Additional Applied Science Flashcards

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1
Q

Why do we need the following?

Carbohydrates

Protein

A

Carbohydrates provide energy

Proteins are needed for growth and repair

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2
Q

Which types of food are good sources of nutrients such as vitamins and minerals?

A

Fruit and vegetables

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3
Q

What health risks are associated with eating too much of the following?

Saturated fat

Sugar

Salt

A

Saturated fat = heart disease

Sugar = diabetes

Salt = high blood pressure

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4
Q

What are the 4 main components of the blood?

A

White blood cells

Red blood cells

Platelets

Plasma

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5
Q

How is glucose tested for?

A

Dip stick test

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6
Q

What does success in sport depend upon?

A

Fitness of the body

Energy and Nutrient intake

Effectiveness of equipment

Skill Level of athlete

Training

Concentration and focus of athlete

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7
Q

How do the heart and lungs provide oxygen and glucose for exercise?

A

Breathe faster – this allows the lungs to put more oxygen into the blood and to remove more CO2

Heart beats faster to move oxygen and glucose to the muscles more quickly

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8
Q

What happens in the thorax when we breathe in?

A

Inter-costal muscles contract and pull the ribs up and out

Diaphragm contracts and flattens

This increases the size of the thorax and lowers the pressure causing air to rush in

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9
Q

What happens in the thorax when we breathe out?

A

Inter-costal muscles relax and pull the ribs down and in

Diaphragm relaxes and moves up

This decreases the size of the thorax and increases the pressure causing air to rush out

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10
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic respiration does use oxygen

Glucose + oxygen >>> carbon dioxide + water + (energy)

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11
Q

What is anaerobic respiration?

A

Anaerobic respiration does not use oxygen

Glucose >>> lactic acid + (energy)

Anaerobic respiration produces less energy than aerobic so it is only used during strenuous exercise

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12
Q

What is the oxygen debt and why does it happen?

How is it ‘repaid’?

A

The oxygen debt is the oxygen needed to break down the lactic acid made by anaerobic respiration

It happens when there is a shortage of oxygen during exercise

We pant after exercise to repay this debt

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13
Q

What is body temperature?

How do we cool ourselves down?

A

37°C

We cool ourselves down by: sweating; vasodilation (blood vessels move to the top of the skin so more heat can be lost)

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14
Q

What is body temperature?

How do we warm ourselves up?

A

37°C

We warm ourselves up by: shivering; goose bumps; vasoconstriction (blood vessels shrink further into the skin so less heat is lost)

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15
Q

How does the body control blood sugar levels?

A

Insulin (hormone produced in the pancreas) is responsible for controlling the level of sugar in the blood

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16
Q

What are antagonistic muscles?

A

Antagonistic muscles work in pairs – when one muscle contracts the other relaxes

E.g. the biceps and the triceps

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17
Q

How can heart rate be measured?

A

Using 2 fingers to press on the neck or the wrist

The number of beats per minute gives the heart rate

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18
Q

What is recovery rate?

How can this be measured?

A

The time taken to return to normal breathing and pulse after exercise is called the recovery rate

This can be measured by recorded the pulse and breathing at rest and timing how long it takes to return to this after exercise

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19
Q

What is spirometer used to measure?

A

A spirometer can be breathed into to measure lung capacity (vital capacity and volume capacity)

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20
Q

How can the glucose of the blood and urine be measured?

A

Glucose in the blood and urine can be measured using a dipstick

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21
Q

How can muscle strength be measured?

A

A grip test can be used to measure muscle strength

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22
Q

What type of foods are essential to optimise athletic performance?

A

Carbohydrates

Proteins

Fats

Vitamins

Minerals

Water

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23
Q

What is the job of a sports nutritionists and dietician?

A

They study the nutrient intakes of athletes and provide nutritional advice to maximise performance

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24
Q

How would a dietitian or sports nutritionist work out the nutritional requirements of client?

A

Using the daily energy requirements needed for a person of that weight and increase this to cope with exercise requirement

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25
Q

What is Body Mass Index?

How can it be worked out?

A

Body Mass index is an indicator of perfect weight

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26
Q

What types of food are athletes likely to eat before competing?

A

Complex carbohydrates e.g. bread, pasta and rice

This is because they contain lots of energy, which can be stored in the muscles (as glycogen)

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27
Q

Why may some athletes eat a diet high in protein?

A

Athletes wanting to build muscle e.g. weight lifters, will eat lots of protein to build muscle

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28
Q

What is an isotonic sports drink?

