Adam - prenatal Flashcards

1
Q

how do gross structural chromosome abnormalities come about?

typically what problems do they cause?

A
  1. they are catalysed by DNA damage. recombination/repair? occurs between homologues sequences in a non-allelic manner. that is, normally the template used for repair is the sister chromatid (during mitosis) and the homolog (in meiosis). when the template used is located in a non-allelic position you can get gross structural abnormalities
  2. they predispose cells to mal segregation in meiosis, increasing chances of pregnancy loss, still birth and genetic disease in offspring. (balanced) rearrangements are often undetected until adulthood when infertility becomes an issue
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2
Q

what are pericentric inversions and what can you look out for to spot them?

what are paracentric inversions?

A

pericentric inversions are when the breakpoints are on opposite arms of the chromosome - i.e. the centromere is included in the segment being inverted

this means you can look out for a change in chromosome morphology, as in the centromere will be in a different location/the two arms change lengths
AND changes in banding

paracentric inversions are when the breakpoints don’t flank the centromere, they are harder to spot as the only changes are in the banding structure (not the chromosome morphology)

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3
Q

what impact do inversions have on people carrying them and why?

A

carriers are often not identified until adulthood. The main reason for the “late” detection of such abnormalities is because the inversions tend not to disrupt gene function or expression (possibly the regions near to the centromere tend to be heterochromatin/not expressed?), so the patient is essentially “normal”.

Inversions do create abnormal chromosome structures during meiosis and these can be problematic and disruptive to spermatogenesis (resulting in male infertility or reduced fertility), and can increase the risk of unbalanced gamete formation

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4
Q

what are insertions and why are they rare?

A

two breakpoints in one chromosome (marking the section that’s gonna be taken out and…) another breakpoint in a different chromosome where the fragment will be inserted. they often occur in cancer cells and are typically sub-microscopic/too small to identify.

note - can be intrachromosomal or intrachromosomal

rarer than inversions, because more events need to take place at the same time in the same space (thus lower probability).

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5
Q

explain how and why carriers of structural rearrangements are infertile/exhibit low fertility (like the whole process, specifically pericentric inversions).

A

in meiosis, specifically in prophase and metaphase I when homologous chromosomes are paired, the pairing structures formed by rearranged chromosomes are abnormal.
they cant align side-by-side because the homologous regions wont align (as one Chr has an inverted segment), so they form an abnormal loop structure.
if crossing over occurs within the inversion, the result is two unbalanced (and two balanced chromatids).

the loop structures are enough to disrupt spermatogenesis, resulting in oligospermia, low sperm count, or azoospermia, lack of sperm in semen, and/or reduced motility. oogenesis is a more robust/resilient process, and the gametes typically survive the rearrangements and still form, however the unbalanced chromatids are not viable.

the balanced chromosomes are…

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6
Q

what is meant by recurrent translocations/rearrangements? why are they recurrent?

A

the derivative chromosomes are observed in the general population – in unrelated families. This is because there are known non-allelic homologous repeat sequences that are brought together in the genome at defined times – and these are particularly vulnerable to illegitimate recombination events. Perhaps the best example of this is the recurrent translocation that is observed between chromosomes 11 and 22

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7
Q

if a balanced inversion was identified in a newborn/prenatally etc…, where is it likely to have come from and what must be done?

A

the formation of the abnormal loop structures often disrupt spermatogenesis and the gametes don’t form, oogenesis is more robust and is more likely to still complete - the two balanced chromatids can be passed on to children, so a balanced inversion likely came from mum…

the normal development of that foetus or child was in question – then further investigations would need to be conducted to exclude the possibility that the rearrangement was linked to the abnormal clinical phenotype i.e. via a change to the expression or function of genes in the vicinity of the breakpoints. Logically the first thing to check is whether the abnormality occurred de-novo – or if it was inherited. If inherited from a parent who is apparently normal – then the assumption is that the inversion does not disrupt gene function and is therefore thought to be benign

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8
Q

(this is probably overkill but) assuming crossing over occurred within the inversion, what four chromatids do you get with a pericentric inversion? with a paracentric?

