Acute Medical and Surgical Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What is the initial approach to an acutely unwell patient?

A

 Ask the patient “How are you?” A normal verbal response means that the patient has an intact airway, is breathing and his brain is adequately perfused. If patient can speak only a few words or phrases sentences then there is likelihood of severe respiratory distress.

 Get Help: Pulse oximetry, Blood pressure measurement, ECG monitor

 If there is no response or reduced response: this indicates serious illness and you should fully assess in seconds.

 Use ABCDE Approach: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

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2
Q

How do you assess the airway in the A-E approach?

LOOK FOR:

A

 Obstruction: blood, vomit, secretions, tongue, foreign body, dentures, neck constriction (collar, rope)
 Symmetrical movement of both sides of chest? chest deformity
 paradoxical see-saw abdomen/chest movement (normally chest/abdomen move outwards in expiration and vice versa, in complete airway obstruction chest/abdomen moves in on inspiration and outwards on expiration
 Use of accessory muscles of respiration. (Sternocleidomastoid and muscles of the neck back and shoulder girdle).
 Sweating and central cyanosis.
 Depth of respiration

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3
Q

How do you assess the airway in the A-E approach?

FEEL FOR:

A

 Presence of air movement at the mouth by placing your face or hand immediately in front of the patient’s mouth.
 Position of the trachea in the suprasternal notch as deviation to one side may be due to tension pneumothorax, lung fibrosis or pleural fluid.
 Surgical emphysema or crepitus (assume that this is pneumothorax until proved otherwise).
 Percuss the chest as hyper resonance indicates pneumothorax, dull percussion note may be due to pleural fluid.

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4
Q

How do you assess the airway in the A-E approach?

Listen at mouth and Nose:

A

 In complete upper airway obstruction, there are no breath sounds at the mouth or nose
 In partial airway obstruction, air entry is diminished and often noisy

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5
Q

How do you manage the airway in an emergency?

A

 Call for expert help immediately.
 Clear Airway: simple methods of airway clearance usually suffice e.g. Head tilt and chin lift or jaw thrust if cervical injury suspected. Airway suction and insertion of an oropharyngeal (Guedel) or nasopharyngeal airway will suffice.
 Clear Obstruction: suction to help clear blood, vomit, secretions, tongue, and foreign body. Retrieve dentures if obstructing otherwise leave in.
 Surgical cricothyroidotomy: rarely indicated, by a trained individual.
 Oxygen at high concentration: use a face mask with an oxygen reservoir. Ensure that the oxygen flow rate is sufficient (usually 10- 15 liters per minute) to prevent collapse of the oxygen reservoir during inspiration. This system will deliver approximately 85% Oxygen.

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6
Q

How does the position of the trachea change with pneumothorax, effusion and collapse? What will you find on percussion? How will you be assessing the chest in a respiratory examination?

A

 Compare expansion right and left, depth of breathing, tracheal position, paradoxical breathing?
 Tension Pneumothorax: tracheal away from side of pneumothorax, hyper resonant, suitable history or injury
 Effusion: dullness to percussion, trachea away from effected side
 Collapse: dullness to percussion, trachea towards the side of collapse

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7
Q

How do you manage a pneumothorax?

A

If pneumothorax diagnosed then consider treatment with wide-bore venous cannula in second intercostal space mid-clavicular line. Expert help will be needed in most cases.

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8
Q

What are you assessing in circulation?

A

 Blood Pressure (absolute value and any change from recent more stable state)
 Pulse: tachycardia > 100, bradycardia < 60
 Capillary return: ? Cool, cyanosed, mottled-centrally and peripherally suggesting poor perfusion. Capillary refill (less than 2-3 seconds)
 Peripheral temperature and peripheral pulse
 Major Pulses: Assessment of both radials/ brachials /carotids pulses and aorta
 Urine output in the last 4 hours.
 (Abnormal OLIGURIA if Urine volume <0.5ml/kg/hour)

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9
Q

How do you assess disability in A-E?

