Acute Kidney Injury Flashcards

1
Q

Is GN a lifestyle disease?

A

No. Patients are usually young and healthy.

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2
Q

What is the treatment for GN and what are the side effects?

A

Immunosuppressants. Highly toxic. Treatments can be long.

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3
Q

What are the most common types of GN?

A
  • diabetic nephropathy
  • IgA nephropathy
  • minimal change disease
  • FSGS
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4
Q

What percentage of ESRD is caused by GN?

A

Around 25%.

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5
Q

Outline the progression of GN taxonomy.

A
  • started based on clinical features
  • then categorized based on histologic patterns
  • then categorized based on etiology
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6
Q

What are the two broad groups of GN?

A

Nephrotic syndrome - due to isolated injury to the filtration barrier
Nephritic syndrome - due to diffuse inflammation in the glomerulus

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7
Q

Name four main features of nephrotic syndrome.

A
  • proteinuria (>3.5g/d)
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • peripheral edema
  • decreased renal function
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8
Q

Name the 7 main complications of nephrotic syndrome.

A

Hypoalbuminemia
- due to urinary loss and decreased production
Peripheral edema
- due to low oncotic pressure and some filtered substances trigger Na reabsorption
Hypercholesterolemia
- low oncotic pressure induces hepatic production
Hypercoagulability and venous thromboembolism
- due to urinary losses of anticoagulant proteins and increased production of procoagulant proteins
Infection
- due to urinary losses of immunoglobulins
AKI
- due to heavy proteinuria, fluid shifts causing intravascular volume depletion and interstitial edema in the kidney
Lipiduria
- due to high amount getting into urine
- you get fatty casts

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9
Q

What are the three most common causes of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease, focal segmented glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), and membrane nephropathy (MN)

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10
Q

Describe minimal change disease and how it normally presents.

A

Glomerulus looks normal on LM, but EM reveals diffuse foot process effacement.
Tends to present with sudden onset peripheral edema over several weeks.

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11
Q

In what populations do you find minimal change disease?

A

Bimodal distribution. You find it in young and older adults (>60 years).

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12
Q

How is minimal change disease typically treated?

A

Steroids. 75% respond rapidly to treatment with steroids. Good renal prognosis in this case.

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13
Q

Do all types of GN require a kidney biopsy for diagnosis?

A

Yes

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14
Q

how do you think this works?

A

Just like this

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15
Q

I think you are silly

A

but why

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16
Q

What does FSGS do to the glomerulus?

A
Focal = less than 50% of glomeruli
Segmental = only portion of each glomerulus is involved. 
Sclerosis = scarring

So, scarring on portions of less than 50% of the glomeruli

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17
Q

Is FSGS more common in child or adulthood?

A

Adulthood

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18
Q

Does MCD or FSGS have a worse prognosis?

A

FSGS. Doesn’t respond as well to steroids and has a higher progression to ESRD (50% at 5 years)

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19
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in caucasians and in what ages is it most common?

A

Membranous nephropathy. Most common in those >40 years.

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20
Q

80% of MN patients present with ______________

A

High grade proteinuria. (risk of VTE is quite high)

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21
Q

Describe how membranous nephropathy works and what is the most common target antigen.

A

It’s an organ specific autoimmune disease with Ab’s targeting antigens on the podocytes.
Activates complement and induces GBM/podocyte damage.
70% may be the phospholipase A2 receptor.

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22
Q

Describe your workup for nephrotic syndrome including quantifying the severity of the disease and ruling out common secondary causes.

A
Quantify:
- creatinine and eGFR
- albumin, cholesterol profile
- 24 hour urine test for protein, ACR and PCR
- urinalysis and microscopy
Rule out secondary:
- Infection: HIV, HBV, HCV serology
- Hematologic malignancy: SPEP, UPEP
- Autoimmune disease: ANA, C3, C4, ESR
- Fasting blood sugar

BIOPSY to do next tests.

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23
Q

What does nephritic syndrome cause?

A

Influx of inflammatory cells in the glomerulus leads to:

  • damage to filtration barrier causing proteinuria, but less severe than nephrotic
  • full breaks in barrier allows RBCs into urine
  • reduced kidney function in earlier course of disease
  • salt retention and hypertension with more moderate edema
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24
Q

What are the key findings that point to nephritic?

A

Hematuria and active urine (dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts)

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25
Q

What is rapidly progressing GN (RPGN)?