A
  • One normal chromatid: No crossing over, remains unaffected.
  • One inverted chromatid: No crossing over, carries the inversion but has all genetic material.
  • One recombinant chromatid with duplications and deletions: Crossing over results in parts of the chromosome being duplicated and others deleted.
  • Another recombinant chromatid with reciprocal duplications and deletions: Complementary to the other recombinant chromatid.
    Key Consequence:
    Gametes with recombinant chromatids are typically inviable due to imbalanced genetic material (duplications and deletions)

paracentric -
One normal chromatid: No crossing over, remains unaffected.
One inverted chromatid: No crossing over, carries the inversion but has all genetic material.
One recombinant chromatid with no centromere (acentric fragment): Lacks a centromere and is lost during cell division.
One recombinant chromatid with two centromeres (dicentric chromatid): Contains two centromeres, leading to instability during cell division as it is pulled in two directions, often causing breakage.

Key Consequence:
Recombinant chromatids (acentric and dicentric) are typically non-functional, leading to reduced fertility. Only gametes with normal or inverted chromatids are viable

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9
Q

what are balanced translocations?

while pointing out the difference between familial and recurrent translocations, explain how translocations come about.

A

Balanced = no gain or loss of genetic material. (in some cases you can get small deletions near breakpoints but this is still not imbalanced (does not typically have a clinical implication as most cases the breakpoints in translocation events occur in non-coding regions, and are detected in the normal adult population if someone is trying and struggling to start a family)

some chromosomes with homologous regions on a different numbered chromosome. This doesn’t happen super often because of ‘territories’ - chromosomes are dynamic but occupy certain areas, and diff. Number chromosomes with areas of homology are kept apart by these territories. Familial ones are so unlikely, seeing it again must be in someone of the same family.
Ones we se recurrently must occur from regions of the genome that are homologous come together a little more often - the system isn’t perfect. The territories transiently overlap

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10
Q

what is meant by a derivative?

what kind of issues do translocations (balanced) cause in men?

A

the term used to describe a chromosome that has been generated (derived) from abnormal events. The identity of a chromosome is determined by the origin of the centromeric region

balanced translocations are likely to cause abnormal structures during MI, and these would likely be disruptive to spermatogenesis (oligospermia, azoospermia, recurrent miscarriage - 3 or more spontaneous loss of pregnancy)

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11
Q

in homologous recombination, what happens if a balanced translocation is present and why?

A

because of the translocation, if the homologous chromosomes aligned linearly in a bivalent, regions of the chromosomes would not all align. so like how inversions form abnormal loops, translocations form something called a pachytene cross.

however this cross is susceptible to (but not guaranteed to have) errors in chromosome segregation…

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12
Q

explain the steps of chromosome segregation of a pachytene cross that results in four viable gametes

clarify the end results

A

known as MI alternate segregation…

anaphase of MI: alternate centromeres are segregated to the same pole. Meaning that to one pole moves the two normal chromosomes, and to the other pole moves the two derivatives/abnormal chromosomes that balance each other.
Sister chromatids are then segregated at anaphase in meiosis II into 4 gametes

this shows carriers of translocation can generate a viable, balanced pregnancy.
the first pole describes results in 2 gametes with normal chromosomes, so fusion with another normal gamete would yield a chromosomally normal conceptus.

Gametes from the second pole described have a full complement of chromosomes, just mixed up, so would generate a viable and chromosomally balanced conceptus - the foetus would carry the translocation in these cases. In all likelihood the foetus would develop normally, but would perhaps suffer reduced fertility later in life, particularly if male

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13
Q

another way the pachytene cross can segregate is ‘MI adjacent I segregation.

describe what happens here, making sure to explain the end results

A

‘adjacent centromeres are co-segregated’ as in centromeres next to each other in the cross go together to the same pole (in this case, when you split the cross along the ‘long axis’)

so one of the normal Chrs goes to one pole, with an abnormal Chr involved in the translocation, and the other normal chromosome goes to the other pole with the other abnormal chromosome.

FOUR UNBALANCED GAMETES
so each gamete receives one normal chromosome and one translocated chromosome from the involved pair.
These gametes are unbalanced because the translocation causes duplications and deletions of genetic material

so each gamete would have partial trisomy of the normal chromosome it got (because the abnormal one was involved in a translocation and has a bit more of that number chromosome stuck on), as well as partial monosomy of the abnormal chromosome (that had been swapped for the extra of the other causing said trisomy^)

would almost certainly result in an inviable pregnancy

bit wordy but just so you get it

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14
Q

another option at segregation for the pachytene cross (balanced/reciprocal translocation has occurred) is the MI adjacent II segregation.

describe what happens here, making sure to explain the end results

A

the cross is split along the short axis, and adjacent centromeres (the opposite pairing to MI adjacent I segregation) go to the same pole.

in this case, the normal chromosome is paired with the abnormal chromosome that is very similar to it, i.e. normal Chr 11 goes with the derivative from the translocation that is mostly Chr 11 with a little bit missing replaced with a small chunk of 14 or something (and vice versa)

similarly, you’d have partial trisomy and partial monosomy in every gamete, all likely to result in non-viable pregnancies.