A

Disability Assessment is basically a global assess from a neurological standpoint with the usual addition of a glucose assessment at the bed-side and lab value

AVPU
GCS

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10
Q

How do you assess E in the A-E assessment?

A

Urgent Observations:
 BP, Pulse, Respiratory rate, temperature, oxygen saturations, (MEWS)
 Urine output:
 “output” from body: bleeding, discharge,
secretion

History: Full history is essential from health care professionals, clinical notes and family. Drug chart must be reviewed together with charts on IV fluid infusion or blood transfusion. Usually a quick physical examination will need to be undertaken to diagnose or exclude the main causes of acute illness listed in the

Examination:
Full general and systems examination: ABCD and pupils as above but specifically look for signs of meningitis or meningococcal septicaemia: purpuric rash, neck stiffness
 Look at wounds and all drains and any intervention sites e.g. venous cannulae, urinary catheter, CVP line, central line, arterial line etc.

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11
Q

DDx head

A
 Stroke: cerebral, brainstem,
 Cerebral bleed esp. Subarachnoid
 Meningitis, encephalitis
 Epileptic seizure
 Alcohol or illicit drugs
 Poisoning: carbon monoxide, overdose e.g. paracetamol, tricyclics, opioids
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12
Q

DDx thorax

A

 Respiratory Tract Infection
 Pneumothorax
 Pulmonary Embolus

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13
Q

DDx cardiac

A
 Acute Coronary Syndrome
 Cardiac Failure
 DVT or PE
 Severe Hypotension or severe hypertension with encephalopathy
 Arterial Insufficiency or occlusion:
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14
Q

DDx Infections, Inflammation, Injury

A

 Infections: Sepsis (e.g. UTI, cellulitis, cholecystitis), malaria
 Abscess
 Meningitis
 Trauma: fracture, tissue injury, burns, hypothermia, heat stroke
 Anaphylaxis or allergic reaction

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15
Q

DDx Na, K, Glucose, Ca, Cortisol, Thyroid

A
 Acidosis or Alkalosis
 Hypoglycaemia or Hyper
 Hyponatraemia or hyper (metabolic encephalopathy)
 Addison’s
 Hypocalcaemia or hyper
 Thyrotoxic crisis
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16
Q

DDx Kidney and Abdomen

A

 Acute Abdomen
 Acute Renal failure
 Acute Liver Failure
 Bleed: GI tract, Aortic aneurysm

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17
Q

What are the 8 causes of reversible cardiac arrest?

A
4 Hs and 4 Ts
 Hypoxia
 Hypothermia
 Hypovolaemia
 Hyperkalaemia: hypokalaemia,
hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, and other metabolic disorders.
 Tension pneumothorax
 Tamponade
 Toxins
 Thrombosis: pulmonary embolism or
coronary thrombosis
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18
Q

Causes of upper abdominal pain

A

 Liver: Any condition stretching Glisson’s capsule, e.g. Hepatitis, CCF, Liver metastases.
 Biliary system: Acute Cholecystitis, Biliary Colic and Cholangitis.
 Oesophagus: Spontaneous rupture (Boerhaave’s Syndrome).
 Stomach and duodenum: Peptic ulcer perforation or bleed, acute gastritis, Gastric volvulus, Hiatus hernia, gastric cancer (rare).
 Spleen: Injury, Rupture, Torsion (rare), Infarction.

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19
Q

Causes of lower abdominal and pelvic pain

A

 Small Bowel: Obstruction, Perforation, Ischemia, Meckels’ diverticulitis, Crohn’s disease.
 Large Bowel: Colitis (Ulcerative Colitis, Crohn’s colitis, Pseudo-membranous colitis), Diverticulitis, Ischemia, Perforation, Pelvic abscess, volvulus
 Appendix: Acute appendicitis and Perforation.
 Omentum: Torsion and Ischaemia.
 Reproductive organs: Mid-cycle pain (Mittelschmerz), Ovarian torsion, ruptured ectopic pregnancy or ovarian cysts, Pelvic inflammatory disease, Fibroids in uterus, salpingitis, tubo- ovarian abscess and Testicular tortion.
 Hernias: Strangulation (Epigastric, Paraumbilical, Spigelian, inguinal and femoral.