A

Nephritic syndrome with rapidly declining renal functions over several weeks.

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26
Q

What is your general approach to nephritic syndrome?

A

Look at pattern of immunoglobulin staining on biopsy:

Pauci-immune (no immunoglobulin)
- ANCA vasculitis
Linear staining
- Anti-GBM Ab disease
- Goodpasture's disease
Granular (immune-complex)
- lupus, autoimmune disease, IgA nephropathy etc.
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27
Q

What is ANCA and what is the average age of onset?

A

“Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies”

  • Ab targeting proteins from the cytoplasm of neutrophils
  • Multi organ disease with severe presentation with rapid progression to renal failure
  • average age is 55-70 years
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28
Q

What are the two target antigens we can easily test for regarding ANCA?

A
cytoplasmic-ANCA = proteinase 3
perinuclear-ANCA = myeloperoxidase (MPO)
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29
Q

Do you need ANCA to have ANCA vasculitis?

A

No. 10% of ANCA vasculitis patients are ANCA negative.

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30
Q

What is ANCA vasculitis and how severe is it?

A

Vessel inflammation typically due to ANCA

  • used to be 80-90% mortality before immunosuppressives
  • current mortality is about 20-25%
  • death is usually due to immunosuppression complications
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31
Q

What are some body systems affected by ANCA vasculitis?

A

Nervous system, eyes, skin/joints, ENT, lungs, general symptoms, heart, kidney

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32
Q

How does ANCA vasculitis present histologically in the glomerulus?

A

Fibrinoid necrosis (massive breaks in GBM) and cellular crescents (hypercellularity in Bowman’s space compresses glomerulus)

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33
Q

What is lupus nephritis?

A

Granular nephritic syndrome. Auto-immune disease affecting any organ in the body.

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34
Q

What is mortality of lupus nephritis (SLE) and does it depend on race?

A

2x that of general population and risk is higher in blacks, hispanics and asians.
Risk of dying is 3x higher in SLE with nephritis vs without nephritis.

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35
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of lupus nephritis.

A

Immune complexes deposit in glomeruli and induce glomerular damage. Activates complement, induces inflammation.

36
Q

Describe the epidemiology of IgA nephropathy.

A

Most common type of GN worldwide. Big cause of ESRD in asian countries. Presents in 20-30’s. Equal male/female. Accounts for 37% of GN in Canada.

37
Q

What does IgA nephropathy show on biopsy?

A

Immune complex deposits with IgA and mild proliferative features.

38
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of IgAN.

A

Severity is HIGHLY variable. Can be asymptomatic hematuria or rapidly progressing GN with gross hematuria. Most have asymptomatic slowly progressive proteinuria renal disease.

39
Q

Describe the work-up for nephritic syndrome including quantifying severity and finding cause.

A

Quantify severity:

  • creatinine and eGFR
  • Albumin
  • 24 urine for protein, ACR, PCR
  • urinalysis and microscopy

Assess for underlying cause:
- Serology, infection, ANCA & anti-GMB antibodies

40
Q

What are two mechanisms of glomerular injury in GN?

A

-Immune mediated (antigen-Ab interactions or immune mediated effector mechanisms)
Non-immune mediated (fibrosis and scarring in glomerulus, tubules, interstitial that develops as a result of immune mediated injury)

41
Q

Name the three methods of immune complex deposition.

A
  1. Circulating immune complex trapping
  2. Circulating antigens deposit in glomerulus with in-situ Ab binding
  3. Ab target self-antigens normally present in the glomerulus
42
Q

Describe the significance of the location of immune complex deposition in the glomerulus.

A

Sub endothelial will have exposure to circulation and therefore lots of inflammation. Sub epithelial will have no exposure and therefore little inflammation. Mesangial will have intermediate exposure to circulation and therefore intermediate inflammation.

43
Q

What is the definition of hematuria?

A

Greater than 3 RBC/HPF

44
Q

What is the general approach to hematuria?

A
Pre renal
- coagulation disorders, pseudohematuria (beets, dyes, laxatives)
Renal
- Stones, trauma, tumour, infection, GN
Post renal
- Stones, trauma, tumour, infection
45
Q

Describe the etiology of hematuria by age.

A

When younger, its likely GN, UTI, or some congenital anomaly. When older, its likely stones, UTI, or a tumour (or prostate hypertrophy).

46
Q

Name 3 glomerular causes of hematuria.

