Acute Coronary Syndrome Flashcards

1
Q

What is the single loading dose of aspirin for STEMI management? (as first line treatment)

A

300mg

This is the initial dose recommended for antiplatelet therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the second antiplatelet option for patients undergoing PCI for STEMI? (not on oral anticoagulation)

A

Prasugrel

Other options include ticagrelor or clopidogrel depending on bleeding risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antiplatelet should be used if a patient is taking an oral anticoagulant?

A

Clopidogrel

This is the preferred choice in conjunction with anticoagulants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What antiplatelet options are available for patients not undergoing PCI with high bleeding risk?

A

Ticagrelor OR clopidogrel

These options are considered based on individual bleeding risk profiles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the time frame for primary PCI to be considered in STEMI management?

A

Within 12 hours of symptom onset and < 120 minutes for procedure

This is critical for optimizing outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should patients with STEMI be offered if they present within 12 hours?

A

Angiography + PCI

This is recommended if primary PCI can be performed within the required time frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What treatment is recommended if primary PCI is not possible in < 120 minutes?

A

Fibrinolysis

This is an alternative approach to restore coronary blood flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name two fibrinolytic drugs used in STEMI treatment.

A

Alteplase, streptokinase

Other options include tenecteplase or reteplase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What additional medication should be administered alongside fibrinolytics?

A

Antithrombin (fondaparinux/UFH)

This helps to prevent further thrombus formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should a repeat ECG be performed after fibrinolysis?

A

60 – 90 minutes

This is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of the treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What action should be taken if there is residual ST elevation (>50%) after fibrinolysis?

A

Immediate coronary angiography + PCI

This indicates the need for further intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary tool used to assess a patient’s risk in unstable angina and NSTEMI?

A

The Grace Score

The GRACE score assesses the risk of future cardiovascular events and 6-month mortality rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What factors are included in the GRACE score?

A
  • Age
  • Heart rate
  • Systolic BP
  • Creatinine
  • Cardiac enzymes
  • Presence of ST elevation on ECG
  • Cardiac arrest on admission
  • Killip class (signs of HF)

Killip classes indicate the severity of heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the first step in the management of unstable angina and NSTEMI?

A

Antiplatelets - aspirin 300mg and second antiplatelet depending on GRACE score

The first antiplatelet is Aspirin 300mg loading, continued indefinitely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two main antithrombin treatment options?

A
  • Fondaparinux
  • Unfractionated Heparin (UFH)

Thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin, crucial for clot formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should fondaparinux be offered to patients?

A

To all patients, unless undergoing immediate coronary OR high risk of bleeding

Fondaparinux is a preferred antithrombin option.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the indications for using Unfractionated Heparin (UFH)?

A
  • Significant renal impairment (Creatinine > 265)
  • High bleeding risk (CKD, old age, low body weight, relevant comorbidities)

UFH is used in specific patient populations based on risk factors.

18
Q

What is the immediate management recommendation for unstable patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina?

A

Offer immediate coronary angiography

This is critical for patients in unstable conditions.

19
Q

What is the management approach for intermediate/high risk patients (GRACE > 3%)?

A

Early invasive approach: Perform coronary angiography (+/- PCI) within 72 hours

PCI refers to percutaneous coronary intervention.

20
Q

What are the options for the second antiplatelet in the early invasive approach?

A
  • Prasugrel (with aspirin as DAPT)
  • Ticagrelor (with aspirin as DAPT)
  • Clopidogrel (with aspirin as DAPT) if there is a separate indication for ongoing PO anticoagulation

DAPT refers to dual antiplatelet therapy.

21
Q

What is the recommended management for low risk patients (GRACE < 3%)?

A

Conservative approach: Consider functional imaging before discharge

If inducible ischaemia, proceed to coronary angiography +/- PCI.

22
Q

Which second antiplatelet should be offered to low-risk patients?

A

Ticagrelor (with aspirin as DAPT)

If high bleeding risk, use clopidogrel (with aspirin as DAPT) instead.

23
Q

What is the recommended dual antiplatelet therapy for secondary prevention?

A

Aspirin 75mg OD for life and a second antiplatelet depending on management.
*ticagrelor
*clopidogrel

24
Q

In patients with other vascular disease, what should be continued after one year of DAPT?

A

Clopidogrel (not aspirin).

25
What is the recommendation for patients taking a DOAC?
Use single antiplatelet therapy.
26
What class of medication is recommended for all patients as part of secondary prevention?
Dual antiplatelet therapy Beta blocker. ACEi Statins
27
What is the recommended dosage of statins for secondary prevention?
High dose statin.
28
What specific treatment is recommended for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
Aldosterone antagonist.
29
What is the most common cause of death post-MI?
Ventricular Fibrillation ## Footnote Ventricular fibrillation is a critical condition that can lead to sudden cardiac arrest.
30
What arrhythmias are especially common following an inferior MI?
AV block ## Footnote This is often related to occlusion of the right coronary artery.
31
Difference between pericarditis and Dressler's syndrome
Pericarditis - occurs within 2-3 days following MI Dressler's - An autoimmune process with delayed onset, occurs at 4-6 weeks post-MI
32
What are the common symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome?
Fever, pleuritic chest pain, raised ESR, pericardial effusion ## Footnote These symptoms help differentiate it from acute pericarditis.
33
How is Dressler’s syndrome managed?
With NSAIDs ## Footnote Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are used to alleviate symptoms.
34
What indicates a left ventricular aneurysm post-MI?
Persistent ST elevation and symptoms of left ventricular failure ## Footnote This condition requires careful monitoring due to the risk of complications.
35
What is the treatment for left ventricular aneurysm?
DOAC (reduce risk thrombosis) ## Footnote Direct oral anticoagulants are used to prevent thrombus formation.
36
When does LV free wall rupture typically occur post-MI?
1-2 weeks ## Footnote This is a critical condition that can lead to cardiac tamponade.
37
What is the management for LV free wall rupture?
Urgent pericardiocentesis and thoracotomy ## Footnote These procedures are necessary to relieve pressure on the heart.
38
When does a ventricular septal defect typically occur post-MI?
1-2 weeks ## Footnote This complication can lead to significant hemodynamic instability.
39
What causes mitral regurgitation post-MI?
Papillary muscle rupture ## Footnote This condition can lead to heart failure and hypotension.
40
What are the signs of papillary muscle rupture?
Pansystolic murmur, heart failure, hypotension ## Footnote This situation requires immediate medical attention.