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20
Q

Systemic causes of abdominal pain

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis, Mesenteric adenitis (Yersinia pseudotuberculosis infection), Mesenteric thrombosis, Porphyria, Familial Mediterranean fever (autosomal recessive condition), Sickle cell crisis, Phaeochromocytoma

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21
Q

What are the three phases of management?

A

Phase 1 initial management: 1st hour
Phase 2: 2-6 hours
Phase 3 on-going management

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22
Q

Acute abdominal pain phase one management

A

 Clinically: History, Examination focus on Respiratory rate, temp, BP, pulse, oxygen sats, Glasgow Coma Score, MEWS.
 Investigations: ECG, erect chest x-ray and abdominal x-ray, urine dipstick, pregnancy test if female, bloods (FBC, U&Es, Creatinine, LFTs, CRP, ESR) and blood group.
 Oxygen via mask and non-rebreathing bag (100%) if sats <92%.
 Analgesia: Morphine 10mg IV or IM.
 Start IV fluids (if dehydrated) or colloids (if hypotensive).
 NG tube with Metoclopramide 10mg IV if patient is vomiting
 More intensive monitoring: catheter (hourly input/output chart).
 Nil by mouth and hourly observations/MEWS.

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23
Q

Acute abdominal pain phase two management

A

 Continue to monitor patient and give analgesia and fluids as above.
 Start antibiotics if indicated from test results.
 Suspected pancreatitis: ABG and assess GCS (score >2 urgent ITU review).
 Suspected renal colic: CT KUB or IVU. Monitor for complications
(obstruction). Continue fluids and analgesia.
 If surgery indicated, cross match for 2-4 units blood.
 Suspected AA: urgent referral to on-call vascular.
 Suspicious ECG: urgent medical advice.
 Unknown cause: further imaging (CT, USS).

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24
Q

Acute abdominal pain phase three management

A

 Most respond to conservative approach.
Definitive management:
 Laparotomy (where all other possibilities failed to improve patient).
 Laparoscopy (reduce need for laparotomy) to diagnose pathologies: to view appendix, uterus, ovaries, fallopian tubes etc.
 Laparoscopy for cholecystectomy, appendectomy, closure duodenal ulcer perforation etc.
 Drainage of localised abscess or abdominal/pelvic collections – send sample for culture and biopsy.

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25
Q

What is the phase one management of an Upper GI bleed?

A

 Clinical History: previous UGIB, dyspepsia, known peptic ulcers, liver disease, weight loss, drugs (NSAIDs, Aspirin, Corticosteroids, COX - 2 inhibitors, bisphosphonates) and co-morbidities.
 Clinical Examination: assess for signs of shock, evidence of chronic liver disease and other co- morbidities such as heart and renal failure. ? telangiectasia due to Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia
 Resuscitation: 2 large bore IV cannulas are inserted. IV fluids (colloids or crystalloids), avoid crystalloids in patients with cirrhotic ascites. Blood transfusion if Hb <10g/dl and patient in shock or active heavy bleeding, otherwise wait for FBC results.
 Investigations: full blood count, blood group and save, LFTs, U & Es, coagulation screen, AXR and CXR if suspected ruptured peptic ulcer. Consider ECG if patient has history of IHD or heart failure.
 Monitoring: patients with significant bleeding need continuous cardiac monitoring, and those with shock might need CVP and renal function monitoring.

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26
Q

What investigation should you consider in an Upper GI bleed, pertaining to phase 2 management?

A

Consider Oesophageal-gastro-duodenooscopy (OGD): Use Rockall Score (pre- OGD); score of 0, consider no admission or early discharge. If the score is > 0, endoscopy required in most cases after resuscitation. Or use Glasgow Blatchford Score: greater than 3 consider OGD.

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27
Q

What are the pharmacological therapies used in the phase two management of an Upper GI bleed?

