Acute Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is shock?

A

= a life-threatening failure of oxygen delivery to tissues.

It is a pathophysiological state, which has a number of underlying causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the triad of signs associated with shock?

A
  1. Signs of reduced perfusion
    • Prolonged capillary refill time
    • Reduced urine output
    • Altered mental state.
  2. Low blood pressure
  3. Raised lactate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is lactate raised in a patient with shock?

A

Anaerobic respiration produces lactate, which accumulates in the blood, causing a hyperlactataemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

End diastolic volume and End Systolic volume

A

EDV depends on how well the heart is able to fill.
=> Preload
=> Compliance – stretchiness/relaxation of the heart.

ESV depends on how well the heart is able to empty.
=> Contractility – force of contraction
=> Afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four broad types of shock?

A
  1. Hypovolaemic
  2. Distributive
  3. Cardiogenic
  4. Obstructive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Effect of sympathetic stimulation on heart rate

A

Increases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Effect of parasympathetic stimulation on heart rate

A

Decreases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does hypovolaemic shock occur?

What are the results of this?

A

when there is insufficient volume of blood in the intravascular compartment (i.e. a problem with Preload).

Reduces End-Diastolic Volume
Which reduces Stroke Volume
Which reduces Cardiac Output
Which causes low Blood Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Compensation of hypovolaemic shock

A

Increase in Systemic Vascular Resistance due to peripheral vasoconstriction => Appear peripherally “shut down”

Vasoconstriction limited to least critical organs – skin, gut, kidneys.
Perfusion of vital organs (heart, lungs, brain) maintained.

Increase in Heart Rate => Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Signs and Symptoms of hypovolaemic shock

A

General shock symptoms and signs.

Signs of hypovolaemia/dehydration

Peripheral shut down – cool peripheries, mottled skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the “general” signs of shock?

A

↓BP,
↓Urine output,
↑CRT
Altered mental state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are signs of hypovolaemia/dehydration

A

Sunken eyes, dry mouth, thirst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When does Distributive Shock occur?

A

when there is failure of vasoregulation (i.e. a problem with the systemic vascular resistance)

This may be due to:
• Loss of sympathetic tone
• Widespread vasodilatation due to toxins

A huge drop in vascular resistance directly causes a drop in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compensation of distributive shock

A

Tachycardia

May have increased contractility/compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs and symptoms of distributive shock

A

General shock symptoms and signs.

Signs of abnormal vasodilatation
=> Flushed complexion, warm peripheries (in contrast with every other category of shock).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does cardiogenic shock occur?

What can cause this?

A

Occurs when the heart stops pumping effectively. This may be due to:

  • Reduced contractility
  • Reduced compliance
  • Bradycardia – reduce the cardiac output
  • Tachycardia / arrhythmia – prevent the ventricles from filling properly.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compensation of cardiogenic shock

A

Will depend on the specific cause – increase in HR/contractility depending on which isn’t affected.

Increase in systemic vascular resistance due to peripheral vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Signs and symptoms of cariogenic shock

A

General shock symptoms and signs.

Peripheral shut down.

Fluid status may be normal (often overloaded in patients with heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When does obstructive shock occur?

A

Occurs when there is blockage of blood flow, either in a great vessel or of the heart itself.

Blockages can affect:

  • Preload – vena cava/pulmonary circulation (e.g. compression due to mediastinal shift in tension PTX or massive PE).
  • Afterload – aorta (e.g. aortic dissection)
  • Compliance – cardiac (e.g. cardiac tamponade)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Compensation of obstructive shock

A

Increase in systemic vascular resistance due to peripheral vasoconstriction

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs and symptoms of obstructive shock

A

General shock symptoms and signs.

Peripheral shut down

Fluid status may be normal
=> Check neck veins for distension, which may indicate obstruction, rather than fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which type of shock will cause a different peripheral temperature?

A

Distributive shock will cause warm peripheries, whereas other types will cause cool peripheries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Haemorrhagic shock

A

= a subtype of hypovolaemic shock

There is a relationship between the volume of blood loss and the signs and symptoms that are observed.

The different classes of haemorrhagic shock allow you to estimate volume of blood loss based on signs and symptoms.

It is important to manage the cause as well as replacing blood/fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A

A mixed picture of shock.

