
56
Q

Below what RVR should Visual approaches be prohibited?

A

800m RVR

57
Q

What extra information should TWR give aircraft on visual approaches?

A
  • Their number in the sequence

- Any wake turbulence separation minima

58
Q

What is Co-ordination

A

The act of negotiation between two or more parties each vested with the authority to make executive decisions appropriate to the task being discharged.

Co-ordination is effected when the parties concerned, on the basis of known intelligence agree a course of action. Responsibility for obtaining the agreement and for ensuring implementation of the agreed course of action may be vested in one of the controllers involved.

59
Q

What are the two types of co-ordination

A
  • Standing

- Tactical

60
Q

Dimensions of an ATZ

A
  1. Surface - 2000ft AAL
  2. Centred on the midpoint of the longest runway
  3. Radius:
    a: 2nm runway 1850m or less
    b: 2.5nm runway greater that 1850m
    c: 2.5nm is runway is less that 1.5nm from the ATZ
    edge
61
Q

TORA

A

Take-off Run Available

The Length of runway available and suitable for the ground run of aircraft taking off

62
Q

TODA

A

Take-off distance available

The length of the TORA + any associated clearway

63
Q

ASDA

A

Accelerate stop Distance available

The length of the TORA + any associated Stopway

64
Q

LDA

A

Landing distance available

The Length of runway available for the ground landing run of an aircraft

65
Q

What is the Stopway?

A

A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available, prepared as a suitable are in which an aircraft can be stopped in case of an abandoned take-off.

66
Q

What is a Clearway?

Object height allowed?

A

A defined area on the ground under the control of the appropriate entity, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aircraft can make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.

No objects higher that 0.9m are permitted in the clearway

67
Q

What is RSIVA and when is it permitted?

A

Reduced separation in the vicinity of aerodromes

  • Adequate separation provided where the controller has both aircraft continuously in sight
  • Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and they confirm that they can maintain their own separation.
  • When one aircraft is following another, the following aircraft is visual and confirms he can maintain his own separation.
68
Q

When shall aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

Day: Whenever the visibility is less than 5km
When the cloud base is below 700ft

Night: Irrespective of Wx conditions

69
Q

Flight priority A

A
  • Emergency
  • Police emergency
  • Ambulance/Medical aircraft when safety of life involved
70
Q

Flight priority B

A
  • SAR
  • Post Accident check flights
  • Open skies
  • Police flights (Normal)
71
Q

Flight priority C

A
  • Royal Flights

- Heads of state

72
Q

Flight priority D

A
  • Heads of government

- Very senior ministers

73
Q

Flight priority E

A
  • Calibration flights

- Other flights authorised by the CAA

74
Q

Normal flight priority

A
  • Flights that have filed a flight plan in the normal way

- Exam flights

75
Q

Flight priority Z

A
  • Training Flights
  • Non standard
  • Other
76
Q

What information should be passed to contractors who are working on the Manoeuvring/Movement area?

A
  1. Methods of access to the work area
  2. The area which vehicles may operate
  3. The runway-in-use and the effects of any changes
  4. Methods of obtaining permission to cross the runway
  5. Signals for alerting the personnel that they are to vacate the manoeuvring area
77
Q

What is the definition of a Basic Service?

A

A type of UK FIS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe conduct of flights. This may include weather information, changes of serviceability of facilities, conditions at aerodromes, general airspace activity information, and any other information likely to affect safety. The avoidance of other traffic is solely the pilots responsibility.

ADI Oral (1 decks)

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