A

 Start a proton pump inhibitor: there is only minimal evidence that pre- endoscopic PPI improves the clinical outcome. Most clinical protocols include their use at this stage. IV PPI eg omeprazole 80mg bolus followed by 8mg/hr infusion for 72 hrs in patients with high risk ulcers on OGD i.e. active bleeding, non-bleeding visible vessel or adherent clot.
 Intravenous Terlipressin or similar agent: prior to endoscopy in acute variceal bleeding. 2mg then repeated at 4 hour intervals up to 72 hrs.
 Start antibiotics: preferably iv ceftriaxone or oral norfloxacin, in patients with chronic liver disease presenting with acute UGIB.

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28
Q

Describe V/Q mismatching in respiratory failure

A

 Low V/Q – despite adequate perfusion some areas of lung are poorly ventilated, therefore some blood leaves the pulmonary circulation without being adequately oxygenated (physiological shunt).
 High V/Q – despite adequate ventilation some areas of lung are poorly perfused.

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29
Q

How many types of respiratory failure are there? Describe these.

A

Type 1 respiratory failure: Is defined as hypoxia (PaO2 < 8 KPa) with normal or low PaCO2. It is primarily caused by ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatch.
Type 2 respiratory failure: Is defined as hypoxia (PaO2 < 8 KPa) with hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6 KPa). This is caused by alveolar hypoventilation, with or without V/Q mismatch.

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30
Q

What are the symptoms of respiratory failure?

A

shortness of breath, cough, haemoptysis, chest pain or tightness, wheeze, stridor,

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31
Q

What are the signs of respiratory failure?

A

cyanosis, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension, reduced respiratory rate (?opioid overdose, check pupil size), unable to speak in full sentences, agitation.

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32
Q

What is paradoxical respiration?

A

all or part of a lung is deflated during inhalation and inflated during exhalation, such as in flail chest or paralysis of the diaphragm.

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33
Q

What is kussmaul’s breathing?

A

deep rapid breathing as seen in respiratory acidosis.

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34
Q

what accessory muscles are used to aid breathing?

A

Use of accessory muscles of respiration – including intercostal muscles, neck
muscles and abdominal wall muscles.

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35
Q

What is Cheynes Stokes breathing?

A

breathing with rhythmic waxing and waning of

depth of breaths and regularly recurring apnoeic periods.

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36
Q

What is flail chest?

A

chest wall moves paradoxically with respiration, owing to

multiple fractures of the ribs post-trauma.

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37
Q

What are the causes of T1RF?

A
Parenchymal disease (V/Q mismatch) –
 Pulmonary Embolism
 Pneumothorax
 Pulmonary oedema
 Arrhythmia
 Congestive heart failure
 Acute lung injury
Interstitial lung disease
 Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
 Pneumonia
 Fibrotic lung disease
 Bronchiectasis
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38
Q

What are some causes of T2RF?

A

Reduced breathing effort
 Fatigue, drug intoxication
 Neurological disease, head injury

Inability to overcome increased resistance to breathing
 Asthma or COPD
 Cardiac Failure
 Foreign body
 Tumour
Decrease in area of lung available for gas exchange:
COPD, emphysema
Chest wall deformity
Primary muscle disorders
A combination of these factors
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39
Q

How is pneumonia diagnosed?

A

 Systemic features: at least one (fever >38°C, rigors, malaise, sweating, aches & pains, confusion, diarrhea).
 Tachypnoea: especially if the respiratory rate is greater than 30.
 Cough: dry or productive with purulent sputum / haemoptysis. Other
features include pleuritic pain.
 New focal chest signs on examination: such as bronchial breathing, coarse
crackles, increased vocal fremitus/resonance, pleural rub and pleural
effusion.
 New radiographic shadowing: for which there is no other explanation such
as pulmonary oedema or infarction.

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40
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia is defined as an inflammation of the lung parenchyma. It is characterized by the presence of exudate, inflammatory cells and fibrin in the alveolar air spaces with consolidation of the affected part usually caused by infection with bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites.