A

Isotonic drinks can replace water, glucose and electrolytes into the blood, which can be lost during strenuous exercise

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29
Q

Why does sportswear need to have the following properties?

Lightweight

Durable

Comfortable

A

Lightweight – to aid speed and endurance

Durable – to withstand heavy use

Comfortable – so they do not interfere with performance

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30
Q

When may sports clothing need to be high friction?

A

When slipping must be avoided e.g. trainers and gloves

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31
Q

When may sports equipment need to be low friction?

A

When speed is needed e.g. lycra shorts

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32
Q

What types of sport equipment may be made from metal?

Why is metal chosen?

A

Equipment such as golf clubs need to made from metal

This is because it is strong, flexible and hard (also conduct electricity)

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33
Q

What types of sport equipment may be made from ceramics?

Why are ceramics chosen?

A

Ceramics are used for hunting knives and fishing equipment etc…

They are used for this because they have high melting and boiling points and a low thermal conductivity

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34
Q

What types of sport equipment may be made from polymers?

Why are polymers chosen?

A

Sport clothing is often made from polymers

This is because it is low density, flexible and has low thermal conductivity

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35
Q

What type of natural materials can be used for sports clothing

What types of synthetic materials can be used for sports clothing?

A

Natural = cotton & leather

Synthetic = polyester & lycra

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36
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using synthetic materials for sports clothing?

A

Advantages: -

Strong

Water-resistant

Flexible

Cheap

Disadvantages: -

Some do not let sweat out/skin to breathe

Non-biodegradable

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37
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using natural materials for sports clothing?

A

Advantages: -

Allow skin to breathe (wicking)

Strong

Disadvantages: -

Some absorb water

Less flexible

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38
Q

In what type of sports would it be important that clothes should have the following properties?

Low density

Smooth

High tensile strength

A

Low density – for increasing speed e.g. trainers

Smooth – for reducing air resistance and increasing speed

High tensile strength – for material providing support e.g. bandages, lifting belts etc…

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39
Q

In what type of sports would it be important that clothes should have the following properties?

Thermal insulating

Flexible

Shock absorbent

A

Thermal insulating – to keep heat in e.g. skiing

Flexible – increased movement e.g. gymnastics

Shock absorbent – trainers

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40
Q

What is the respiratory system and what does it contain?

A

The respiratory system contains the organs which allow us to get oxygen to the cells (and remove carbon dioxide)

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41
Q

What are alveoli and what is their function?

A

Alveoli allow gas exchange in the lungs to occur (they have a very large surface area, are moist and have very thin walls with many capillaries)

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42
Q

What is respiration and where does it take place?

A

Respiration is the release of energy (from glucose and oxygen)

It occurs in every cell of the body

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43
Q

What is the word equation for respiration?

A

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + (energy)

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44
Q

What is the symbol equation for respiration?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + (energy)

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45
Q

What is tidal volume and vital capacity?

A

Tidal volume is the amount of air you breathe in and out with each breath

Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air you could possibly breathe in or out in one breath

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46
Q

What does the circulatory system consist of?

A

Heat, arteries, veins and capillaries

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47
Q

What is the job of the arteries and how are they adapted to perform this?

A

Arteries are thick walled carrying blood away from the heart to the body

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48
Q

What is the job of the veins and how are they adapted to perform this?

A

Veins are thin walled carrying blood back to the heart (they have valves)

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49
Q

What differences are there between the left and right side of the heart?

A

The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs (picking up oxygen)

The left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood from the lungs to the rest of the body (more muscular)

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50
Q

What is the job of the capillaries and how are they adapted to perform this?

A

Capillaries are one cell thick tubes allowing oxygen, food and waste to pass through them

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51
Q

What does the body do if there is too much blood glucose?

A

Insulin is added

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52
Q

What does the body do if there is too little blood glucose?

A

Insulin is not produced (and glucagon is released causing stored glycogen to be converted into glucose)

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53
Q

What is the function of the skeleton?

A

Support

Protection (internal organs)

Movement

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54
Q

What are the bones of the arm?

A

What are the bones of the arm?

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55
Q

How can you work out the moment of a simple lever such as an arm?

A

Moment = Force x Distance

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56
Q

What is the difference between hypertonic, hypotonic and isotonic drinks?

A

Hypertonic drinks supplement daily carbohydrate intake

Hypotonic drinks replace fluids lost through sweating

Isotonic drinks replace fluids and boost carbohydrates

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57
Q

What do athletes record a diet diary?