  1. Widespread histamine release has a profound vasodilatory effect which causes a distributive shock.
  2. Histamine also increases the permeability of the vessels, leading to excessive loss of fluid into the interstitial space (“third-space losses”) – hypovolaemic shock.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How to manage anaphylactic shock

A

Remove the trigger

Administer adrenaline and antihistamines.

Fluid boluses to correct hypovolaemia

(Steroids?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does adrenaline help in managing anaphylactic shock?

A

acts on adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system to reverse the systemic vasodilation, acting as a vasopressor.

it also decreases vessel permeability, which helps to prevent further third-space fluid losses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Steroids in managing anaphylaxis

A

usually hydrocortisone

likely to reduce the likelihood of a biphasic anaphylaxis (i.e. a second event), rather than having any role in correcting the current abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Septic Shock

A

A mixed picture – Bacterial endotoxins have an effect of:

  1. Widespread vasodilatation (causing distributive shock)
  2. Increasing vessel permeability (causing hypovolaemia through third-space losses).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management of septic shock

A

Remove trigger - urgent antibiotics

Fluid boluses to correct hypovolaemia

In cases refractory to fluid boluses, referral to HDU or ITU for infusion of vasopressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

occurs when there is an injury to the central nervous system above the T6 level
=> total loss of sympathetic tone whilst leaving vagal stimulation unopposed.

profound vasodilatation causing a distributive shock, but potentially with no tachycardia as compensation due to the loss of sympathetic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What should be considered in a case of distributive shock with paradoxical bradycardia

A

neurogenic shock - ?injury to the brain or spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of neurogenic shock

A

Any/all of:

  • Fluid resuscitation
  • Vasopressors to reverse systemic vasodilatation
  • Inotropes to increase myocardial contractility
  • Chronotropes to correct the Bradycardia

Prolonged supportive measures during recovery (~1-3 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Examples of vasopressors

A

vasopressin (ADH), adrenaline, noradrenaline, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Examples of inotropes

A

dopamine, isoprenaline, adrenaline, noradrenaline, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Examples of chronotropes

A

atropine, adrenaline, dopamine, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Effects of shock on the heart

A

Increased HR may lead to myocardial ischaemia, though coronary perfusion is preferentially maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Effects of shock on the kidney

A

pre-renal AKI due to reduced perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Effects of shock on the brain

A

Cerebral perfusion is maintained for as long as possible

Depending on degree and duration of shock - can get hypoxic brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Effects of shock on the lungs

A

reduced perfusion can cause Type 1 respiratory failure acutely, even after resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Effects of shock on the gut

A

Reduced perfusion can cause mucosal ischaemia - may lead to stress ulceration over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Initial monitoring in shock

A

A-E assessment (and regular reassessment)

Obs repeated regularly

Hourly Urine Output monitoring – Insert urinary catheter

Blood gas - for lactate, and for acid-base/respiratory status

Bloods

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Monitoring in severe/refractory cases of shock

A

Admission to HDU (Level 2)/ITU (Level 3)

Advanced monitoring:

  • Central Venous Pressure monitoring via Central Venous Catheter (CVC/Central Line)
  • Invasive Blood Pressure monitoring via Arterial Line (A-Line)
  • Continuous cardiac monitoring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Management of Shock

A

High-flow (15L) oxygen via a non-rebreathe mask
Establish IV access early
IV fluid resuscitation (unless obvious Cardiogenic shock)

Treat the Cause

  • Vasopressors (if SVR impaired)
  • Inotropes (if Contractility impaired)
  • Chronotropes (if HR impaired)
  • Cardioversion (if arrhythmias present) – chemical or DC

Don’t forget to reassess and escalate if needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is DKA considered severe?

What should be done?

A
Ketones >6 
pH <7.1 
HCO3 <5 / anion gap >16 
K+ <3.5 
GCS <12 
SpO2 <92% 
SBP <90
Pulse >100 or <60 

HDU/ITU must be contacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is potassium monitoring important in DKA?

A

Potassium levels can fluctuate severely during DKA

=> osmotic diuresis (due to glucosuria) leads to a total body K+ (and phosphate) depletion.

=> Life threatening hypokalaemia can occur with insulin infusion.

BUT Serum potassium levels may not mirror this and may be low/normal/high.