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41
Q

Where is legionella pneumonia acquired from?

A

Legionella pneumonia can be acquired from air-conditioning and water tanks especially from hotels. Immunocompromised patients are particularly at risk.

42
Q

What scoring system is used to assess penumonia?

A

CURB-65

 Confusion with Abbreviated Mental Test Score ≤ 8.
 Urea > 7 mmol/L.
 Respiratory rate of ≥ 30/min.
 Blood pressure of systolic ≤ 90 and diastolic ≤ 60 mmHg.
 Age > 65 years of age.

43
Q

What does CURB-65 tell us wrt patient management?

A

Patients with a score of 0-1 are at low risk of death (<3%) and can be treated at home.

Patients with a score of 2 are at moderate risk (about 9% mortality) and should be considered for short stay inpatient treatment at hospital.

Those who are scoring 3 and above are at high risk of death (15- 40%), hence require close monitoring and should be assessed with specific consideration to be treated in critical care unit.

44
Q

What are some other markers of severe pneumonia?

A

 Involvement of one or more lobes on chest x-ray.
 PaO2 < 8 kPa.
 Low albumin (< 35g/L).
 White Cell Count (< 4x 109/L or > 20x 109 /L).
 Positive blood cultures.
 New onset atrial fibrillation.

45
Q

Which organism most commonly causes CAP?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

46
Q

Which organisms are responsible for HAP?

A

 Klebsiella pneumoniae causes pneumonia usually in elderly patients with
chronic systemic diseases.
 Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the commonest cause for HAP and is seen in
patients with bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis and in patients with neutropenia
following chemotherapy.
 Moraxella catarrhalis is seen in patients with COPD exacerbations and
sometimes leading to severe pneumonia.
 MRSA.

47
Q

What is HAP?

A

HAP- onset at least 72 hrs after admission

48
Q

What is the early treatment of pneumonia?

A

o Nebulised bronchodilators if underlying COPD/ asthma. Steroids are not recommended in the routine treatment of pneumonia.
o Fluid resuscitation: if signs of dehydration or shock. Beware of cardiac failure.
o Start empirical antibiotics: as indicated below.
o Monitoring of vital signs: NEWS including temperature, respiratory
rate, pulse, BP, GCS, O2 saturation and inspired O2 concentration) should be recorded at least twice a day and more frequently in moderate to severe pneumonia.
o VTE thromboprophylaxis: in all hospitalised patients unless there are contraindications.

49
Q

List some differentials for chest pain (organise into systems)

A

 Cardiovascular: dissecting aortic aneurysm, pericarditis, arrhythmias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, aortic stenosis.
 Respiratory: PE, pneumothorax, asthma, infection, tumors, lymphadenopathy.
 Gastro-intestinal: reflux oesophagitis, gastritis, hiatus hernia, dysphagia.
 Chest: shingles, costochondritis (Teitze’s), trauma (e.g. broken rib).

50
Q

Risk factors for coronary artery disease?

A

previous known history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD), hypertension (HTN), diabetes mellitus (DM), Smoker, male sex and family history of coronary artery disease (CAD).

51
Q

What are the initial investigations for a patient presenting with chest pain? (bloods)

A

FBC, U&Es, Cholesterol, blood glucose and high-sensitivity troponin which should be repeated 3-6 hours after the onset of the ACS event or after first assessment.

52
Q

Initial symptoms management of patient with suspected MI

A

o IV access, pain relief with IV morphine, antiemetic with IV metoclopramide or other preferred agent, GTN spray or sub-lingual GTN tablet.
o Supplemental O2: if O2 saturation is less than 94%, although the European society of cardiology advises that supplemental O2 should not be given unless the SaO2 is less than 90%. In patients not at the risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure aim for saturations 94- 98%, in patients at the risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure aim for saturations 88- 92% until arterial blood gases are available.
o Load with anti-platelet agents.

53
Q

How will you monitor a patient with chest pain?

