Additional subjects for recurrent Flashcards

1
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended?

A

20,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet?

A

290 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet?

A

310 knots or .84 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant?

A

40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant?

A

33 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Limitations - Direct: What is the minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff?

A

200 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Limitations - Direct: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, what is the minimum autopilot use height?

A

135 feet AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Limitations - Fill: Maximum operating altitude with flaps and/or slats extended is ___ feet.

A

__20,000 feet__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Limitations - Fill: Severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet is ___ knots.

A

__290 knots__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Limitations - Fill: Severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet is ___ knots or ___ Mach.

A

__310 knots__ and __.84 Mach__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Limitations - Fill: Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is ___ kts.

A

__15 kts__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Limitations - Fill: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant is ___ kts.

A

__40 kts__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Limitations - Fill: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant is ___ kts.

A

__33 kts__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Limitations - Fill: The minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff is ___ feet AGL.

A

__200 feet AGL__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Limitations - Fill: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, the minimum autopilot use height is ___ feet AGL.

A

__135 feet AGL__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Limitations - MC: Which of the following is the maximum operating altitude with flaps/slats extended? (A) 14,000 ft, (B) 20,000 ft, (C) 25,000 ft, (D) 43,100 ft

A

Answer: B) 20,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Limitations - MC: At or above 25,000 feet, what is the severe turbulence air penetration airspeed? (A) 290 knots, (B) 310 knots, (C) 330 knots, (D) 350 knots

A

Answer: B) 310 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Limitations - MC: What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing? (A) 10 kts, (B) 12 kts, (C) 15 kts, (D) 18 kts

A

Answer: C) 15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Limitations - MC: For the -8 variant, what is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit? (A) 33 kts, (B) 37 kts, (C) 40 kts, (D) 45 kts

A

Answer: C) 40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Limitations - MC: For the -9 variant, what is the demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit? (A) 30 kts, (B) 33 kts, (C) 37 kts, (D) 40 kts

A

Answer: B) 33 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Limitations - MC: What is the minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff? (A) 135 ft AGL, (B) 200 ft AGL, (C) 250 ft AGL, (D) 300 ft AGL

A

Answer: B) 200 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Limitations - MC: Without LAND 2/3 annunciation, what is the minimum autopilot use height? (A) 100 ft AGL, (B) 135 ft AGL, (C) 200 ft AGL, (D) 250 ft AGL

A

Answer: B) 135 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Limitations - MC: Which severe turbulence air penetration airspeed applies below 25,000 feet? (A) 290 knots, (B) 310 knots, (C) 280 knots, (D) 300 knots

A

Answer: A) 290 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The maximum operating altitude with flaps/slats extended is 20,000 feet.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The severe turbulence air penetration airspeed below 25,000 feet is 290 knots.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The severe turbulence air penetration airspeed at or above 25,000 feet is 310 knots or .84 Mach.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing is 15 kts.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -8 variant is 33 kts.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The demonstrated takeoff crosswind limit for the -9 variant is 33 kts.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: The minimum height for autopilot use after takeoff is 200 feet AGL.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Limitations - TF: True or False: Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciation, the minimum autopilot use height is 135 feet AGL.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What are the door wind limits for opening/closing and while open?

A

40 kts while opening/closing and 65 kts while open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What is the recommended procedure if a door fails to close properly?

A

Follow the emergency checklist in the QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: Which exits are designated for emergency egress?

A

Overwing and main cabin doors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What should be done if a window fails its operational check?

A

Report it for maintenance per QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: How often should door operational checks be performed?

A

Daily preflight inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What is the minimum illumination level for exit signs?

A

20 foot-candles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What additional check is performed on windows during preflight?

A

Ensure they are free of ice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Doors/Exits - Direct: What action is taken if a door does not close properly?

A

Initiate the abnormal door procedure per QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: Door wind limits for opening/closing are ___ kts and while open are ___ kts.

A

__40 kts__ and __65 kts__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: Emergency exit usage is limited to designated ___ exits.

A

__emergency__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: If a door fails to close properly, pilots should refer to the ___ checklist.

