Adamolekun - Seizures Flashcards

1
Q

What is a seizure?

A
  • Episode of abnormally synchronized and high frequency firing of neurons, resulting in abnormal behavior or experience
  • Abnormal behavior: generalized tonic-clonic mvmts or staring episodes
  • Abnormal experience: deja-vu phenomenon or different types of aura
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2
Q

What is epilepsy? What are some provoking factors that need to be excluded?

A
  • Chronic brain disorder of various etiologies characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures
    1. Recurrent: single seizure cannot be described as epileptic seizure
  • Seizures are stereotyped, and will be similar w/time —> always a pattern (some people may be violent)
  • Provoking factors that need to be ruled out include: accelerated HTN, fever, acute head trauma, metabolic disorders (like hypo- and hyperglycemia), and electrolyte disturbances like hyponatremia
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3
Q

What is an easy way to distinguish partial vs. generalized seizures?

A
  • Partial vs. generalized is all about HOW IT STARTS
  • Pt with some awareness is def partial; generalized will start with seizure all over
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4
Q

What is the value of a normal EEG in a pt (adult vs. pediatric) who has had a seizure-like episode, but you just don’t know?

A
  • EEG has very little value in adult neurology if it is (-)
  • Normal EEG (often hyperventilate pts during this) in pediatrics can rule out absence epilepsy, but it does NOT rule out seizures
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5
Q

What is the gold standard for determining whether or not seizures are epileptic?

A
  • EEG is the gold standard
  • Epileptic seizures come from brain; nonepileptic may by emotional or otherwise (even if pt believes they are coming from the brain)
  • Tongue biting and urinary incontinence also tend to go with epileptic, but can have with non-epileptic
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6
Q

What drug can use in young, pregnant woman with absence seizures?

A
  • Lamotrigine
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7
Q

If a seizure presents with a “warning,” is it more likely to be focal or absence?

A

Focal

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8
Q

Are provoked seizures typically focal or generalized?

A
  • Typically, generalized, tonic-clonic seizures (e.g., metabolic causes)
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9
Q

What are epilepsy syndromes?

A
  • Groupings of similar epileptic pts according to seizure type, EEG, age of onset, prognosis, and clinical signs
  • EXAMPLE: juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)
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10
Q

What is the epi of epileptic seizures?

A
  • Prevalence: 0.5% (can be as high as 5% in countries where communities have inadequate access to primary health care facilities)
  • Age-specific incidence has DEC in younger age gps, and INC in pts over 60
    1. Partly the result of INC rate of strokes in this age group; these can predispose to epileptic seizures
    2. Degenerative disorders and tumors in this age gp may also contribute to these #’s
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11
Q

What are some of the causes of adult-onset epileptic seizures?

A
  • Cerebrovascular disease, trauma, tumors, infection, cerebral degeneration
  • This is for epileptic pts whose etiologies are known; majority of pts w/epileptic seizures have unknown etiology despite extensive investigations
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12
Q

What are the 2 overarching classifications of seizures? How are they diagnosed?

A
  • PARTIAL: focal onset seizures that emanate from a specific cortical head region, and may sometimes spread to become secondarily generalized (tonic-clonic, not myoclonic)
  • GENERALIZED: no focal onset, and thought to emanate from brainstem structures, with spread to both hemispheres at the same time (myoclonic jerks are features of primary generalized, not partial that progress to secondary generalized)
  • DIAGNOSIS: still a clinical one, buttressed by EEG findings (normal EEG does NOT by itself negate a clinical impression of epileptic seizures)
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13
Q

What are the subcategories within partial seizures?

A
  • SIMPLE: consciousness preserved
  • COMPLEX: consciousness impaired
    1. Pt may experience some amnesia regarding event
  • Both can progress to secondary generalized, where consciousness is lost and there is bilateral cerebral involvement (tonic-clonic mvmts)
  • NOTE: level of consciousness is often a key to distinguishing between simple and complex
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14
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of simple partial seizures?

A
  • Depend on seizure focus:
    1. MOTOR: may exhibit Jacksonian march (focal seizures starting in hand and marching up to arm and face on same side, for example)
    2. SOMATOSENSORY: sensory cortex; present w/tingling, numbness of extremity or side of face
    3. AUTONOMIC: may present with rising epigastric sensations, nausea
    4. PSYCHIC: fear, deja vu, jamai vu (these and autonomic may be focused in hippocampus or limbic system)
  • Consciousness is intact; EEG may appear normal
  • Auras: brief, partial seizures with no overt behavioral manifestations (may progress to seizure sometimes, but not do so other times)
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15
Q

What are the features of complex partial seizures?