A

Intensive monitoring for heart rate, rhythm, BP, respiratory rate,
oxygen saturations, pain relief and repeated 12 lead ECGs if necessary.

54
Q

What medication should all long terms stable angina patients be on?

A

 Lifelong aspirin unless contra-indicated.
 Lifelong statins unless contra-indicated.
 Lifelong B-blockers unless contra-indicated, aim for a heart rate of <60.
 Lifelong ACEI/ ARB unless contra-indicated.
 Nitrates can be used for symptom control.
 Treat modifiable risk factors e.g. DM, HTN, hypercholesterolaemia, advice
against smoking, advice regarding regular exercise.

55
Q

What are some atypical presentations of ACS? Which patient group are these seen in?

A

Patient can present with chest discomfort, chest tightness, chest heaviness, referred pain as presentation and shortness of breathing. Silent MI can occur in patients with diabetes mellitus and other neuropathies.

56
Q

How can polycystic kidneys present?

A

hypertension, haematuria or acute renal failure

57
Q

In a patient with hyperkalaemia, how often will you check the U&Es?

A

1-4 hours

58
Q

What is the dose of oral calcium resonium used in treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A

15g qds: causes constipation, unpalatable, also enema formulation

59
Q

How much Insulin/glucose will you give to a patient with hyperkalaemia? What else must you do?

A

50 ml of 50 % Glucose with 10 units soluble insulin, IV into a large vein over 20 mins. Monitor glucose levels.

60
Q

How much salbutamol will you give a patient with hyperkalaemia?

A

Nebulised salbutamol:

2.5 mg salbutamol, nebulised over 10 to 20 minutes with air or oxygen if indicated.

61
Q

Define DVT

A

a thrombus in the deep venous system typically in the calf or thigh.

62
Q

Define thrombus

A

blood clot formed within a blood vessel and remaining attached to its place of origin.

63
Q

Define emboli

A

an abnormal clot circulating within the blood, detached from its place of origin.

64
Q

Define PE

A

blockage of the pulmonary artery by a clot usually originating from a DVT or other foreign matter. PE can arise de novo in the pulmonary arteries, especially
in conditions such as right heart failure.

65
Q

How can a change in any of the factors in Virchow’s triad lead to clot formation?

A

 Changes in vessel wall: injury, inflammation or infection.
 Increased blood coagulation or increased viscosity: dehydration, malignancy,
haematological disorders, post-surgery, obstetrics patients, the oral
contraceptive pill, HRT.
 Decreased blood flow: immobility, obstetrics patients, pelvic pathology.

66
Q

Define Virchow’s triad.

A

This is a triad of factors known to affect clot formation: the rate of flow of blood, the consistency (viscosity) of blood, and qualities of the vessel wall.

67
Q

Major risk factors for DVT/PE

A

 General: Smoking, long-distance travel, dehydration, oral contraceptive pill.
 Surgery: Major abdominal, pelvic, hip replacement, knee replacement.
 Obstetrics: late pregnancy, post-partum, Caesarean Section.
 CVD: MI, CVA, PVD.
 Lower limb: fracture, cellulitis, varicose veins.
 Malignancy: especially pancreatic, lung, gastric, haematological.
 Reduced mobility: prolonged bed rest, hospitalization.
 Previous DVT or PE: especially if thrombophilia such as Factor V Leiden
deficiency, Protein S or C deficiency, antithrombin deficiency.
 Not receiving VTE prophylaxis in hospitals: frequently omitted still.

68
Q

Suspect DVT in a patient presenting with:

A

 Localised limb swelling, warmth and tenderness.
 Pyrexia or Tachycardia.
 May be asymptomatic.
 Wells’ score: a score of 2 or more predicts a DVT as likely and less than 2
makes the diagnosis unlikely.

69
Q

Suspect PE in patient presenting with:

A

 Acute breathlessness.
 Chest pain especially pleuritic chest pain or haemoptysis.
 Acute collapse, especially cardiac arrest with pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
 Wells’ score: a score of 4 or more predicts a PE as likely and less than 4 makes the diagnosis unlikely.