A

__QRH__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: Windows must be clear of ___ before operation.

A

__ice__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: The designated emergency exits include the ___ and ___ doors.

A

__overwing__ and __main cabin__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: Exit signs must have a minimum illumination of ___ foot-candles.

A

__20 foot-candles__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: Door operational checks should be performed ___ per flight.

A

__daily__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Doors/Exits - Fill: If a window fails its operational check, it must be reported for ___.

A

__maintenance__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: What are the door wind limits for opening/closing? (A) 35 kts, (B) 40 kts, (C) 45 kts, (D) 50 kts

A

Answer: B) 40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: What are the door wind limits for doors while open? (A) 60 kts, (B) 65 kts, (C) 70 kts, (D) 75 kts

A

Answer: B) 65 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: Which of the following is a designated emergency exit? (A) Overwing door, (B) Cargo door, (C) Lavatory door, (D) Cockpit door

A

Answer: A) Overwing door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: When a door fails to close properly, what checklist should be consulted? (A) ECAM, (B) QRH, (C) FCOM, (D) MEL

A

Answer: B) QRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: How often should door operational checks be conducted? (A) Weekly, (B) Monthly, (C) Daily, (D) Per flight cycle

A

Answer: C) Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: Which element must be clear of ice before operation? (A) Doors, (B) Windows, (C) Both, (D) Neither

A

Answer: C) Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: What is the minimum illumination level for exit signs? (A) 15 foot-candles, (B) 20 foot-candles, (C) 25 foot-candles, (D) 30 foot-candles

A

Answer: B) 20 foot-candles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Doors/Exits - MC: In the event of a window operational failure, what is the correct action? (A) Continue flight, (B) Report for maintenance, (C) Ignore it, (D) Open manually

A

Answer: B) Report for maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: The door wind limit while opening/closing is 40 kts.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: The door wind limit while open is 70 kts.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Emergency door operational checks are required daily.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Only designated emergency exits should be used during an evacuation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: If a door fails to close, the crew should refer to the MEL.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Windows must be free of ice before operation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: Exit signs require a minimum illumination of 20 foot-candles.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Doors/Exits - TF: True or False: If a window fails an operational check, it should be reported for maintenance.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

HUD - Direct: What is the primary purpose of the HUD?

A

To provide pilots with critical flight information in their forward view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

HUD - Direct: Which flight parameters are displayed on the HUD?

A

Airspeed, altitude, attitude, and flight path.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

HUD - Direct: What does the HUD symbology include?

A

Flight director cues, navigation data, and target information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

HUD - Direct: How is the HUD brightness typically adjusted?

A

Via a control knob in the cockpit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

HUD - Direct: What is the recommended HUD configuration for low visibility conditions?

A

Increased brightness and contrast.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

HUD - Direct: At what flight phase is the HUD especially optimized?

A

Approach and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

HUD - Direct: What critical alert is displayed on the HUD during an emergency?

A

Master caution and warning alerts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

HUD - Direct: How does the HUD improve situational awareness?

A

By overlaying key flight data on the outside view.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

HUD - Fill: The primary purpose of the HUD is to provide pilots with ___ flight information.

A

__critical__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

HUD - Fill: The HUD displays parameters such as airspeed, altitude, ___, and flight path.

A

__attitude__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

HUD - Fill: HUD symbology typically includes flight director cues, navigation data, and ___.

A

__target information__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

HUD - Fill: HUD brightness is adjusted using a ___ in the cockpit.

A

__control knob__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

HUD - Fill: For low visibility conditions, the HUD should have increased ___ and ___.

A

__brightness__ and __contrast__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

HUD - Fill: The HUD is optimized for ___ and landing operations.

A

__approach__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

HUD - Fill: During an emergency, the HUD displays master ___ alerts.

A

__caution__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

HUD - Fill: The HUD improves situational awareness by overlaying key ___ on the outside view.