So continuous monitoring of potassium is essential and replacement may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

when is cardiac monitoring required with a K+ infusion?

A

if rate >20 mmol/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Management of HHS

A
  1. IV Fluid replacement – to replace loss caused by the hyperglycaemia
  2. IV insulin – to bring the blood glucose level down.
    => but often very sensitive to insulin and require much lower doses than in DKA.
    = > Aim is to reduce glucose levels slowly.
  3. Treat any underlying cause, if known
  4. Refer to diabetes specialist nurse – education for prevention of further emergencies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is considered hypoglycaemia?

A

glucose <4.0 mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are some causes of hypoglycaemia?

A

Delayed/missed meals
Low carbohydrate content in meals
Unplanned or strenuous exercise
Taking too much insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A
Fatigue, 
Sweating, 
Pallor, 
Headache 
Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia - conscious patient who is able to swallow

A

If conscious and able to swallow:

  1. 15–20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
  2. Repeat treatment after 10–15 minutes, up to a maximum of 3 treatments in total.
  3. Once glucose >4mmol/L, long-acting carbohydrate should be given to prevent blood glucose from falling again.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia - if unconscious/unable to swallow/seizures

A
  1. Glucagon or glucose 10% (or 20%) infusion.
  2. Long-acting carbohydrate should be given as soon as possible.

(Patients who have received glucagon require a larger portion of long-acting carbohydrate to replenish glycogen stores)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is self harm?

A

self-poisoning or self-injury, irrespective of the apparent purpose of the act.

=> it’s not an illness itself but is more or less dangerous behaviour that should alert us to an underlying problem, difficulty or disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is suicide?

A

= an intentional self-inflicted act that results in death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Suicide - epidemiology

A

~10 deaths per 100,000 in the UK

1/3rd of all suicides in the UK are men in their 40s and 50s

~90% are suffering from a psychiatric disorder at the time of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Risk factors for self harm

A

F:M = 1.5 : 1

Increased incidence in some ethnic groups

Previous self-harm (40% of people who present have a history of self-harm)

Diagnosis of personality disorder

Alcohol / drug misuse

Lower socioeconomic status, social isolation

Hopelessness, impulsivity, poor problem-solving ability

Sexual abuse, traumatic life events

Recent significant life events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Risk factors for suicide

A

Statement of intent and access to means

Psychiatric illness – depressive illness, early schizophrenia, comorbidity, recent discharge from hospital

History of previous self-harm,

History of violence

Family history of self-harm and suicide

Social isolation, unemployed, lower social class, single, Significant life events e.g. bereavement

Painful physical illness

Impulsive personality traits

Male

Older age

Factors associated with HIGH Risk:

  • Recurrent and persistent suicidal ideation,
  • Hopelessness, Agitation, Intoxication,
  • Delusions of control, poverty, guilt,
  • Impulsive personality traits, poor engagement with services
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Suicide in post-partum period

A

women presenting in the post-partum period.

Deaths in post-partum period are more likely to be by violent means

Postpartum psychosis is associated with 70x risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Assessment of self harm/suicide

A

History

Assessment of Mental State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Management of self harm/suicide

A

involves a Bio-psychosocial approach to minimise risk to self and others

is discharge safe or is admission needed?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is sepsis?

A

a life-threatening organ dysfunction due to a dysregulated host response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is septic shock?

A

= a subset of sepsis where particularly profound circulatory, cellular and metabolic abnormalities substantially increase mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Recognising sepsis

A

Previously, the SIRS criteria were used (with sepsis being SIRS + evidence of infection)

Now, NEWS2 scores are used

NEWS2 score of 5+ should trigger a sepsis screen if one of the risk factors is present, or if a HCP is concerned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Risk factors for recognising sepsis

A
  • Extremes of age (<1 or >75)
  • Impaired immune system (chemotherapy, comorbidities, long-term steroids).
  • Recent invasive procedure (e.g. surgery, trauma, etc.)
  • Broken skin (indwelling lines, IVDU, cuts/burns/blisters)

Also some more specific risk factors in pregnancy and neonates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What infections are the most common causes of sepsis?

A
  1. Pneumonia
  2. UTI
  3. Abdominal infection
  4. Skin, soft tissue, bone/joint infections
  5. Other infections – endocarditis, device-related, meningitis, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What things count for “suspicion of infection” ?