A
  • Typically emanate from temporal or frontal lobes
  • Impaired consciousness (NO LOC), blank stare, about 1 minute
  • Oral/ipsilateral hand automatisms: chewing, lip-smacking, hand-rubbing, picking movements
  • Contralateral dystonic posturing: spread of seizure to ipsilateral basal ganglia -> can be LOCALIZING bc tends to be in arm/hand contralateral to seizure focus
  • Amnesia for ictal event; post-ictal amnesia and confusion (irrational talk) are common
  • Focal abnormality on routine EEG
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16
Q

What are the 6 types of primary generalized seizures?

A
  • Absence (petit-mal)
  • Tonic-clonic
  • Clonic
  • Tonic
  • Myoclonic
  • Atonic
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17
Q

What are the features of absence seizures?

A
  • Aka, petit-mal: most common in kids -> brief, sudden lapses in attention (briefly unresponsive: 10-20 secs)
  • Baseline EEG may show 3Hz spike wave: these are pretty pathognomonic for this condition
  • Staring spell
  • No post-ictal confusion
  • Subtle myoclonic mvmt, eyelid flutter
  • No baseline neuro deficits
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18
Q

What are the features of tonic-clonic seizures?

A
  • Typical presentation:
    1. Cry, LOC
    2. Muscular rigidity (tonic)
    3. Pt may fall, and tongue-biting/injury common (not invariable)
    4. Rhythmic jerking (clonic)
    5. Bladder/bowel incontinence (not invariable)
    6. Post-ictal confusion (or combativeness), sleep
  • Aka, grand-mal
  • REMEMBER: both simple and partial complex seizures can progress to secondarily generalized tonic-clonic seizures
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19
Q

What are the typical features of a myoclonic seizure?

A
  • Brief, shock-like mm contractions of head, upper, or lower extremities
  • Usually bilateral and symmetrical
  • Consciousness preserved: pt fully aware of event
  • Precipitated by awakening or falling asleep: may be more common in AM (e.g., trouble shaving, drinking AM coffee)
  • May progress into tonic-clonic
  • NOTE: JME commonly presents with these
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20
Q

What are the features of atonic seizures?

A
  • Impaired consciousness and loss of mm tone
  • Brief duration
  • If seated, pt’s head will drop; may fall if standing, and injury common in this situation (pts may have to wear helmets)
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21
Q

How can you dx seizure?

A
  • CLINICAL DX
  • Hx from pt and witnesses: aura, progression from start to finish (to help distinguish partial or generalized)
  • PE and neuro exam (usually normal in pts w/epilepsy)
  • CBC, CMP: to help detect abnormalities like hypoglycemia or hyponatremia
  • AED levels: to detect non-compliance or inadequate dosing
  • Inter-ictal EEG
  • Epilepsy protocol MRI of brain in pts w/new-onset seizures
  • Video EEG monitoring: may be recommended for pts w/intractable seizures
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22
Q

What is the prevalence of inter-ictal epileptiform discharges in epileptic pts?

A
  • Initial EEG detects epileptiform discharge in 29-55% of pts
  • Serial EEG’s reveal epileptiform discharges in 80-90% of pts
  • Repeat studies with sleep deprivation and extended recording times helps INC chances of detecting epileptiform discharges in pts with epilepsy
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23
Q

What do you see here?

A
  • EEG showing focal epileptiform discharge: seizure focus is in L anterior temporal head
  • NOTE: add’l examples of epileptiform abnormalities sometimes seen in EEG’s of pts with epileptic seizures are sharp waves, spikes, and sharp-and-slow wave discharges
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24
Q

What is going on here?

A
  • EEG showing generalized epileptiform discharge: bilateral burst of epileptiform spike and slow wave discharges starting at red arrow
  • This is typical for primary generalized seizures like juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME): discharge occurs simultaneously and symmetrically in both hemispheres
25
Q

What is this?

A
  • EEG in absence (primary generalized) seizure
  • Bilateral and symmetrical spike and wave activity at frequency of 3Hz/second is classic for petit mal
26
Q

When should you do an MRI? Why? What type?