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15
Q

there’s been a balanced translocation, and a pachytene cross has formed.

what kind of segregation can result in a relatively small imbalance that could result in a viable pregnancy?

A

3:1 mal segregation
occurs when there is another ‘long axis’ for the cell to choose from, present when one of the chromosomes created in the translocation is very long (has a big chunk of the original Chr, plus a big chunk of the slapped on translocated Chr)

this long Chr goes to one pole alone, and the other three Chrs go to the other pole together.

at the pole with three Chrs you get partial trisomy, but not monosomy for wither Chr, so t’s quite possible for the pregnancy to come to term – and if it did, the the baby would be affected by serious conditions and morphological features

the other pole produces two gametes with partial monosomy of both Chr numbers involved, aren’t viable, likely to abort before the pregnancy is clinically recognised.

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16
Q

what are acrocentric chromosomes?

A

when the p arm is very short, and composed of repetitive DNA sequences and rDNA genes

in humans they are Chrs 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

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17
Q

what are Robertsonian translocations?

A

chromosomal rearrangement where the long arms (q arms) of two acrocentric chromosomes fuse at their centromeres, forming a single large dicentric chromosome (tho only one centromere is thought to be active). The short arms (p arms) form an accentric fragment that is typically lost, as they contain non-essential repetitive rRNA genes

They are considered to be unbalanced as a small acentric fragment consisting of satellited p arm material is lost

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18
Q

why are robertsonian translocations common-ish?

A

1 in 1000, because all these acrocentric chromosomes are involved in formation of the nucleolus, coming together at the end of telophase, to bring the rDNA genes together and enable efficient expression - so if there’s a DNA break there’s a chance you’ll get a translocation between them due to close juxtaposition, and…

The inverted nature and sequence similarity of satellite DNA located in acrocentric p arms

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19
Q

explain the outcomes, in terms of gametes, for Robertsonian translocations (lets say Chr 21 and 14, tho most common is 13 and 14 btw)

A

as we know, translocation occurs so that the long arm of 21 and 14 combine, and the short arms also combine. This results in a long chromosome carrying most of the genetic information from Chr 21 and Chr 14, and a short chromosome carrying few genes from Chr 21 and 14 - this short chromosome is usually lost in meiosis

the long chromosome can kind of be considered as a Chr 14 and Chr 21 in one (but I don’t think I’d say this is the exam)

down one route, you can get two gametes with trisomy 21 - when the normal Chr 21 is paired with the long chromosome made up of Chr 21 and 14’s long arms (counting as a copy of Chr 21 and a copy of Chr 14) so when a sperm brings along it’s single copy of Chr 21 the resulting zygote has three Chromosome 21s (albeit one of which is missing the short arm). the other two gametes have no Chr 21as the short arm is lost (so zygotes would be monosomic for Chr 21

reverse can happen with trisomy 14 and monosomy 14

or you can have the normal 21 and 14 pair, giving two normal gametes, and the other two gametes have the long chromosome kind of functioning as a 21 and a 14, so are ‘balanced carriers’

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20
Q

for pretty much all chromosome structural abnormalities, what line is pretty safe to always throw in?

A

abnormal synaptic structures form in meiosis I, that predispose to mal-segregation and the formation of unbalanced gametes that can result in inviable pregnancy or genetic disease

21
Q

lets say a woman has a Robertsonian translocation with Chr 14 and 15 (so she’s got a normal copy of 14 and 15, and then the big long chromosome counting as her second copy for both)

The three way pairing structure in meiosis is liable to 2:1 mal segregation, and this can lead to trisomy of 14 or 15 – both are inviable but explain four ways in which this could be ‘rescued’ to produce a viable zygote.