70
Q

What is D-dimer?

A

D-dimer is a specific component of the fibrin degradation products that are formed when a thrombosis is cleaved by plasmin and lysed.

71
Q

When else can you find a raised D-dimer?

A

The D-dimer test is not highly specific and can be raised in infection such as cellulitis, post-surgery and malignancy.

72
Q

A low D-dimer along with a low Well’s score points to what alternative diagnosis?

A

Ruptured baker’s cyst

73
Q

What is Homan’s sign? and why should you avoid eliciting Homan’s sign?

A

(this is quick flexion of the foot at the ankle joint to elicit calf tenderness, this may result in dislodging a DVT, leading to PE).

74
Q

DVT: Ix

A

FBC, U&E, LFT, Clotting, CRP, D-Dimer, Doppler Ultrasound Scan (USS) of the leg veins. In the acute event, a thrombophilia screen is of little or no value as factors will be low due to the clot.

75
Q

Define stroke

A

Stroke is defined as an acute neurological deficit lasting more than 24 hours and
caused by cerebrovascular aetiology.

76
Q

What are the two types of stroke?

A

It is subdivided into ischaemic stroke (caused
by vascular occlusion or stenosis) and haemorrhagic stroke (caused by vascular
rupture, resulting in intra-parenchymal and/or subarachnoid haemorrhage).
Ischaemic stroke accounts for 87% of all stroke cases, haemorrhagic stroke for 10%,
and subarachnoid haemorrhage for 3%.

77
Q

What is TIA?

A

A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) causes sudden focal loss of neurological function that resolves completely in less than 24 hours.

78
Q

Risk factors for stroke

A

Strong risk factors include atrial fibrillation, valvar disease, congestive heart failure,
hypertension, diabetes, carotid stenosis, cigarette smoking, alcohol abuse, and older
age. Evaluation and initiation of secondary prevention should occur rapidly.

79
Q

Symptoms of TACS

A

Total Anterior Circulatory Stroke (TACS)
 Hemiparesis (ipsilateral motor and or sensory deficit of at least two areas of face, arms, legs).
 Plus homonymous hemianopia.
 Plus higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, neglect, apraxia,
dyscalculia, visuospatial problems).
In the presence of impaired consciousness, and formal examination can’t be established, higher cerebral function and visual fields deficits are assumed.

80
Q

Symptoms of PACS

A

Partial Anterior Circulatory Stroke (PASC)
 Two of the three components of TAC process.
 Or isolated cortical dysfunction such as dysphasia.
 Or motor/sensory loss more limited than for LAC pathology.

81
Q

What scale is used to assess a risk of TIA?

A

 Age is 60 years or older 1 point.
 Blood pressure >140/90mmHg 1 point.
 Clinical features: 1 point each unilateral weakness or speech disturbance
without weakness or other suitable feature. Maximum 2 points.
 Duration: > 60 mins (2 points), 10 – 60 mins (1 point), < 10 mins (0 points).
 Diabetes mellitus: 1 point.
 Total score: (Total score 0-7). High risk patients (6 or 7 points) have an 8.1%
two-day recurrent stroke risk. High risk TIA patients (scoring 4 or more on ABCD2 score) should be seen at a TIA clinic for review, urgent investigation and initiation of secondary prevention.

82
Q

What are the causes of stroke?

A

 Cardioembolism (30%): Atrial fibrillation, MI, prosthetic heart valves, cardiac surgery, cardioversion, infectious endocarditis, paradoxical embolism.

 Atherothrombosis (20%): Rupture of atherosclerotic plaques causes thrombosis in the carotid, vertebrobasilar and cerebral arteries, often proximal to major branches.

 Lacunar (20%): Caused by occlusion of deep
penetrating arterial branches, especially the lenticostriate braches of the MCA that supply the internal capsule. Infarct is usually a result of microatheroma, lipohyalinosis and fibrinoid necrosis secondary to hypertension.