A
  • IgA nephropathy
  • Thin glomerular basement membrane disease
  • Hereditary nephritis (Alport’s syndrome)
47
Q

What are the most common urologic causes of hematuria?

A

Stones, trauma, tumour, infections (stones, trauma, and infections will present with pain)

48
Q

Gross, painless hematuria is a _______ until proven otherwise.

A

Tumour.

49
Q

What would you ask the patient with hematuria?

A
Stones
- flank pain, dysuria, previous stones
Trauma
- MVA or any accident
Tumour
- Weight loss, night sweats, flank pain, voiding changes
Infection
- suprapubic pain, dysuria, fever, frequency
50
Q

What are some risk factors for urothelial tumours?

A

SMOKING, occupational exposures (aniline dyes), medications, radiation exposure

51
Q

Describe the lab investigations for hematuria.

A
  • Urinalysis and culture (infection & glomerular causes)
  • Urinary cytology (cancer)
  • CBC (only if significant bleeding)
  • creatinine & INR/PTT
52
Q

Describe the imaging investigations for hematuria.

A

CT IVP
- GOLD STANDARD: most sensitive, accurate staging of tumours and trauma (cons: expensive, radiation, contraindicated in renal dysfunction, adverse reaction to dye)
Ultrasound
- good for renal tumours and stones and hydronephrosis, inexpensive, safe (cons: will miss ureteral stones, won’t differentiate blood clot from tumour, no functional info)

53
Q

When do you refer to a urologist (hematuria) and what should be done beforehand?

A

Refer any patient with gross hematuria unless obvious cause. Do history, physical, urinalysis, cytology, and imaging beforehand.

54
Q

Describe the imaging for urothelial carcinoma.

A

Upper tract = CT IVP

Lower tract = cystoscopy (diagnosis with biopsy)

55
Q

Name the 3 types of bladder cancer.

A

Urothelial carcinoma (transitional cell carcinoma)
- most common!
Adenocarcinoma
- dome of bladder
Squamous cell carcinoma
- associated with chronic inflammation (indwelling catheters, bladder stones)

56
Q

Describe the grade and staging of urothelial carcinoma.

A
Grade
- histologic appearance (high and low)
Staging
- non-muscle invasive (Tis, Ta, T1 disease)
- muscle invasive (>T1)
57
Q

Describe the treatment of non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma.

A

transurethral resection of lesion (scrape it out) and consider mitomycin C to prevent recurrence.
Use intravesical chemotherapy if its more serious or you can’t fully transect (bacille calmette-guerin BCG or mitomycin)

58
Q

Describe the treatment and indications for treatment of muscle invasive bladder cancer.

A

Radical cystectomy

  • > T2
  • high grade NMIBC that fails intravesical chemo
  • extensive NMIBC that cannot be resected
  • palliation to control hemorrhage.
59
Q

Describe urinary diversion upon cystectomy.

A

Ideal conduit
- simple with little complications, but you have abdominal stoma and no continence
Neobladder
- increased complications, but retain continence

60
Q

What is the presentation of a typical renal mass?

A

Flank pain, hematuria, and palpable mass (uncommon)

61
Q

What is your approach to a renal mass?

A

Is it benign or malignant?

- Need a CT scan!

62
Q

Describe the investigations for a renal mass.

A

CT abdomen/pelvis w/ contrast
- characterize mass, assess extension, look at nodes and mets
Laboratory
- alkaline phosphate and calcium (bone mets)
- liver function testing (liver mets)
Biopsy only when diagnosis is unclear.

63
Q

Why investigate calcium with a renal mass?

A

Looking for bone mets or paraneoplastic syndrome (20-30% of patients)
- Weight loss, cachexia, fever, anemia, hypertension, increased alkaline phosphate, abnormal liver enzymes

64
Q

What are classic benign renal masses?

A

Angiomyolipoma (blood vessels, muscle, fat in a mass)
- risk of hemorrhage 50% when it gets bigger than 4cm
Oncocytoma, papillary adenoma… etc.
Use DMSA scan to distinguish pseudo tumours from normal tumours

65
Q

Malignant renal cell carcinoma account for __% of solid renal masses. __% are present with mets.

A

90, 5

66
Q

Describe the treatment of a renal cell carcinoma.