A

so this woman’s gamete ends up unbalanced due to disomy for chromosome 15 (abnormal), there is also 1 copy of chromosome 14 (normal)

  1. abnormal gamete fuses with another gamete that is nullisomic (i.e. no copies of) chromosome 15
  2. abnormal gamete fuses with another normal gamete. The conceptus (zygote) therefore has 3 copies of Ch15 – but a mitotic non-disjunction event results in a Ch15 disomic cell line being generated, which then goes on to establish foetal and placental tissues.
  3. similar, a mitotic non-disjunction event occurs slightly later than described in scenario 2, resulting in a mosaic individual. This individual is not classified as being “balanced” but depending on the level of mosaicism and the tissues impacted by the imbalance – it is entirely possible for the individual to develop into adulthood, and in cases of very low levels of mosaicism the imbalance could be undetected as the individual develops and lives normally.
  4. 2:1 mal segregation of the chromosomes may also be corrected via chromosome nondisjunction in MII of the same meiotic division!!!
22
Q

how can imprinted chromosomes cause a problem in rescuing events involving Robertsonian translocations?

A

imprinted chromosomes are when means that some genes are silenced (via methylation) on the maternally inherited Ch15. An opposite pattern of methylation (silenced expression) is expected on the paternally inherited chromosome. Thus appropriate levels of expression (gene dosage) is only established in a developing foetus if two copies of Ch15 have been inherited, and each has been inherited from either parent

Inheritance of 2 maternal CH15 and no paternal Ch15s (e.g. if mum passes on a normal Chr 15 and a 14-a5 translocation) results in over expression of some CH15 genes, and no expression of others. This results in Prader-Willi Syndrome. Inheritance of 2 Paternal CH15 and no Maternal copies results in the opposite gene expression scenario and Angelman Syndrome

23
Q

aneuploidy - give some statistics on spontaneous abortions and associated risk factors.

A

15% of all pregnancies spontaneously abort (~10% for under 30s, 20% for 30-39, and 50% for women over 45)

Risk factors of the individual contribute to likelihood, including smoking, obesity, diabetes, high blood pressure and infection

Estimated 50% of all spontaneous abortions have an abnormal complement of chromosomes (typically, but not always, from inherited abnormalities)

24
Q

describe the four stages of Prophase I

A

Leptotene: Chromosomes begin to condense, becoming visible as thin, thread-like structures.

Zygotene: Homologous chromosomes pair up closely in a process called synapsis.

Pachytene: Chromosomes become even more condensed, and crossing-over (genetic exchange between homologous chromosomes) occurs.

Diplotene: Homologous chromosomes start to separate but remain attached at chiasmata, the points where crossing-over happened

25
Q

what are 4 methods of prenatal sampling?

A

Sampling the Placenta - chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
After 10 weeks of gestation, the earliest test (is best, but always riskier). Risk of spontaneous abortion = 1-2%.
NOTE - Placenta cells may have an abnormality the foetus does not/vice versa, if the abnormality arose after fertilisation in a mitotic division and happened to be in cell/s that form the placenta (or the other way around)

Amniotic fluid (amniocentesis) - contains sloughed off epithelial cells from the foetus, mostly from the skin. Good source of chromosomes.

Cord blood - very risky

ffDNA - Just uses the mother’s blood, the foetus is not involved
There are little fragments of foetal DNA in the mother’s bloodstream (not in cells). They can then be isolated and sequenced /look at the reading he provide

26
Q

how are sister chromatids held together? (there’s 2 answers, this is the quicker one)

A

Cohesin complex/rings, hug sister chromatids, keeping them together all along the axis of the chromosome.
They are laid down behind replication forks, zipping up sister chromatids as they are created. Note, protein Rec8 is used in meiosis, and Scc1 in mitosis

27
Q

how does DNA damage encourage pairing of homologous chromosomes in meiosis?

A

in meiosis, the Topoisomerase-like enzyme, Spo11, is loaded onto DNA to produce DSBs

These act as substrates/nucleation sites for homologous recombination. exonucleases resect the DNA to generate single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) tracts. These ssDNA regions are coated with recombinase proteins, such as Rad51 and Dmc1, which mediate the search for and invasion of a homologous chromosome

the invasion of the homologous strand forms double holliday junctions - potentially giving you CROSSING OVER (sometimes just repairs the break without keeping a CO).

this process is important because:
1. The crossovers formed during homologous recombination act as physical links between homologous chromosomes. These links, or chiasmata, ensure that homologs are properly aligned and segregated during meiosis I. Without Spo11, chromosome mal segregation could lead to aneuploidy
2. promotion of genetic diversity by exchange of genetic material making unique allele combinations.

28
Q

what factor is involved in pushing the cell towards using the homolog as a template for repair of DSBs rather than the sister chromosome?

A

the synaptonemal complex that encourages the ssDNA tracts to invade a duplex/chromatid in the homologous chromosome (rather than the identical copy its attached to)

29
Q

when DSBs result in invasion of a homolog, what are the two paths the repair pathway can take?