A

It makes their specific BER more accurate

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58
Q

What does the following symbol mean: -

A

BSI mark - product has been tested for quality and purpose and certain standards have been met for market in the UK

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59
Q

What does the following symbol mean: -

A

CE mark – product has been tested for quality and purpose and certain standards have been met for market in the European community

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60
Q

What is density and how is it calculated?

A

Density is a measure of the amount of mass per unit of volume

Density = mass ÷ volume

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61
Q

How can a material be measured for its stiffness, flexibility, toughness and brittleness?

A

Stiffness, flexibility, toughness and brittleness are measurements of stress

Stress = force ÷ cross sectional area

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62
Q

How can you measure compressive and tensile (breaking) strength of a material?

A

A material can be stretched until it deforms (using Hooke’s law)

Force = material constant x extension

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63
Q

What is thermal and electrical conductivity?

A

Thermal and electrical conductivity is a measurement which shows how well a material allows heat and electricity to flow through it

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64
Q

What are the properties of metals?

A

Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity, are strong and have high melting and boiling points

65
Q

What is an alloy?

A

An alloy is a mixture of two or more elements (where at least one is a metal)

66
Q

What are polymers?

A

Polymers make plastics (long chains of monomers) with varying properties (e.g. plastic bags, ropes, electrical insulation etc…)

67
Q

What is the difference between a thermosoftening and a thermosetting polymer?

A

Thermosoftening – can be heated and shaped many times

Thermosetting – can only be heated and shaped once

68
Q

How do thermosoftening and thermosetting polymers differ structurally?

A

Thermosetting polymers (bottom) contain cross links, holding their shape

69
Q

What are composites (name 2) and why are they useful?

A

Composites combine the properties of 2 or more materials,

GRP (glass-reinforced plastic) – stronger than plastic but not as brittle as glass

Ceramic hip – very hard yet very smooth

70
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Corrosive – a substance that may destroy living tissue on contact – it causes a burn

71
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Flammable – a substance that can catch fire easily

72
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Oxidising – this type of substance gives of a large amount of heat when in contact with other substances

73
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Explosive – a substance that may explode if it comes into contact with a flame or heat. It may also explode due to friction or shock

74
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Health hazard – a substance that poses a risk to health (e.g. may cause cancers)

75
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Moderate hazard – a substance that may cause harm in some way

76
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Toxic – a substance that is poisonous if swallowed or breathed in. It may even go through your skin!

77
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Gas under pressure – gas is pressurised and may pose a risk

78
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Environmental hazard – these substances damage or pollute the environment

79
Q

What does the following symbol mean?

A

Radiation – these substances are radioactive. Radiation can damage cells and cause cancer

80
Q

What deals with occupational health and safety in the UK?

A

The Health and Safety at Work act

81
Q

What is the regulatory body responsible for the regulation of risks to health and safety in the workplace?

A

The Health and Safety Executive

82
Q

What is this fire extinguisher used for and what should it not be used for?

A

Water

Used for wood, textiles and solid materials

Do not use for liquid, electrical or metal fires

83
Q

What is this fire extinguisher used for and what should it not be used for?

A

Powder

Used for liquid, electrical, wood, paper & textiles

Do not use for metal fires

84
Q

What is this fire extinguisher used for and what should it not be used for?

A

AFFF Foam

Used for liquid, paper, wood and textile fires

Do not use for electrical or metal fires

85
Q

What is this fire extinguisher used for and what should it not be used for?

A

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Used for liquid and electrical

Do not use for metal fires

86
Q

What does the FSA do?

A

Food Standards Agency (FS) protect the public’s health and consumer interests in food

87
Q

What does DEFRA do?

A

Department for Environment, Farming and Rural Affairs (DEFRA) ensure the farming industry thrives and produces sustainable, healthy and secure food supplies

88
Q

What are the common symptoms of food poisoning?

A

Nausea / stomach pains

Vomiting

Diarrheoa

89
Q

How can food preparation areas be kept free of bacteria?

A

Good personal hygiene

Wearing protective clothing

Disinfectants

Detergents

Sterilisation

Correct disposal of waste

90
Q

What is heat treatment?

A

High temperatures, which kill virtually all microorganisms and their spores: -

Canning

Bottling

Pasteurisation

Ultra-heat treatment (UHT)

Sterilisation

91
Q

How do low temperatures stop microorganisms?

A

Low temperatures slow down bacterial growth (fridges) and stop bacterial growth (freezers)

92
Q

What is an aseptic technique?

A

Techniques which prevent contamination (sterile)

93
Q

What is serial dilution?