A

Suggestive diagnostic results

Clinical suspicion

Signs of infection – e.g. fever, high/low temperature, sweating, flushing; but with no suggestion of source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is sepsis diagnosed?

A

SOFA Score - the “Official” diagnostic criterion for diagnosis of organ dysfunction (and therefore Sepsis)

Can only really be used in critical care situations

Therefore, “red flag” sepsis criteria used more frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

RED FLAG SEPSIS

A
  • Objective evidence of new or altered mental state
  • Systolic BP ≤90 mmHg, or a drop of >40 mmHg from the patient’s normal
  • Heart rate ≥130 beats per minute
  • Respiratory rate ≥25 breaths per minute
  • Requirement for Oxygen supplementation to maintain saturations of 92% or above (or 88% in COPD)
  • Skin signs – such as a non-blanching rash, mottled or ashen appearance, or cyanosis
  • A Lactate level of 2 or higher
  • Recent chemotherapy
  • Anuria for 18 hours, or <0.5ml/kg/hr if catheterised

If any one of these is present, START SEPSIS SIX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

AMBER SEPSIS

A

mostly match up with the red flag criteria, with a lower threshold for each

  • Concern from relatives about the patient’s mental status
  • An acute deterioration in the patient’s functional ability (“off legs”)
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Trauma/Surgery/Procedure in the last 8 weeks
  • Respiratory rate between 21 and 24
  • Systolic BP between 91-100
  • Heart rate between 91-130, or any new abnormal heart rhythm
  • Temperature <36°C
  • Clinical signs of wound infection

If any one of these are present, FURTHER REVIEW REQUIRED.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diagnosis of septic shock

A
Sepsis
AND (following fluid resuscitation)
Hypotensive (SBP <90 mmHg)
AND
Lactate >2 mmol/L

As a trigger to call Critical Care

71
Q

Initial management of Sepsis

A

BUFALO:

Blood – IV access – cultures, coag, glucose, lactate FBC, U&E, CRP
(culture all other potential sources – e.g. sputum, urine)

Urgent Review – escalate for senior review (ST3+)

Fluids – fluid bolus of 500ml and monitor urine output.

Antibiotics – high dose broad spectrum BUT remember allergies!

Lactate – identifies patients at risk

Oxygen – give if required (aim for 94-98% or 88-92% in hypercapnic failure)

72
Q

Neutropaenic sepsis

A

= a time-critical and potentially fatal condition occurring in immunocompromised patients.

It is a medical emergency requiring immediate investigation and treatment in hospital.

these patients tend to deteriorate more rapidly than those without neutropaenia.

73
Q

Diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis

A

= Neutrophil count: < 0.5 × 10^9/L

The risk of sepsis increases with severity (how low) and duration of neutropaenia.

Maintain a high level of suspicion

74
Q

Management of neutropenic sepsis

A
  1. Rapid A-E assessment
  2. Escalation onto Sepsis 6 pathway
    => CRITICAL: Commence antibiotics within 1 hour
  3. Treat on suspicion - DO NOT DELAY whilst awaiting confirmation of neutropaenia via bloods
  4. Consider potential for atypical infections
75
Q

What are the concerns in an apyrexial patient with neutropaenia?

A

further deterioration is often experienced before they are recognised as being septic.

76
Q

Signs and symptoms of an overdose

A

Depends on the substance in question, quantities ingested and the timeline of presentation.

Often there are no signs or symptoms early on.

77
Q

Paracetamol overdose - signs and symptoms

A

nausea and vomiting,

Loin pain/haematuria – renal failure

RUQ pain/jaundice – hepatic necrosis

78
Q

benzodiazepine overdose - signs and symptoms

A

CNS depression, ataxia, slurred speech, respiratory depression

79
Q

opioid overdose - signs and symptoms

A

respiratory depression, pin-point pupils, coma

80
Q

alcohol intoxication - signs and symptoms

A

dependent on the amount of alcohol consumed (i.e. dose dependent)

  • Euphoria, social disinhibition, joyousness
  • Extraversion, decreased reasoning
  • Ataxia, nausea and vomiting
  • Anterograde amnesia
  • CNS depression
81
Q

Investigations in overdose

A
  • Observations
  • Physical examination (especially neurological)
  • ABG/VBG
  • ECG
  • Baseline bloods (especially renal and hepatic function)
  • Serum levels of substance in question
82
Q

Why are symptoms of alcohol dose dependent?

