Acute care Nur 203 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term negligence mean in nursing?

A

Failure to provide care or perform a duty reasonably expected of a nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is highlighted in the ANMC code of conduct in relation to negligence, and how does this relate to nursing practice?

A

Failure to act in a professional manner, and providing care to a standard that is considered negligent, is considered a breach of conduct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do we gain consent from our patient?

A

before any procedure, as without consent all procedures could be considered assault.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who has a duty of care?

A

Nurses have a duty of care for pt safety pt privacy and hospitals have a duty of care to their staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most common conditions in which an intermittent catheter would be used?

A
  1. Abdominal, pelvic or rectal surgery/investigation.
  2. determine residual urine _urinary retention.
  3. To empty the bladder-post prostate surgery or bladder trauma.
  4. bypass an obstruction, tumour , bladder stones.
  5. reduce moisture and promote healing in genitourinary area.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the principles of aseptic technique?

A

To minimise the presence or pathogenic organisms as much as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some reasons for nasogastric intubation NGT?

A

For administration of fluids, nutrients and drugs.
To allow drainage of contents of the stomach.
To allow removal of air from the stomach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of pt would have NGT and why?

A

Long term pt for nutrient support.
surgical pt to remove gastric content and gas. pancreatitis pt to remove gastric acid/ stomach content.
preterm baby due to lack of swallow/suckling reflex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name examples of complications of enteral feeding and how to prevent these occurring.

A

No more than 3 attempts of inserting to prevent epistaxis (pain on insertion).
xray to prevent Aspiration, due to tube mygration or blockage. secure tube with tape and change daily. measure external length of tube afterevery shift .
flush tube before and after use.
Sit pt up 30 degrees to prevent cough and aspiration. Regular blood and urinalysis due to altered electroytes, hyperglycaemia, over hydration,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What lifestyle changes can pt take to help reduce GORD and peptic ulcer disease

A

Avoid food and drink that trigger symptoms.
Avoid large or late meals and lying down immediately after eating.
if symptoms are worse at night raise the head of the bed.
Lose weight if appropriate.
Reduce alcohol intake.
Stop smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What medications can be taken to help with symptons of GORD

A

Antacids, PPIs and H2 receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Certain antacids are not recommended to pts with?

A

impaired kidney function or failure. Heart failure, High levels of calcium in their blood, hyperthyroidism or phenylketonuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the steps to carrying out a swallowing assessment?

A

Perform mouth care and decontaminate mouth.
ensure pt is able to swallow saliva and cough on demand.
assess for gag reflex and control of mouth/tongue if impaired refer to speech pathologist.
Have pt swallow a few spoons of water If it causes cough or gurgle refer to speech therapist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is acute pancratitis so painful?

A

Increased pressure within the ductal system. inflammation of the pancreatic nerve.
Elevated levels of neurotransmitters in pancreatic nerves. Obstruction of common bile duct.
Duodenal narrowing or obstruction
.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would you implement to reduce symptons of pancreatitis?

A

Analgesia and antiemetics.
NGT to remove acid build up.
Regular liver function test to monitor risk of biliary obstruction.
Controlled fluid and nutritional replacement.
Nil by mouth to reduce pancreatic enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What advice would you give pt discharged after pancreatitis?

A

avoid alcohol.
high carb low-fat diet. eat small regular meals.
monitor blood sugar levels.
discuss possibility of cholecystectomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe nursing care of pt with bowel obstruction

A

NBM until bowel sounds are heard.
NGT for drainage checking colour and consistency. pain management.
frequent obs.
iv fluids and monitor output.
IV antibiotics if ischaemic bowel suspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an ileus and what are the signs?

A

Painful obstruction, symptoms include: N&V abdominal discomfort, diminished/absent bowel sounds, accumulation of gas on xray, CT scan can differentiate between ileus and obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what helps prevent constipation?

A

adequate dietary fibre, adequate fluid intake, increasing activity, going to the toilet after meals while the gastrocolic reflex is maximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe one step questioning and when you would use it

A

For pt with a cognitive impairment use one point clear questions such as: pick up a pen, now right your name. We ned to order you lunch, do you want chicken? how about beef? would you prefer a sandwich?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some signs of raised ICP

A

oedema causes the optic nerve to be compressed resulting in impaired pupillary responses.
A fall in score on GCS.
Changes in BP, pulse and respiration are usually late signs of raised ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the trajectory of deterioration if S&S of ICP are missed and there is a failure to act

A

failure to act on elevated ICP can result in higher risk of mortality and permanent neurological impairment. delayed treatment worsens tissue hypoxia within the brain increasing oedema and injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What tis the Monro-kellie-hypothesis?