A

Serial dilution takes a concentrated solution and makes it dilute

94
Q

What are the three main microorganisms which need to be slowed / removed / destroyed to preserve our food?

A

Bacteria

Fungi (yeast)

Moulds

95
Q

What food products are made using microorganisms?

A

Yogurt and cheese (bacteria)

Bread (yeast)

Wine and beer (yeast)

96
Q

What two farming methods are there?

A

Intensive farming and organic farming

97
Q

How do plants make their own food?

A

Via photosynthesis

98
Q

What do plants need from the soil?

A

Water and nutrients / minerals (nitrates, phosphates and potassium)

99
Q

What reduces the rate of photosynthesis (limiting factors)?

A

Light intensity

Temperature

Carbon dioxide

100
Q

What happens to the rate of photosynthesis as light intensity increases?

A

It increases (until a point)

101
Q

What happens to the rate of photosynthesis as carbon dioxide levels increase?

A

It increases (until a point)

102
Q

What happens to the rate of photosynthesis as temperature increases?

A

It increases then decreases (if too hot enzymes required for photosynthesis are denatured)

103
Q

How do farmers reduce photosynthesis limiting factors?

A

Plants are grown using artificial lights, in warm conditions and with paraffin lamps inside greenhouses (which release carbon dioxide)

104
Q

What are pests?

A

Pests are animals that eat and damage crops, e.g. caterpillars, snails, aphids etc…

105
Q

How can farmers reduce the number of pests?

A

Organic farming: biological predators (ladybirds to eat aphids)

Intensive farming: pesticides (chemicals which kill pests)

106
Q

How can farmers reduce fungi?

A

Fungicides which target specific fungi

107
Q

What is a weed?

A

A weed is any unwanted plant

108
Q

How can weeds be removed?

A

Organic farming: removed by digging them up

Intensive farming: herbicides which kill specific plants (the weeds)

109
Q

What are fertilisers?

A

Fertilisers contain minerals needed for plant growth (natural such as horse poo and chemical alternatives)

110
Q

What is intensive farming?

A

Intensive farming is designed to reduce energy loss (and therefore increase profit)

Animals are kept inside; fertilisers are used; pesticides, fungicides and herbicides sprayed onto crops; mono-cultured crops; antibiotics for livestock

Has moral issues!

111
Q

What is organic farming?

A

Organic farming is a more natural way of farming (more expensive for the consumer as more energy is required)

Animals have more freedom / not kept inside; natural fertilisers are used; biological control and weeds are picked by hand

Less food can be produced

112
Q

What is selective breeding?

A

Selective breeding produces offspring with characteristics you want

Choose parents with traits (things you want)

Breed the parents

Select from the offspring

Repeat

113
Q

Give two examples of selective breeding

A

Cows which produce more milk and are docile

Apples that are tasty but more resistant to disease

114
Q

What is genetic engineering?

A

Genetic engineering takes genes from one organism and transfers them to another

115
Q

What are the pros / cons of genetic engineering?

A

Pros: -

Reduce impact of genetic diseases

Improve plant growth

Improve resistance to disease

Longer shelf-life food

Ripening of fruit can be changed

World hunger solution

Cons: -

Playing ‘God’

It might not work (waste of money)

Genes could spread to the wild

Designer babies

Effects are not yet known (long-term)

Reduces the gene pool

116
Q

What is cloning?

A

Cloning is a method of producing an identical copy, e.g. plant cutting / fusion cell cloning

117
Q

How can plants be cloned?

A

Cuttings

118
Q

How can animals be cloned?

A

Fusion cell cloning

119
Q

How can you measure the rate of reaction?

A

Measure the rate at which the reactant is used up / the rate at which the product is formed

120
Q

What factors affect the rate of reaction?

A

Temperature

Concentration

Pressure

Surface Area

Catalysts

121
Q

What are catalysts?

A

Catalysts increase the rate of reaction without being used up, e.g. soap powder / enzymes

122
Q

What is a reversible reaction?

A

A reaction which can have the products react and form back into the reactants

123
Q

What can affect the position of an equilibrium?

A

Temperature

Concentration (pressure in gas reactions)

124
Q

What is (actual) yield and theoretical yield?

A

Actual yield – amount of product formed

Theoretical yield – maximum product that could form

125
Q

How can percentage yield be worked out?

A

Precentage yield = (mass product ÷ obtained theoretical mass) x 100

126
Q

What is ammonia and why is it needed?

A

Ammonia is a compound of hydrogen and nitrogen (NH3) used to make fertilisers via the Haber Process

127
Q

How is ammonia made during the Haber Process?