A

__flight data__

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

HUD - MC: What is the main function of the HUD? (A) Engine control, (B) Providing critical flight info, (C) Entertainment, (D) Cabin lighting

A

Answer: B) Providing critical flight info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

HUD - MC: Which of the following is NOT typically shown on the HUD? (A) Airspeed, (B) Altitude, (C) Engine oil temperature, (D) Attitude

A

Answer: C) Engine oil temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

HUD - MC: HUD brightness is adjusted using: (A) A touchscreen, (B) A control knob, (C) Voice command, (D) Automatic sensors

A

Answer: B) A control knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

HUD - MC: What additional information does the HUD display during an emergency? (A) Weather radar, (B) Master caution alerts, (C) Fuel quantity, (D) Cabin pressure

A

Answer: B) Master caution alerts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

HUD - MC: The HUD enhances situational awareness by: (A) Blocking the view, (B) Overlaying flight data on the outside view, (C) Reducing workload, (D) None

A

Answer: B) Overlaying flight data on the outside view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

HUD - MC: The HUD is most beneficial during: (A) Cruise, (B) Takeoff, (C) Approach and landing, (D) Parking

A

Answer: C) Approach and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

HUD - MC: Which parameter is not displayed on the HUD? (A) Flight path, (B) Navigation data, (C) Cabin altitude, (D) Airspeed

A

Answer: C) Cabin altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

HUD - MC: In low visibility, the HUD settings should be adjusted to: (A) Decrease brightness, (B) Increase contrast, (C) Disable symbology, (D) None

A

Answer: B) Increase contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD overlays key flight data on the outside view.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD displays engine oil temperature as a primary parameter.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: Adjusting the HUD brightness is done via a control knob in the cockpit.

92
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD is primarily used to control the aircraft’s engines.

93
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD is optimized for approach and landing phases.

94
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: In an emergency, the HUD does not display any alert information.

95
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: The HUD can display flight director cues and navigation data simultaneously.

96
Q

HUD - TF: True or False: Increasing HUD contrast is recommended in low visibility conditions.

97
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant?

A

502,500 lbs

98
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant?

A

561,500 lbs

99
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -8 variant?

A

380,000 lbs

100
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant?

A

425,000 lbs

101
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the maximum operating altitude for the 787?

A

43,100 feet

102
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the minimum runway length required for takeoff under standard conditions?

A

9,000 feet

103
Q

Performance - Direct: What performance factors must be considered when calculating takeoff thrust?

A

Aircraft weight, temperature, and runway conditions

104
Q

Performance - Direct: What is the purpose of the TPS in the 787?

A

To compute takeoff data including thrust settings and speeds

105
Q

Performance - Fill: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant is ___ lbs.

A

__502,500 lbs__

106
Q

Performance - Fill: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is ___ lbs.

A

__561,500 lbs__

107
Q

Performance - Fill: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -8 variant is ___ lbs.

A

__380,000 lbs__

108
Q

Performance - Fill: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant is ___ lbs.

A

__425,000 lbs__

109
Q

Performance - Fill: The maximum operating altitude for the 787 is ___ feet.

A

__43,100 feet__

110
Q

Performance - Fill: The minimum runway length required under standard conditions is approximately ___ feet.

A

__9,000 feet__

111
Q

Performance - Fill: Takeoff performance calculations consider aircraft weight, temperature, and ___ conditions.

A

__runway__

112
Q

Performance - Fill: The TPS in the 787 is used to compute ___ data including thrust settings and speeds.

A

__takeoff__

113
Q

Performance - MC: What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant? (A) 502,500 lbs, (B) 503,500 lbs, (C) 561,500 lbs, (D) 561,000 lbs

A

Answer: A) 502,500 lbs

114
Q

Performance - MC: What is the maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant? (A) 380,000 lbs, (B) 425,000 lbs, (C) 400,000 lbs, (D) 450,000 lbs

A

Answer: B) 425,000 lbs

115
Q

Performance - MC: What is the maximum operating altitude for the 787? (A) 20,000 ft, (B) 35,000 ft, (C) 43,100 ft, (D) 50,000 ft

A

Answer: C) 43,100 ft

116
Q

Performance - MC: Which factor is NOT used in takeoff performance calculations? (A) Aircraft weight, (B) Temperature, (C) Runway conditions, (D) Passenger count

A

Answer: D) Passenger count

117
Q

Performance - MC: The TPS in the 787 is primarily used for: (A) Flight planning, (B) Takeoff performance computations, (C) In-flight navigation, (D) Landing gear control