 Other ischaemic/cryptogenic (15-20%): Sudden BP decrease > 40 mmHg, venous sinus thrombosis, vasculitis, thrombophilia, carotid artery dissection, giant cell arteritis.

 Haemorrhagic (10-15%): Hypertension, trauma, rupture of saccular or berry aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation rupture.

83
Q

What is the criteria for brain imaging immediately (< 1 hour)?

A

 Patient meets criteria for thrombolysis.
 On anticoagulant therapy.
 Known bleeding tendency.
 GCS < 13.
 Unexplained progressive or fluctuating symptoms.
 Papilloedema, nuchal rigidity or fever.
 Severe headache at stroke onset.

84
Q

What are the classifications of headaches?

A

Primary headaches are those in which headache and its features are the disorder itself, as compared to secondary headaches caused by another disorder such as meningitis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.

85
Q

Causes of primary headaches

A

Tension headache

Migraine

Cluster headache

Medication overuse/Withdrawal headache.

86
Q

Causes of secondary headache

A

Systemic infection (such as flu)

Head injury

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage and meningitis

Temporal Arteritis (in older people)

Brain tumor (very rare as the only symptom)

87
Q

Which cerebrovascular emergency is associated with a sudden onset headache?

A

Subarachnoid Haemorrhage (SAH)

88
Q

What are the three fundamental principles upon which ATLS management is based ?

A

i) Treat the greatest threat to life first.
ii) Commence indicated treatment without waiting to establish definitive
diagnosis.
iii) Do not delay evaluation of the patient in order to gain a detailed history.

89
Q

What is cardiac tamponade? Signs?

A

pericardial effusion that compromises cardiac contractility resulting in hypotension, elevated venous pressure with distended neck veins and muffled heart sounds.

90
Q

Managment of cardiac tamponade

A

Perform pericardiocentesis and continue fluid resuscitation.

91
Q

Major trauma Ix

A
 Crossmatch
 Arterial blood gas
 ECG
 X-rays – chest/pelvis/c-spine (trauma series)
 Consider DPL/FAST scan ***add
92
Q

What is involved in the secondary survey?

A
 Head and skull
 Maxillofacial and intraoral
 Neck
 Chest
 Abdomen including back
 Perineum/rectum/vagina
 Musculoskeletal
 Neurologic examination
93
Q

In major trauma cases, what are you monitoring in the circulation component of the A-E assessment?

A

Monitor heart rate, capillary refill, blood pressure, pulse pressure, mental status and urine output.

94
Q

In major trauma cases, what are you monitoring in the breathing component of the A-E assessment?

A

Monitor respiratory rate, pulse oximetry and end-tidal CO2.

95
Q

How can you manage the airway?

A

Treat with chin lift, jaw thrust, add

airway adjuncts to form a definitive airway.

96
Q

How can you differentiate between viral and bacterial meningitis?

A

High neutrophil count with low glucose level in CSF indicates bacterial meningitis.

High lymphocyte count with normal glucose level is
typical of viral meningitis

97
Q

Symptoms of meningitis

A

recent onset (hours to days) headache, nausea or vomiting, neck stiffness, and fever.

98
Q

What feature on examination points towards meningococcal septicaemia?

A

associated with typical non-blanching rash (usually seen in the legs), and start antibiotics without any delay (Do not wait for test results!)

99
Q

When would you suspect TB meningitis?

A

(particularly immigrants from high prevalence areas) with headache of few weeks duration and CSF findings of
high lymphocytes and low glucose

100
Q

Temporal arteritis: symptoms

A

Sub-acute (weeks to months) progressive headache, can be associated with symptoms of Poly Myalgia Rheumatica such as myalgia and stiffness

101
Q

Differentiate between the following: snoring, crowing, inspiratory/expiratory wheeze.

A

Snoring: occurs when there is partial obstruction of the pharynx by the tongue.
Crowing: occurs when there is laryngeal spasm.
Inspiratory stridor: occurs when there is obstruction at or above the level of the larynx.
Expiratory wheeze when there is airways collapse during expiration. Rattling sounds occur when there are secretions in the airways.