A
  1. resolve the repair intermediate in a manner that leaves the chromatids of homologous chromosome free of entanglements. This means that at the end of the pathway, sister chromatid cohesion links the sister chromatids of the paternal chromosome together – and the same is true for the maternal sister chromatids. the synaptonemal complex holds the homologs together
  2. The other stream however repairs the break by covalently linking the chromatid that was first broken by Spo11to the invaded chromatid of the homolog . This creates a crossover, which means that sister chromatid cohesion from both homologs now hold the 2 homologous chromosomes together

AGAIN, This alignment and connection are crucial for the correct separation of homologs in meiosis I

30
Q

at metaphase, how does the cell prepare to separate the homologous pairs?

A

Separase cleaves rec8 - sort of clamp of the cohesin complex rings. This allows the chiasmata to resolve, the homologous chromosomes untangle and are separated to opposite poles.

Note - cohesion complex biochemistry slightly different at centromeres, it remains so that sister chromatids stay together, while homologous chromosomes can still separate

31
Q

why is having enough crossings over important in preventing aneuploidy?

(x2 reasons)

A

Too few crossings over = homologous chromosomes do not form stable pairs. This means they may not be aligned properly, you’re more likely to get mal segregation - if they’re not lined up properly, they won’t be separated properly, i.e. you’ll get nondisjunction, some gametes receive too many chromosomes and you’ve got aneuploidy

also, crossovers tethering one homolog to the other allows the mitotic spindle – which has attached to the kinetochore of each homolog – to exert tension across the bivalent. too few crossovers and there may not be enough force?

32
Q

just a note - what forces are holding homologous pairs together?

A

the sister chromatid cohesion holding together maternal chromatids and paternal chromatids also hold together the homologous pair, permitted by crossing over

33
Q

crossover position along the chromosome is very important.

what is the problem with very distal (near to the ends) crossovers?

A

Consequence: MI NDJ.
Homologous chromosomes may fail to align properly on the metaphase plate, leading to NDJ

Crossovers establish chiasmata, which are physical connections between homologous chromosomes. These connections generate tension when homologs are pulled toward opposite poles during metaphase I, ensuring proper alignment and segregation.

Distal Crossovers:
the chiasmata they form are less effective at holding homologs together, reducing the amount of sister chromatid cohesion that holds the chromatids together, and so mitotic spindle is less effective at exerting tension across the bivalent and separating homologs

leads to MI errors

34
Q

what is the problem with having proximal crossovers/very near to the centromere?

A

they interfere with sister chromatid cohesion at the centromere, which is meant to stay in-tact so that sister chromatids stay together.

leads to MII segregation errors, aneuploidy

35
Q

what two requirements are there for MII to go right (in terms of chromosome segregation)?

A

So for meiosis II to go right, you need:
1. Sister chromatid cohesion around the centromere remaining intact after MI. This again is because once homologous pairs have been separated, your sister chromatids need to be properly paired for proper segregation in MII

  1. The appropriate number and positioning of crossovers must occur in MI, for MII to complete normally
36
Q

give some stats to demonstrate that maternal age is a risk factor for aneuploid pregnancies

A

For women under the age of 25 years ~2% of all clinically recognized pregnancies are trisomic. But for women aged 40 or over the proportion of pregnancies affected by trisomy increases to around 30%

37
Q

how can you identifiy which parent the extra chromosome came from?

A

characterise highly polymorphic regions of the genome on the chromosome in question, and compare the identity of these loci with the parental homologs

38
Q

how do you identify when NDJ occurred (MI or MII)?

A

looking at polymorphic regions very close to the centromere, where a crossover is unlikely to have occurred, which means that in these regions – it’s very likely that the allelic identity is preserved

if NDJ occurred in MI, it means the homologous chromosomes failed to separate. these are homologs so same genes different alleles. the zygote produced will then have three different alleles, one from dad and the two from mums being different.

if NDJ occurred in MII, homologous chromosomes have been separated appropriately, its sister chromatids, which are identical, that fail to separate, so the zygote/foetus produced will have 2 alleles (in ratio 2:1) as the two copies from mum are identical (then you’ve got one from dad)

39
Q

what cause of down syndrome is most common?

what issues to do with crossing over are linked to causing segregation problems when?

