Acute Respiratory Failure Flashcards

1
Q

acute resp failure

A

A condition in which the resp system fails in one or both of its major functions: gas exchange and ventilation

PCO2 <45, pH <7.35, PaO2 <60

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2
Q

how is ARF diagnosed?

A

ABGs, CXR, C&S (sputum/blood) and supported by physical assessment.

  • clinical presentation
  • history
  • CBC
  • CT scan (CNS causes, chest trauma)
  • V/Q scan (PE)
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3
Q

T or F: ARF is the most common type of organ failure seen in critical care units with ~56% of patients in CC experiencing it.

A

True

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4
Q

____ of patients with ARF need mech vent and die in hospital from it

A

1/3

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5
Q

types of resp failure

A

type 1, type 2, mixed

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6
Q

type 1 resp failure

A

acute hypoxemic respiratory failure: the primary problem is a defect in gas exchange

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7
Q

type 2 resp failure

A

acute hypercapnic respiratory failure: the primary problem is inadequate ventilation

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8
Q

mixed resp failure

A

difficult to locate the primary source of the
respiratory failure…giving rise to patient
responses related to both impaired gas exchange and ventilation

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9
Q

management of ARF is broken down into 2 main categories which are ______

A

treatment of primary cause
supportive medical management

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10
Q

treatment examples

A

pneumonia - give abx
PE - give thrombolytics
anesthesia - provide reversal agent or let wear off

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11
Q

supportive management

A
  • multipronged approach
  • promoting adequate gas exchange (supplemental O2, PPV)
  • correcting acidosis
  • pharmacological intervention (bronchodilators, steroids, sedation, analgesia, paralytics)
  • initiating nutritional support
  • preventing further complications
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12
Q

non-invasive vs invasive ventilation

A
  • non invasive = CPAP (oxygenation), BiPAP (ventilation and oxygenation)
  • invasive ventilation = ETT, trach
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13
Q

bronchodilators

A
  • beta agonists (salbutamol, ipratropium)
  • goal is to decrease airway resistance and dilate airways
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14
Q

steroids

A
  • oral (prednisone), inhalation (fluticasone), IV (hydrocortisone)
  • dose and delivery are all dependent on pt condition and history
  • used to reduce airway inflammation
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15
Q

sedation

A
  • depends on pt situation
  • used to assist with and maintain adequate ventilation, comfort patient, decrease WOB
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16
Q

how much sedation would you give if a pt is on non-invasive ventilation?

A

sedation up to the point of decreasing anxiety RASS of 0 or -1 is: ativan or small doses of midazolam

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17
Q

how much sedation would you give if a pt is on invasive ventilation?

A
  • sedation to ensure that the individual is able to tolerate the breathing tube and mechanical ventilation. pt-dependent so may range from RASS of 0 to -5
  • can be accomplished with benzodiazepines (midazolam infusion or bolus), alpha 2 agonist (precedex) or general anesthetic (propofol)
  • always set pt specific goals
18
Q

paralytics

A
  • used rarely and only in specific situations
  • if unable to ventilate patient
  • intubation
  • IF using paralytics ensure that the patient is adequately sedated prior to administration!!
19
Q

correct acidosis: what does hypoxemia cause? impaired ventilation leads to ____? what should we correct?

A
  • hypoxemia causes impaired tissue perfusion, production of lactic acid and development of metabolic acidosis
  • impaired ventilation lead to CO2 accumulation and respiratory acidosis
  • correct oxygenation and ventilation and acidosis should correct
20
Q

should we use sodium bicarb in correcting acidosis?

A

NO - minimal benefit, can make worse; shifts the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve to left and can worsen tissue hypoxia

21
Q

nutritional support

A
  • essential part of healing
  • ensure pt is receiving adequate calories in relation to metabolic demands
  • commonly overlooked
  • don’t overfeed - can increase CO2
  • don’t underfeed - decreases ventilation drive and muscle strength
22
Q

potential complications

A
  • ischemic-anoxic brain injuries
  • cardiac dysrhythmias
  • venous thromboembolism
  • stress ulcers
  • GI bleed
  • barotrauma, infection, injury from vent
  • infection, injury, dislodgement from artificial airways, nutrition, arterial and venous cannulation sites
23
Q

nursing management

A
  • positioning (HOB elevated, good lung down, frequent repositioning)
  • prevent desat (hyperoxygenate prior to suction, spacing out activities/care, ensure equip secure, administer pain/sedation PRN, control fever to control demand)
  • promote secretion clearance (hydration, suction)
  • pt and family teaching
24
Q

pneumonia: what is it? who is most at risk?