A

Answer: B) Takeoff performance computations

118
Q

Performance - MC: The minimum runway length under standard conditions is approximately: (A) 7,000 ft, (B) 8,000 ft, (C) 9,000 ft, (D) 10,000 ft

A

Answer: C) 9,000 ft

119
Q

Performance - MC: Maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is: (A) 502,500 lbs, (B) 561,500 lbs, (C) 561,000 lbs, (D) 570,000 lbs

A

Answer: B) 561,500 lbs

120
Q

Performance - MC: The primary purpose of the TPS is to calculate: (A) Fuel consumption, (B) Thrust settings and speeds, (C) Flight deck display brightness, (D) Cabin pressure

A

Answer: B) Thrust settings and speeds

121
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -8 variant is 502,500 lbs.

122
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum landing weight for the 787 -9 variant is 380,000 lbs.

123
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum operating altitude for the 787 is 43,100 feet.

124
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The TPS is used to compute takeoff data including thrust settings and speeds.

125
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: Passenger count is a primary factor in takeoff performance calculations.

126
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The minimum runway length required under standard conditions is approximately 9,000 feet.

127
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: Temperature is not considered in takeoff performance calculations.

128
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: The maximum takeoff weight for the 787 -9 variant is 561,500 lbs.

129
Q

Performance - TF: True or False: True or False: Temperature is not considered in takeoff performance calculations.

130
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: What does ECAM stand for?

A

Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor

131
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: What is the primary function of the QRH?

A

To provide quick reference procedures for abnormal and emergency situations

132
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: How does the ECAM aid pilots during abnormal events?

A

It displays system status, alerts, and recommended procedures

133
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: What does a typical QRH callout include?

A

Step-by-step actions to resolve an abnormal situation

134
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: How often is the ECAM updated?

A

In real time

135
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: In what scenarios is the QRH used?

A

During abnormal or emergency conditions

136
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: What is one benefit of the ECAM in reducing pilot workload?

A

It automates system monitoring and provides clear alerts

137
Q

ECAM/QRH - Direct: How is the QRH organized?

A

By system and type of abnormality

138
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: ECAM stands for ___ ___ ___ ___.

A

__Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor__

139
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: The primary function of the QRH is to provide ___ reference procedures.

140
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: The ECAM aids pilots by displaying system status, alerts, and ___.

A

__recommended procedures__

141
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: A QRH callout typically includes ___-by-step actions.

142
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: The ECAM updates in ___ time.

143
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: The QRH is used during ___ or emergency conditions.

A

__abnormal__

144
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: One benefit of the ECAM is reducing pilot ___.

A

__workload__

145
Q

ECAM/QRH - Fill: The QRH is organized by system and type of ___.

A

__abnormality__

146
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: What does ECAM stand for? (A) Electronic Control and Monitoring, (B) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor, (C) Engine Control and Alert Monitor, (D) Electronic Cabin Alert Monitor

A

Answer: B) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor

147
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: What is the primary purpose of the QRH? (A) Flight planning, (B) Normal operations, (C) Abnormal and emergency procedures, (D) Entertainment

A

Answer: C) Abnormal and emergency procedures

148
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: The ECAM updates its information: (A) Every minute, (B) In real time, (C) Every 5 minutes, (D) At pilot’s request

A

Answer: B) In real time

149
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: A typical QRH callout includes: (A) Flight route, (B) Step-by-step corrective actions, (C) Weather information, (D) Passenger announcements

A

Answer: B) Step-by-step corrective actions

150
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: The QRH is primarily used during: (A) Routine flight, (B) Abnormal or emergency conditions, (C) Taxi operations, (D) Pre-flight planning

A

Answer: B) Abnormal or emergency conditions

151
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: One major benefit of the ECAM is: (A) Reduced workload, (B) Increased fuel efficiency, (C) Improved entertainment, (D) Enhanced cabin comfort

A

Answer: A) Reduced workload

152
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: How is the QRH organized? (A) Alphabetically, (B) By flight phase, (C) By system and abnormality, (D) By manufacturer

A

Answer: C) By system and abnormality

153
Q

ECAM/QRH - MC: Which system does the ECAM monitor? (A) Only engines, (B) All aircraft systems, (C) Only avionics, (D) Only hydraulics

A

Answer: B) All aircraft systems

154
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: ECAM stands for Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor.