A

NDJ in female MI (too few crossing overs, too distal)

followed by

NDJ in female MII (too many crossing overs, too proximal/close to centromere)

40
Q
A
  1. Crossovers create chiasmata that tether homologous chromosomes together, and allow tension to build across the bivalent as the meiotic spindle pulls them apart. Without crossovers, homologs move independently, resulting in mis segregation and a 50% chance of both going to the same pole, producing disomic gametes (aneuploid) or nullisomic gametes
41
Q

explain the two hit model in reference to increased likelihood of aneuploidy with maternal age

A

in females, meiotic development begins in foetal development, then shortly before birth, primary oocytes enter a very long arrested period in diplotene stage of prophase I (Diplotene: Homologous chromosomes start to separate but remain attached at chiasmata, the points where crossing-over happened).
During this arrest, chromosomes are held together in bivalents, which of course are dependent on chiasmata (crossovers) and sister chromatid cohesion. It’s likely that during this arrest, these structures become damaged and this leads to mal segregation events…

two hits: The first hit is the establishment of a susceptible bivalent (for example, a bivalent with a too few/many or too distal/proximal crossovers). This first ‘hit’ is thought to be age independent.

The second hit involves abnormal processing of this susceptible bivalent during meiosis I, i.e. during the prolonged meiotic arrest – and this is therefore the age dependent process. The longer the arrest, the older the individual would be, and the greater the chance is of mal segregation, i.e. of something going wrong

42
Q

Down Syndrome -
cause
incidience
features
associated risks
pregnancy viability
prenatal markers

A

Cause: Primarily due to trisomy 21 (extra copy of chromosome 21) or a gain of a critical region on 21q; accounts for over 95% of cases.

Incidence: Detected in approximately 1 in 700 births.

Features: Characterised by intellectual and developmental issues, physical traits (e.g., short neck, flattened face, protruding tongue), and serious health complications (e.g., heart defects, obesity, dementia risk).

Associated Risks: Increased risk of a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia with unique origins.

Pregnancy Viability: About 20% of pregnancies with trisomy 21 result in live birth, attributed to chromosome 21’s small size and specific gene functions.

Prenatal Markers: Short thigh (femur), arm, and nose bones are soft markers often observed prenatally

43
Q

edwards syndrome -

cause
incidence and pregnancy viability
prenatal markers

A

Cause: Trisomy 18 (extra copy of chromosome 18).
Incidence and Pregnancy Viability: 95% of affected conceptions result in spontaneous abortion; among those that reach term, survival is typically limited to 24 hours.
Prenatal Markers: Characteristic signs include a clenched fist (first and fourth fingers overlapping middle fingers) and rocker-bottom feet

44
Q

Patau’s Syndrome -
cause
incidence and pregnancy viability
prenatal markers

A

Cause: Trisomy 13 (extra copy of chromosome 13).
Incidence and Pregnancy Viability: 99% of affected pregnancies result in spontaneous abortion; survivors generally have a median life expectancy of a few days.
Prenatal Markers: Common features include cyclopia (fusion of eyes) and polydactyly (extra fingers). Also rocker-bottom feet

45
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome -
cause
incidence and pregnancy viability
features

A

Cause: Presence of an extra X chromosome in males (47,XXY).
Incidence and Pregnancy Viability: Disomy/trisomy of sex chromosomes generally results in live births with low levels of spontaneous abortion.
Features: Mild to moderate physical and developmental effects, typically including reduced fertility

46
Q

Turner’s syndrome -

Cause
Incidence
Viability
Features

A

Cause: Monosomy X (45,X) - the only viable human monosomy.
Incidence: Detected in approximately 1 in 2,000 births.
Viability: More viable compared to autosomal monosomies, which are generally lethal.
Features: Physical traits include short stature and lack of secondary sexual characteristics; cognitive impact is typically mild

47
Q

Triple X syndrome -

cause
incidence and pregnancy viability
features

A

Cause: Presence of an extra X chromosome in females (47,XXX).
Incidence and Pregnancy Viability: Most pregnancies with triple X result in live birth, as sex chromosome aneuploidies are more tolerable than autosomal trisomies.
Features: Typically has mild or no symptoms; some individuals may experience taller stature and minor developmental delays

48
Q

what three things are looked at in the first trimester combined test?

A

Consists of a blood test for a pregnancy associated with plasma protein-A, PAPP-A, and HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Abnormal levels of these proteins is associated with down syndrome
Nuchal translucency test - ultrasound used to measure specific area on the back of a foetus’ neck, down syndrome is indicated by a greater depth of this area due to a higher collection of fluid
Maternal age and results of these two tests are combined to estimate likelihood of down syndrome, then further testing of the foetal DNA via the amniotic fluid can be done