A
  • acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by an infectious agent that can lead to alveolar consolidation
  • most at risk are elderly, cardiorespiratory disease and/or immunosuppression
  • symptoms can vary from mild to severe
  • 8th leading cause of death overall
25
Q

classification of pneumonia

A
  • site of acquisition (most important for treating pathogens appropriately)
  • causal agent
  • severity
26
Q

site of aquisition

A

CAP, HCAP, HAP, VAP

27
Q

VAP

A

subset of HAP; development of pneumonia after artificial airway

28
Q

gram positive

A

staph: presents in clusters
strep: present in chains

29
Q

gram negative

A
  • generally more damaging/toxic
  • usually in rods
  • e. coli, pseudomonas, enterobacter
30
Q

VAP: what is early onset vs late onset and causes?

A
  • early onset: 48-72 hrs after intubation
  • often caused by staph aureus, strep pneumonia and H. influenzae
  • late onset: > 72 hrs since intubation
  • often caused by MRSA, pseudomonas and enterobacter
31
Q

VAP signs and symptoms

A

need to consider if pt was intubated already for a reason

look for change in:
- CXR (consolidation? new infiltrates?)
- New or increasing Sputum/secretions (amount, colour, consistency)
- ABGs (worsening gas exchange or ventilation)
- Increasing or new fever (indicates a new infection or an infection not being treated for)
- New or increasing WBCs
- Cultures

32
Q

common reasons for VAP

A

ETT bypasses many of the lungs normal defenses and creates a fast track for contamination

1) Aspiration of gastric contents

2) Bacteria from the stomach wicking up gastric tubes

3) Micro-aspiration of pooled secretions above cuff

33
Q

patho of how VAP occurs

A
  • Normal defense system of the body (cilia in nose and protective mucus) are circumvented, allowing mouth colonization with pathogenic bacteria.
  • Decreased LOC (with sedation) makes patients more prone to aspiration
  • Gastric colonization of pathogenic bacteria as a result of increased gastric alkalinity due to antacid or H2 blocker use
34
Q

VAP main risk factor

A

ETT: direct passage into lungs; prevents cough. prevents upper airway filtering/humidification, inhibits ciliary transport by epithelium, direct conduit into lungs for airborne pathogens, reservoir for pathogens allowing biofilm to form, cuff provides place for secretions to pool in hypoglottic area

35
Q

other risk factors for VAP

A
  • Age > 65 years old
  • Underlying chronic illness (e.g. COPD, emphysema, asthma)
  • Immunosuppression
  • Depressed consciousness
  • Thoracic or abdominal surgery
  • Previous antibiotic therapy
  • Previous pneumonia or remote infection
  • Nasogastric tube placement
  • Gastric over distension
  • Stress ulcer treatment
  • Supine patient position
  • Nasal intubation route
  • Instillation of normal saline
  • Nonconformance to hand washing protocol
  • Indiscriminate use of antibiotics
  • Lack of training in VAP prevention
36
Q

how to prevent VAP

A
  • strive for extubation
  • work to minimize sedation
  • re-evaluate RASS goals everyday
  • mobilize
37
Q

supportive management of VAP

A
  • abx
  • enteral feeding
38
Q

benefits of adequate nutrition

A
  • Reduces risk of nosocomial infection
  • Improves wound healing
  • Decreases mortality
  • Prevents bacterial translocation
39
Q

most common prokinetic/motility agents

A

maxeran
in rare and special cases, is erythromycin

40
Q

if prokinetics don’t help, what should be done next?

A

small bowel feeding tube - goal is to bypass the issue of gastric emptying and feed directly into the duodenum

41
Q

elevated blood sugar levels can…

A
  • Impair immunologic response to infection
  • GI motility
  • Increase cardiovascular tone
42
Q

goal blood sugar level range in ICU