A

the relationship of pressures maintained in the cranial cavity, between the volume of blood, tissue, and Cerebrospinal Fluid. If one alters another is altered ie, If the intracranial blood increases this will result in the displacement of CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How would you assess the neurological functioning using the Acronym AVPU?

A
A = alert, is pt alert and responsive?
V = verbal. does pt respond to verbal commands?
P= pain. does pt response to painful stimuls?
U= unconscious. no response to any of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what interventions would you put in place to minimise the risk of falls for elderly in hospital?

A

falls risk assessment. Mini mental state exam. Nonslip socks. aids and equipment nearby (hearing aids, walking aids, glasses). call bell within reach. bed lowered to the floor. room near nursing station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe Alzheimer’s disease and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

progressive mental deterioration that can occur in middle or old age, due to degeneration of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe multiple sclerosis and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

progressive disease involving damage to the myelin sheaths of nerve cells effects the brain and spinal cord, and optic nerve. symptoms include numbness and tingling, muscle weakness and spasms, impairment of speech, and blurred vision and severe fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe Parkinsons disease and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

It is a progressive degenerative disorder of the brain that causes a deficiency in the availability of dopamine which is needed for smooth muscle control. symptoms are tremor/ shaking, slow movement and rigid muscles.Freezing. stooped posture and staggered gait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe motor neurons disease and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

muscle aches, cramps, twitching. Muscle wasting
clumsiness, stumbling.
weakness or changes in hands, arms, legs and voice.
slurred speech, swallowing or chewing difficulty.
cognitive change.

30
Q

describe Huntingtons disease and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

genetic neurodegeneration disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to mental decline (frustration and depression) and behavioural symptoms. Symptoms usually appear in 40’s

31
Q

describe epilepsy/ seizures and the common manifestations of the disease.

A

Normal function impulses occur in bursts when cell has a tak to perform. epilepsy continues firing of impulses after cell task is finished causing erratic performance of body parts controlled by errant neurons. seizures range from mild to severe and can cause unconsciousness.

32
Q

what is the nursing management of pt during a seizure

A

Danger (remove) ABCD call met. provide privacy, ease pt to floor and protect head from injury, loosen constrictive clothing,

33
Q

what is the nursing management of pt post seizure

A

DR ABCDE, place in recovery position, reorient pt to environment, use calm gentle persuasian, vital signs, document seizure.

34
Q

why is pre-op education & discharge planning important?

A

It improves pt compliance and outcomes, improves pt satisfaction.

35
Q

When is consent form signed?

A

After consultation with the surgeon and once pt understanding has been ensured, before pre-med before the procedure.

36
Q

Define colonoscopy and the specific pre-op prep

A

endoscopic exam of the large bowel and the distal part of the small bowel with a camera. Bowel prep and pre-med required.

37
Q

Define Total hip replacement and the specific pre-op prep

A

diseased or damaged part of the neck of the femur is replaced with metal or ceramic components. - hair clipping, DVT prophylaxis, USS, CT

38
Q

Define appendicectomy and the specific pre-op prep

A

surgery to remove appendix, usually in emergency. - analgesics plan, DVT, nutritional plan, bowel care education

39
Q

Define gastrectomy and the specific pre-op prep

A

removal of part or all of the stomach. - education, analgesic plan, DVT pro;phylaxis, nutritional plan, bowel care plan,

40
Q

Define arthroscopy and the specific pre-op prep

A

examination of the inside of a joint (knee elbow) using a special illuminating instrument inserted through a small incision, used to treat torn cartilage or ligament or arthritis- education, analgesic plan.

41
Q

Define mastectomy and the specific pre-op prep

A

removal of the breast - education, analgesic plan, DVT prophylaxis, physiotherapy plan, social work, breast nurse referral, wound management.

42
Q

Define rhinoplasty and the specific pre-op prep

A

repair or reshaping of the nose for cosmetic reasons r to correct a structural defect.-

43
Q

Define salpingectomy and the specific pre-op prep

A

removal of fallopian tube- social work, education of procedure

44
Q

Define laparotomy and the specific pre-op prep

A

surgical incision into the abdominal cavity commonly to examine organs and aid diagnosis - education DVT analgesic

45
Q

Why are TED/ anti-embolic stocking used?