A

A compromise of temperature and pressure is chosen for maximum yield at lowest cost

128
Q

What is an ionic compound?

Give an example

A

Ionic compounds are formed when one atom gives electrons away and another picks them up, e.g. sodium chloride, potassium fluoride etc…

129
Q

What is a covalent compound?

Give an example

A

Covalent compounds are made when atoms share electrons, e.g. carbon dioxide, water, ethanol, glucose etc…

130
Q

What is universal indicator?

A

An indicator which measures the pH of a substance

131
Q

How can the pH of a solution be measured?

A

Use litmus paper: -

Red = acid

Blue = alkali

Use universal indicator: -

Red = strong acid

Orange = weak acid

Green = neutral

Blue/green = weak alkali

Purple = strong alkali

132
Q

How can you test the solubility of a powder?

A

Measure how much of the powder will dissolve in 100g of water

133
Q

How can you use precipitation to test for the following ions?

Copper (II)

Iron (II)

Iron (III)

A

Add sodium hydroxide

Copper (II) = blue precipitate

Iron (II) = green precipitate

Iron (III) = orange precipitate

134
Q

How can you test for the following?

Calcium

Lead

A

Add sodium hydroxide – white precipitate, followed by adding excess sodium hydroxide

Lead – white precipitate disappears

Calcium – white precipitate does not disappear (turns flame brick red)

135
Q

How can you test for chlorine?

A

Add silver nitrate and dilute nitric acid

Chlorides = white precipitate

136
Q

How can you test for sulfates?

A

Add barium chloride and dilute hydrochloric acid

Sulfates = white precipitate

137
Q

How can you test for carbonates?

A

Carbonates react with dilute hydrochloric acid to form carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide turns limewater milky

138
Q

How can ethanol (alcohol) be tested for?

A

Acidified potassium dichromate turns from yellow to green

139
Q

How can the colours in liquids be separated using chromatography?

A

Place dot of ink on chromatography paper; place paper in water; as water travels up the paper the ink is separated…

140
Q

How are atoms arranged?

A

A central nucleus with protons and neutrons inside (orbited by electrons)

141
Q

What is the atomic mass and atomic number?

A

Atomic mass – number of protons + neutrons

Atomic number – number of protons (therefore electrons)

142
Q

What is a mole?

A

A mole is a number – 6.023 x 1023

This precise number of atoms of carbon-12 weighs 12g

143
Q

How can you work out the moles in a given mass?

A

Number of moles = Mass (g) of element or compound ÷ atomic mass of the elements or compound

144
Q

What is titration?

What can it be used for?

A

Titration is used to add exact quantities of solution – a known concentration of acid can be used to work out the concentration of an unknown alkali (or vice-versa)

145
Q

How can Rf values be calculated?

A

Different chromatograms and the separated components of the mixtures can be identified by calculating the Rf value

146
Q

What is a comparison microscope?

A

A device used to compare things side by side

147
Q

What distinctive features do forensic scientists look for in bullets?

A

Length of bullet, shape and weight, rilfling marks, patterns etc…

148
Q

What distinctive features do forensic scientists look for in seeds?

A

Size of the seed, colour, shape and type

149
Q

What are polarising microscopes used for?

A

Fibres and soil

150
Q

What are electron microscopes used for?

A

Paint and pollen grains – they can magnify up to a million times

151
Q

What is mass spectrometry?

A

Mass spectrometry can identify elements and the relative ratios of isotopes

152
Q

What is infra-red spectrometry?

A

Infra-red spectrometry can determine molecular structure and identify an organic compound

153
Q

Why are instrumental techniques used?

A

Instrumental techniques provide much more precise and reliable evidence than those from laboratory experiments

154
Q

What are the main parts of an animal cell and what are their functions?

A

Nucleus

Cell membrane

Cytoplasm

155
Q

What is contained in blood?

A

Blood plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets

156
Q

What are the 4 main blood groups?

A

A

B

O

AB

157
Q

Where is DNA located?

Why is DNA such a good form of evidence?

A

DNA is located in the nucleus

DNA is such good evidence because no 2 people (apart from identical twins) have the same DNA

158
Q

How is a DNA profile produced?

A

An enzyme is used to cut up the DNA

Fragments are separated by electrophoresis

Electric field pulls them through a gel

Different sizes of fragment move different amounts

The pattern is individual to each person

159
Q

What is refractive index?

A

Refractive index is the bending of light (due to refraction) in different mediums