A

Locally confined? Nephrectomy or partial nephrectomy.
Metastatic? Nephrectomy and chemo
Can also do ablation therapies (radio frequency ablation or cryotherapy) for people who can’t handle surgery.
Can also do targeted therapy (tyrosine kinase inhibitors, anti-VEGF Abs, mTOR inhibitors)

67
Q

Describe the lab investigations for renal colic.

A
  • CBC (indicates inflammation or infection)
  • Creatinine (assess for impaired renal function)
  • Urine microscopy (bacteriuria, pyuria, pH)
68
Q

What imaging tests would you order for renal colic?

A

Plain film KUB!
- 85% of stones are radio-opaque on plain film
- gives no info on degree of obstruction though
CT scan KUB
- imaging choice in ER.. Can see hydronephrosis which tells you about degree of obstruction.

69
Q

What are the 3 common sites for kidney stone obstruction?

A

Ureteropelvic junction, crossing of the iliac artery, ureterovesical junction

70
Q

When do you refer to a urologist for a kidney stone?

A
  • Obstructed ureter with fever, bacteriuria, elevated WBC
  • Obstructed ureter with insulin dependent DM
  • solitary kidney, renal failure
71
Q

What are the four common types of renal stones?

A

Calcium oxalate
- Most common… risk factors:
- dietary hyperoxaluria, hypercalciuria
Calcium phosphate
- Second most common… Seen in patients with metabolic abnormalities (hyperparathyroidism, distal renal tubular acidosis, hypercalcemia due to malignancy)
Uric acid
- Visualized only on CT scan… risk factors:
- acidic urine with low volumes, gout, excess dietary purine, chemotherapy
Struvite (infection stones)
- made of magnesium, ammonium phosphate and calcium
- can only form if urine pH >8… so you need bacteria normally.

72
Q

Describe the approach to relieving an obstructed stone.

A
  • Ureteric stent
  • Percutaneous nephrostomy tubes (increased risk of bleeding)
  • Conservative passage (with painkillers, if the patient is healthy)
  • Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) (if stone is > 2 cm, localized by x ray and blasted with shock)
  • ureteroscopy (basket to scoop or blast with laser)
  • Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
73
Q

What are the two key pathologic endogenous urine crystals found on microscopy?

A

Cholesterol and cystine

74
Q

What are the two key pathologic exogenous urine crystals found on microscopy?

A

Ciprofloxacin and amoxil

75
Q

What does a RBC, WBC, epithelial cell, and hyaline cast found on microscopy tell you?

A

GN, pyelonephritis, AKI (ATN), non-specific

76
Q

What are the two types of proteinuria we talk about?

A

Glomerular proteinuria
- problem with filter or overload of blood protein overwhelms capacity to reabsorb
Tubular proteinuria
- from damage to tubular cells or excess secretion

77
Q

If you suspect proteinuria, what is your order of tests?

A

ACR, PCR, then dipstick.

If they have tubular protein (non-albumin) or weird tubule disease, ACR won’t work… You need a western blot.

78
Q

Why is an early morning urine sample preferable?

A

Removes orthostatic proteinuria

79
Q

Why is albumin preferable to other proteins for urine testing?

A

Makes up 50% of blood protein. More specific and sensitive to GBM injury and results are more reproducible.
More albuminuria with decreasing GFR exhibits high hazard ratio.

80
Q

What is the albumin excretion rate used for?

A

Long term follow up metric for diabetics.

81
Q

Why might we split the total proteinuria into constituents?

A

Shows fraction of albumin (if its high, likely glomerular cause)
Can run electrophoresis or just use ACR:PCR

82
Q

What is nephrotic range proteinuria?

A

Loss of a certain cutoff of protein leads you to suspect a nephrotic cause. Changes for all body sizes. It is relative.

83
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of a UTI.

A

Uropathogenic E.Coli. Ascends urethra and causes inflammation through specific virulence factors. Less commonly, it can invade the kidneys via infection of the blood stream.

84
Q

How does a UTI present on history and physical?

A

History
- dysuria, frequency, hesitancy, urgency, incontinence, hematuria, flank pain (pyelonephritis)
Physical
- fever, suprapubic pain, cost vertebral angle tenderness

85
Q

What lab tests do you do for a UTI?

A
  • urinalysis looking for colony forming units (CFU) per volume (>10000) and what kind of bacteria (qualitative)
  • Dipstick can help but poor sensitivity and specificity (leukocyte esterase and nitrites)
    These are NOT DIAGNOSTIC… Must be combined with H&P.