A

they help the blood to constantly move in the leg providing good circulation preventing DVT

46
Q

why is it important to assess vital signs pre operatively?

A

To provide a baseline to compare and show any pre op issues which may delay administration of operative procedures.

47
Q

Why do we fast pt before an op

A

to prevent aspiration.

48
Q

when should written consent be sought?

A

administration of a drug that has high-risk complications. before surgical, medical, radiology and endoscopy treatments. Invasive procedures or treatment where there are known significant risks or complications. participants in clinical trials.

49
Q

Why should the consent form be signed before pre meds are given?

A

so the pt is fully aware and cognitively competent.

50
Q

Why is it important to stop taking aspirin and NSAIDs for up to two weeks before surgery?

A

To reduce the risk of haemorrhage.

51
Q

What are priorities on receiving a post op pt to the ward and why?

A

breathing, LOC, vital signs, pain, N&V, IV site and drainage.

52
Q

what are some complications that may occur post op?

A

N&V, VT, Hypoventilation after opioid use, pain, infection, delirium, haemorrhaging, constipation, pressure sores.

53
Q

How would you assess post-op complications?

A

vital signs, shivering, grimacing, guarding, wound assessment, and pain assessment

54
Q

Why do we give oxygen therapy?

A

In the presence of tissue hypoxia. Also Increased oxygen demand due to: sepsis, cardiac or respiratory arrest, hypovolemia, anaemia, lung disease, increase metabolic demand.

55
Q

Does O2 therapy have to be prescribed?

A

yes but it can be commenced by nurse in an emergency.

56
Q

What flow of O2 should be delivered via Nasal Cannulae?

A

0.5 - 4 L/min

57
Q

What flow of O2 should be delivered via hudson mask

A

5-10 L/min

58
Q

What flow of O2 should be delivered via venturi mask

A

variable with colour coded mask attachment

59
Q

how long does adrenaline last once administered with epi pen?

A

5 to 15 minutes

60
Q

What is the difference between anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reaction?

A

Anaphylactic reaction occurs only after the patient has been previously exposed at least once to the antigen. An anaphylactoid reaction can occur with the first exposure.

61
Q

Name some overactive immune system disorders

A

Allergy, Asthma,

62
Q

Name some underactive immune system disorders

A

HIV, severe immunodeficiency disorder, glandular fever.

63
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose?

A

Activated charcoal can be used to decrease
absorption of paracetamol if the patient presents for treatment soon after the overdose; the antidote acetylcysteinecan help prevent damage to the liver.

64
Q

How can you assess the level of pain when your pt is in a coma?

A

Review HR, BP, and RR. Increase in peripheral tone and using nociception coma scale.

65
Q

Pt complains that TED stockings feel tight and hot and askes to remove them. How do you respond?

A

reduce bed linen at end of bed to keep legs cool. ensure correct fit and not rolling. encourage ambulation as tolerated to reduce length of time stockings have to be worn. provide empathy and reassurance.

66
Q

Why is traction force applied over a wide area and distal to a fracture?

A

To evenly distribute the pulling force. Distal to maintain pulling force on the end of the bone.

67
Q

explain why bowel function care is different for pt with spinal cord injury

A

pt bowel transit time may be increased, pt can not feel the sensation of fullness in the rectum, Over distension of the bladder may occur and IDC manages this.

68
Q

what does the Acronym PQRST stand for?

A
P = provoking, anything make it worse or better
Q quality, sharp dull
R= radiate, does it travel
S = score 1-10
T = time when did it start
69
Q

What is happening when pt goes into shock?

A

during shock the body diverts blood from the body to the brain and heart ,causing insufficient perfusion to tissue.
This results in poor oxygen and nutrients delivered to tissue causing cell death and organ failure.
Shock results in hypontension,
increased HR ,
skin becomes cold and clammy,
rapid respiration results in excess CO2 causing alkodosis and confusion.
bowel sounds are hypoactive and urine decreases causing a build up of lactic acid.

70
Q

Sepsis is circulatory infection causing inflammation. What are the signs of Septic shock

A
temp more than 38
HR less than 36 or more than 90
systolic bp less than 90
RR more than 20
white blood cell more than 12,000 cells
Lactic acidiosis
71
Q

What are the signs of anaphlactic shock?

A
Rapid onset of following  symptons
hypotension.
Resp distress, SOB
swollen tongue lips or throat
crackle chest
feeling of dread, like going to die
rash 
Clammy skin