155
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The QRH is used only for routine operations.

156
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM updates its displays in real time.

157
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: A QRH callout does not provide step-by-step procedures.

158
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM helps reduce pilot workload by automating system monitoring.

159
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The QRH is organized by aircraft system and type of abnormality.

160
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The primary function of the QRH is to provide entertainment options.

161
Q

ECAM/QRH - TF: True or False: The ECAM only monitors engine performance.

162
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the first action when a critical abnormal event occurs?

A

Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures immediately.

163
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What does the term “master caution” indicate?

A

A system alert requiring immediate pilot attention.

164
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What should be done if an emergency evacuation is initiated?

A

Follow the established emergency evacuation procedures.

165
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: How are engine fire warnings communicated?

A

Via ECAM alerts and aural warnings.

166
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the recommended response to a hydraulic system failure?

A

Consult the QRH and initiate emergency procedures.

167
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What does a “low fuel” warning indicate?

A

That fuel quantity is approaching the minimum required for safe flight.

168
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: What is the typical procedure for a rapid decompression event?

A

Don oxygen masks and initiate an emergency descent.

169
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Direct: How is a “gear unsafe” condition indicated?

A

Through specific ECAM messages and caution lights.

170
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: The first action in a critical abnormal event is to follow the ___/QRH procedures.

171
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: The term “master caution” indicates a system ___ requiring immediate attention.

172
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: In an emergency evacuation, crews must follow the established ___ procedures.

A

__evacuation__

173
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: Engine fire warnings are communicated via ECAM ___ and aural warnings.

A

__alerts__

174
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: In a hydraulic system failure, the recommended response is to consult the ___ and initiate emergency procedures.

175
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: A “low fuel” warning indicates that fuel quantity is approaching the ___ required for safe flight.

A

__minimum__

176
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: During a rapid decompression event, pilots must don ___ masks.

A

__oxygen__

177
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - Fill: A “gear unsafe” condition is indicated by ECAM messages and ___ lights.

A

__caution__

178
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What is the first action when a critical abnormal event occurs? (A) Ignore it, (B) Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures, (C) Contact ATC, (D) Divert immediately

A

Answer: B) Follow the ECAM/QRH procedures

179
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What does “master caution” signify? (A) Routine check, (B) Minor alert, (C) Critical alert, (D) Normal operation

A

Answer: C) Critical alert

180
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: Which action is correct during an emergency evacuation? (A) Remain seated, (B) Follow evacuation procedures, (C) Wait for instructions, (D) Secure all doors

A

Answer: B) Follow evacuation procedures

181
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: How are engine fire warnings typically communicated? (A) Visual only, (B) Aural only, (C) ECAM alerts and aural warnings, (D) Manual check

A

Answer: C) ECAM alerts and aural warnings

182
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: In the event of a hydraulic system failure, pilots should: (A) Continue operations, (B) Consult the QRH, (C) Increase thrust, (D) Lower flaps

A

Answer: B) Consult the QRH

183
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: A “low fuel” warning indicates: (A) Excess fuel, (B) Normal operation, (C) Approaching minimum fuel, (D) Fuel leak

A

Answer: C) Approaching minimum fuel

184
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: What is the typical procedure for rapid decompression? (A) Ignore, (B) Don oxygen masks and descend, (C) Climb, (D) Retract gear

A

Answer: B) Don oxygen masks and descend

185
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - MC: A “gear unsafe” condition is indicated by: (A) ECAM messages, (B) Cabin announcements, (C) Engine data, (D) None

A

Answer: A) ECAM messages

186
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: The first action in a critical abnormal event is to follow the ECAM/QRH procedures.

187
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: “Master caution” indicates a minor alert.

188
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: During an emergency evacuation, established procedures must be followed.

189
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: Engine fire warnings are communicated only via visual ECAM alerts.

190
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: In a hydraulic failure, the QRH should be consulted immediately.