A
  • Recent-onset epilepsy in adults requires imaging sequences, including gadolinium-DPTA enhanced sequences to find 1o or 2o tumors, infection, or inflammation
  • This seizure protocol MRI of brain is to evaluate for lesions or inflammatory changes
  • Coronal high resolution T1-weighted volume data set through whole brain + coronal T2-weighted sequence (3mm sections) to detect hippocampal sclerosis
    1. In pts w/epileptic seizures from temporal lobe, MRI evidence of hippocampal sclerosis may make them candidates for epilepsy surgery (see attached image; aka, medial temporal sclerosis)
27
Q

What is video EEG monitoring? When should it be done?

A
  • Simultaneous recording of EEG and seizure
  • Useful in differentiating epileptic seizures from non-epileptic (gold standard), and for characterizing seizure type
  • Essential for pre-surgical localization of seizure focus
  • Important for eval of pts w/intractable seizures
28
Q

What is the pathophys of seizures?

A
  • At baseline, brain has balance b/t excitation and INH via ligand-gates ion channels
  • INC excitation or DEC INH can lead to tendency toward epileptic seizures
  • GABA: activates GABAA receptors that mediate fast synaptic INH (IPSP) by permitting rapid influx of Cl-, resulting in hyperpolarization
    1. In most neuronal circuits, GABAergic INH exerts powerful suppression of excitability, but this is overcome during devo of focal seizure
  • Glutamate: activates 3 classes of ion channel (AMPA, kainate, NMDA) that mediate fast synaptic excitation by permitting rapid influx of Na and Ca
  • NOTE: anti-epileptic drugs work to INC INH (via GABA) or DEC excitation (via glutamate)
29
Q

What are the goals of anti-epileptic drug therapy?

A
  • Two types of remission:
    1. MEDICAL: seizure-free w/o side effects on 1 or 2 AED’s (pts w/intractable seizures may sometimes require >2 drugs)
    2. DISEASE: seizure-free off all AED’s (in pts who have been seizure free for 2-3 yrs, effort may be made to gradually withdraw AED’s)
  • Major goal is to achieve medical remission
  • Sx therapy in well-selected cases may result in disease remission
30
Q

How are AED’s selected?

A
  • Efficacy for specific seizure types or epilepsy syndromes
  • Efficacy for co-morbid conditions: obesity (Topiramate, Zonisamide), migraines (Topiramate), depression (Lamotrigine), bipolar disorder (Valproic acid)
  • Interactions with other drugs: Warfarin, statins, HIV drugs (if enzyme inducing)
  • Ease of introduction, follow-up
  • Drug safety
  • Cost
31
Q

What is the MOA of Phenobarbitol?

A
  • Enhances activity of GABA receptor (prolongs)
  • Depresses glutamate activity
  • Reduces Na+ and K+ conductance
32
Q

What is the MOA of Phenytoin?

A

Blockade of Na+ channels and INH action on Ca2+ and Cl- conductance

33
Q

What is the MOA of Carbamazepine?

A

Blockade of neuronal Na+ channel conductance

34
Q

What is the MOA of Valproate?

A
  • Affects GABA glutamatergic activity and reduces threshold of Ca and K+ conductance
35
Q

What is the MOA of Ethosuximide?

A

INH Ca T-channel conductance

36
Q

What is the MOA of Lamotrigine?

A

Blockage of voltage-dependent Na+ conductance

37
Q

What is the MOA of Oxcarbazepine?

A

Na+ channel blockage

38
Q

What is the MOA of Topiramate?

A

Blockage of Na+ channels, enhancement of GABA-mediated Cl- influx

39
Q

What is the MOA of Zonisamide?

A

Blockage of Na+, K+, and Ca2+ channels, INH glutamate excitation

40
Q

What is the MOA of Gabapentin?

A

Modulation of N-type Ca channel

41
Q

What are the serious side effects of Carbamazepine?

A
  • Aplastic anemia
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • SJS
42
Q

What are the serious AE’s of Ethosuximide?

A
  • Bone marrow depression
  • Hepatotoxicity
43
Q

What are the serious AE’s of Lamotrigine?

A
  • SJS or TEN
44
Q

What are the serious AE’s of Phenytoin?

A
  • Aplastic anemia
  • Hepatic failure
  • SJS
45
Q

What are the serious AE’s for Oxcarbazepine?

A
  • Hyponatremia
  • Rash
46
Q

What are the serious AE’s for Topiramate and Zonisamide?

A
  • Renal calculi
  • Hypohidrosis: DEC sweating
47
Q

What are the serious AE’s for Phenobarbitol?

