Acute Viral Infection L20-21 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Acute infection.

6

A
  • Infection of small number of cells
  • Many cycles of multiplication – infection of surrounding cells
  • May stay local or spread systemically
  • Signs and symptoms of disease
  • Clearance of virus by immune response and recovery
    OR
    Latent infection/chronic infection/death
  • Short duration – days to weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Subclinical infection.

3

A
  • Similar course to acute infection, but no signs or symptoms
  • Either immune response clears virus before symptoms are apparent
    OR
    Dead cells are replaced quickly enough that symptoms not apparent
  • Subclinical infection is the most common result of virus infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the disease:

  • One of the most contagious diseases known
  • Once everyone on population is infected the virus can only spread between young children and infants
  • In populations
A

Measles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Pathogenesis.

A

The manner of development of a disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of measles.

7

A
  • Transmission via aerosol droplets
  • Virus replicates in epithelium of upper respiratory tract
  • Primary viraemia (little free virus in blood – mostly associated with lymphocytes and macrophage)
  • Virus replicates in lymphoid tissue (spleen, lymph nodes, appendix, tonsils)
  • Secondary viraemia
  • Virus spreads to other organs (incl. skin, conjunctiva, liver, kidney, lung, gut)
  • Characteristic rash develops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the symptoms of measles.

5

A
  • Fever
  • Respiratory tract symptoms: runny nose (coryza) and cough
  • Koplik’s spots
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Maculopapular rash: begins on face and extends to the extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The Paramyxoviridae:

  • Transmit readily via the respiratory route
  • 2 patterns of infection and disease in humans: DESCRIBE THEM.
A
  1. Localised acute infections of the respiratory tract trivial in healthy adults but causing potentially dangerous disease on primary infection of infants and children.
    - eg. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), human Metapneumovirus (hMPV)
  2. Systemic acute infection, initiated in the respiratory tract
    vary widely in severity.
    - eg. Measles, mumps.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false? Paramyxoviruses induce fusion of infected cells.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the Entry phase of a measles infection.

A

H protein docks with cellular receptor (CD150/SLAM).
Induces structural change in F protein ——–> FUSION.
RNP is released into cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the Transcription phase of a measles infection.

A

Genome is transcribed by RdRp into 6 mRNA’s – gradient of transcripts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the Replication phase of a measles infection.

A

Genome is transcribed by RdRp into full length +ve sense copy of genome.
-ve sense genomes are copied by RdRp from full length +ve sense templates and associate with N, P and L proteins to form new RNPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the Assembly and release phase of a measles infection.

A

F & H proteins move from Golgi to cell membrane.

M protein associates with cytoplasmic domain of F&H and with the –ve RNP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T cell response, rather than antibody response, is important in clearing measles virus.

How do we know?

A
  • Agammaglobulinaemic children (no IgG) recover normally from infection
  • Children with T cell deficiencies fail to clear virus leading to progressive illness and death.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or false? Most measles symptoms are caused by the immune response to the virus, rather than cytopathic effect of virus.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do cytokines secreted by infected cells & macrophage induce a fever?

A

By triggering hypothalamus to increase body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do cytokines secreted by infected cells & macrophage induce coryza?

A

By increasing vascular permeability which in turn increases nasal secretion.

17
Q

What causes a rash?

A

Result of cytotoxic T cells attacking infected endothelial cells in capillaries. Also damage to endothelial cells caused by deposition of antigen-antibody complexes.

18
Q

Why is not having a rash in measles a bad thing?

A

It indicates a poor T cell response.

19
Q

Describe Giant cell pneumonia.

Complication of measles

A
  • Impaired T cell response (often indicated by no rash)- extensive viral replication in lungs – leading to syncitium formation and pneumonia.
  • Rare but often fatal.
20
Q

Describe a secondary bacterial infection.

Complication of measles

A

Measles infection is immunosupressive and predisposes to secondary bacterial infection, typically otitis media (ear infection) and pneumonia (~15% of cases).

21
Q

What proportion of the fatalities are caused by pneumonia as a complication of measles?

A

60%.

22
Q

Describe Encephalitis.

Complication of measles

A
  • 1:1000 cases

- 90% survival but may have neural damage (eg deafness, seizures)

23
Q

Describe Sub-acute sclerosing panencephaliltis (SSPE).

7

A
  • Very rare, 1:10^5 - 1:10^6
  • Slow progressive, fatal disease of CNS
  • Risk factors: male, measles at <2yrs
  • Develops 1-10 years after infection
  • Persistent brain infection leads to hyperimmune antibody response – extremely high levels of neutralising antibody in serum and CSF (10x concentrations found in acute infection)
  • Defective (non-infectious) virus particles present in brain tissue.
  • Sequence of genome isolated from brain indicates that the viral strain is related to the original infecting strain (ie. disease is unlikely to be caused by reinfection)
24
Q

How many strains of measles are there?

A

1.

25
Q

What type of vaccine is the measles vaccine?

A

Live attenuated vaccine.

26
Q

Name virus type:

  • Filamentous morphology
  • Highly pleomorphic (adopt different shapes)
  • Cause severe haemorrhagic fever
  • 1967: Marburg virus
  • 1976: Ebola virus
A

Filoviruses.

27
Q

Name the virus:

  • Four subtypes:
    Zaïre, Sudan, Côte d’Ivoire and Reston (asymptomatic).
  • Transmitted by direct contact with the bodily fluids of infected persons
  • First identified in Zaire in 1976
  • 1,850 cases with over 1,200 deaths have since been documented
  • One of most infectious and deadly viruses – 50-90% mortality
A

Ebola virus.

28
Q

Describe the symptoms of Ebola virus.

A
  • Non-specific flu-like symptoms – headache, fever, aches & pains
  • Diarrhoea & vomiting
  • Maculopapular rash in ~50% patients around day 5-7
  • Severe bleeding – especially gastrointestinal – in proportion of patients
29
Q

Describe how Ebola virus is treated.

A
  • Replacing fluid
  • No vaccine
  • Containment is critical - barrier nursing - quarantine
30
Q

What is the suspected primary reservoir of the Ebola virus?

A

Fruit bats.

31
Q

Describe the structure of the Ebola virus.

3

A
  • Enveloped
  • Helical nucleocapsid
  • -ve ssRNA genome
32
Q

Which 2 virus types are filoviruses closely related to?

A
  • Rhabdoviruses (eg rabies)

- Paramyxoviruses (eg measles)

33
Q

True or false? There is only 1 identified receptor on cells for filoviruses.

A

False. Several different receptors have been identified.

34
Q

Which cells do filoviruses initially infect?

A
  • Monocytes
  • Dendritic cells
  • Macrophages
  • Endothelial cells
35
Q

What do filoviruses suppress during infection?

A
  • Production of IFNa and b in infected cells
  • Action of IFNa and IFNb
  • Maturation of dendritic cells
  • Suppresses activation of T cells and B cells thus suppresses adaptive immune response