191
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: A “low fuel” warning means there is ample fuel for flight.

192
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: In rapid decompression, pilots are required to don oxygen masks.

193
Q

Misc Abnorm/Emerg - TF: True or False: A “gear unsafe” condition is indicated by specific ECAM messages and caution lights.

194
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the purpose of the exterior inspection?

A

To verify aircraft integrity and identify any visible discrepancies.

195
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: When is the exterior inspection typically performed?

A

Prior to flight during the preflight check.

196
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What areas are inspected during the exterior inspection?

A

Fuselage, wings, engines, landing gear, and control surfaces.

197
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is a key focus during the exterior inspection?

A

Identifying damage, leaks, or foreign object debris.

198
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: How should tire pressure be verified during the inspection?

A

By checking against the manufacturer’s specifications.

199
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the significance of inspecting the pitot tubes?

A

To ensure they are clear and unobstructed for accurate airspeed readings.

200
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What should be done if a discrepancy is found during the exterior inspection?

A

It should be reported and corrected before flight.

201
Q

Exterior Inspection - Direct: What is the recommended method for inspecting the aircraft’s leading edges?

A

Visually check for damage and ice accumulation.

202
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: The purpose of the exterior inspection is to verify aircraft ___ and identify discrepancies.

A

__integrity__

203
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: The exterior inspection is typically performed ___ flight.

A

__prior to__

204
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: Areas inspected include the fuselage, wings, engines, ___ gear, and control surfaces.

A

__landing__

205
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: A key focus during inspection is identifying damage, leaks, or ___ object debris.

A

__foreign__

206
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: Tire pressure should be checked against the manufacturer’s ___.

A

__specifications__

207
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: Inspecting the pitot tubes is important to ensure accurate ___ readings.

A

__airspeed__

208
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: If a discrepancy is found, it should be ___ and corrected before flight.

A

__reported__

209
Q

Exterior Inspection - Fill: The recommended method for inspecting the leading edges is to visually check for ___ and ice.

A

__damage__

210
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: What is the primary purpose of the exterior inspection? (A) Cabin cleaning, (B) Verifying aircraft integrity, (C) Fuel measurement, (D) Passenger briefing

A

Answer: B) Verifying aircraft integrity

211
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: When is the exterior inspection performed? (A) After landing, (B) During flight, (C) Prior to flight, (D) Post-flight

A

Answer: C) Prior to flight

212
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: Which of the following is not a focus area during the exterior inspection? (A) Fuselage, (B) Engines, (C) In-flight entertainment, (D) Landing gear

A

Answer: C) In-flight entertainment

213
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: What should be done if an issue is found during the exterior inspection? (A) Ignore it, (B) Report and correct it, (C) Log it for later, (D) Notify passengers

A

Answer: B) Report and correct it

214
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: Tire pressure is verified by comparing to: (A) The pilot’s estimate, (B) Manufacturer’s specifications, (C) Weather reports, (D) Previous flight logs

A

Answer: B) Manufacturer’s specifications

215
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: The pitot tubes are inspected to ensure: (A) They are painted, (B) They are clear of obstructions, (C) They are warm, (D) They are shiny

A

Answer: B) They are clear of obstructions

216
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: What is a key focus during the inspection of the leading edges? (A) Paint color, (B) Damage and ice accumulation, (C) Passenger seating, (D) In-flight service

A

Answer: B) Damage and ice accumulation

217
Q

Exterior Inspection - MC: Which area is not typically part of the exterior inspection? (A) Control surfaces, (B) Wings, (C) Fuselage, (D) Cockpit displays

A

Answer: D) Cockpit displays

218
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection is performed after the preflight check.

219
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Verifying aircraft integrity is the primary purpose of the exterior inspection.

220
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection includes checking the fuselage, wings, engines, and landing gear.

221
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Tire pressure should be checked against random values.

222
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Pitot tubes must be inspected to ensure they are unobstructed.

223
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: If a discrepancy is found during the exterior inspection, it can be ignored.

224
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: Visual inspection of the leading edges is recommended to check for damage and ice.

225
Q

Exterior Inspection - TF: True or False: The exterior inspection is only necessary for cargo flights.