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • CT disorder
  • SJS
48
Q

What are the serious side effects of Valproate?

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Hyperammonemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Pancreatitis
49
Q

Which AED’s are CYP inducers? Why does this matter?

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Phenobarbitol
  • Phenytoin
  • Oxcarbazepine and Topiramate (minimal)
  • Speed up metabolism of some o/drugs (like Warfarin or antiretrovirals), and can lead to:
    1. Failure of oral contraceptives
    2. Cause osteopenia, osteoporosis, fractures
    3. INC metabolism of androgens/estrogens
50
Q

In which pts is CYP450 enzyme induction esp. undesirable?

A
  • Women on OC’s
  • Pts on oral coagulation
  • Transplant pts
  • AIDS pts on protease INH
  • Pts predisposed to osteoporosis
  • NOTE: effects of inducers not significantly reduced until totally discontinued
51
Q

What are some strategies to reduce birth defects on AED’s?

A
  • Prenatal dx testing at 16-18 weeks: maternal serum alpha fetoprotein, ultrasound studies
  • Lowest effective AED dose
  • Monotherapy
  • Preconceptual folic acid supplementation (0.8-4mg/d)
52
Q

What is the probability of medical remission in newly dx’d pts?

A
  • Seizure free for 2 or more years:
    1. 47% w/1st AED used in monotherapy -> most pts who respond do so with 1st AED in monotx
    2. 14% w/2nd AED used in monotherapy
    3. 4% w/2 AED’s used
53
Q

What is the definition of intractable epilepsy?

A
  • Disabling seizures recurring despite optimized therapy
    1. Disabling seizures: causing impaired QOL, limited edu or occupational opps, physical injuries, or social compromise (most epileptic seizures do this)
    2. Optimized tx: AED tx is optimum if pt is on at least 2 AED’s, at max tolerated dose and with good compliance
54
Q

What is the prevalence of intractable epilepsy?

A
  • Seizures are effectively controlled with AED’s in 70-80% of pts
  • 20-30% are not seizure-controlled using currently available AED’s -> INTRACTABLE
55
Q

What is the burden of intractable epilepsy on the pt?

A
  • Poor QOL
  • Restriction of psychosocial, edu, and occupational performance in child and adult
    1. Often become withdrawn and depressed
  • Risk of injuries from seizures
  • Higher risk of SUDEP (sudden unexplained death in epilepsy) in pt w/intractable seizures than in those whose seizures are well-controlled
56
Q

What kinds of tx are there for refractory epilepsy?

A
  • POLYTHERAPY w/antiepileptic drugs
  • VAGUS N STIMULATOR: electrical pulse generator implanted subcu on chest and lead attached to L Vagus to deliver impulses at pre-programmed intervals to stimulate Vagus (MOA unknown; image) -> 40-50% have >50% seizure reduction, but rarely seizure-free
  • Epilepsy SURGERY: pts w/intractable seizures should be referred to epilepsy center for eval, incl. EEG monitoring -> suitable candidates can be referred for appropriate surgery, which may include:
    1. Temporal lobectomy, lesionectomy, corpus callosotomy, corticectomy, multiple subpial transections, hemispherectomy
57
Q

What are the features of generalized convulsive status epilepticus (GCSE)?

A
  • Continuous, generalized, convulsive seizure lasting >5 minutes or 2 or more sequential seizures occurring w/o full recovery of consciousness
  • NOTE: non-convulsive status epilepticus can only be dx’d w/continuous EEG monitoring
58
Q

How is GCSE managed?

A
  • Medical emergency requiring ICU admission
  • ABC’s (airway, breathing, circulation), IV access
  • Labs, brief history, exam
  • 50mL of 50% glu, thiamine
  • Lorazepam 0.1-0.15mg/kg IV
  • Order bedside EEG monitoring
  • Start Phenytoin 20mg/kg bolus by slow IV (may give add’l doses to total of 30mg/kg)
59
Q

What is refractory GCSE? How do you tx it?

A
  • Refractory if pt fails to respond to continuous Lorazepam -> pt may require add’l meds that can be used in pts who are intubated/venilated (see below)
  • If convulsive seizures persist, consider intubation
  • Start continuous EEG monitoring
  • Midazolam 0.2mg/kg bolus, then 0.05-0.5mg/kg/hr
  • Propofol 1-2mg/kg bolus, then 2-10mg/kg/hr
  • Pentobarbital 8mg/kg