A

Alcohol is metabolised through zero-order metabolism – the rate of reaction is independent of concentration.

The enzymes become saturated, so the body can’t keep pace with the rising concentration

83
Q

Management of alcohol intoxication

A

If needed, treatment is supportive – e.g. recovery position, monitoring vital signs, sometimes IV fluids.

84
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

seen in alcohol dependent states (usually >20 units/day)

typical symptoms include sweating, tremor, anxiety, nausea and vomiting.

More serious symptoms:

  • Confusion,
  • Hallucinations
  • Very high temperature
  • Seizures
85
Q

Delirium tremens

A

= rapid onset of confusion usually caused by withdrawal from alcohol

86
Q

What hallucinations in particular tend to be associated with alcohol withdrawal?

A

formication (a type of tactile hallucination) – the feeling of imaginary insects/spiders on the skin.

87
Q

Management of alcohol withdrawal

A

Medically assisted withdrawal is the treatment of choice.

Benzodiazepine (e.g. chlordiazepoxide) + Pabrinex (vitamins B&C)

Either symptom-triggered or fixed-dose reducing regimen

88
Q

what causes acute Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Exhaustion of vitamin B1 (thiamine) leads to biochemical lesions in the CNS.

89
Q

what can cause vitamin B deficiency in alcoholics?

A

Often diet deficient in thiamine, but also alcohol prevents absorption of thiamine.

90
Q

how does Wernicke’s Encephalopathy present?

A

Typically present with a triad of:

  1. Ataxia
  2. Ophthalmoplegia
  3. Confusion (new onset)
91
Q

Treatment of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

high-dose parenteral thiamine (e.g. Pabrinex) often leads to full resolution of symptoms, if given quickly.

IV or IM

92
Q

Korsakoff’s Syndrome

A

= Irreversible brain damage, typically due to chronic alcohol misuse.

Often there have been previous instances of acute Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

Typically presents with dense anterograde amnesia, confabulation and personality change.

  • Often have similar needs to someone with dementia.
  • Can believe made up things with a delusional intensity.
93
Q

Investigations in paracetamol overdose

A

Serum paracetamol levels
=> Only valid after 4 hours post-ingestion.

Baseline bloods to assess renal and liver function (includes INR)

ABG/VBG to assess acid/base status

Weight - will guide treatment later on

94
Q

Treatment of paracetamol overdose

A

Patients on/above the treatment line for paracetamol overdose will be treated with acetylcysteine.

If overdose is staggered, paracetamol levels are difficult to interpret – treat with acetylcysteine

Acetylcysteine is given in a 21-hour infusion, based on the weight of the patient.

Psychiatric assessment after patient is stable.

95
Q

What does haematemesis indicate?

A

Vomiting of bright red blood indicates an acute upper GI bleed

96
Q

DDx for haematemesis

A

Peptic Ulcer Disease
Variceal Bleeding

Oesophagitis
Mallory-weiss tear
Upper GI malignancy

Rare causes (<5%) - aorta-enteric fistula, AV malformation, etc.

97
Q

Coffee-ground vomit

A

Vomiting of black material

= blood altered by gastric acid

98
Q

Melaena

A

Black, tarry stools = blood digested by intestinal enzymes.

Usually upper GI bleed, but can be small bowel or right side of colon.

99
Q

Haematochezia

A

Fresh, red blood per rectum.

= Usually colonic/rectal bleeding

Sometimes profuse upper GI bleeding, which stimulates peristalsis and results in rapid transit of blood (~10% of haematochezia)

100
Q

Management of GI bleed

A

A-E assessment
=> may be pale, tachycardia, hypotensive

Abdominal exam

PR exam

Bloods - FBC, U&E, LFT, coag, XM, VBG

Imaging - OGD, (CT contrast), (erect CXR)

101
Q

What is the Glasgow-Blatchford Bleeding score?

A

Callculated pre-endoscopy.
Evaluating the likelihood of need for intervention.
Scores range from 0 – 23,

=> Score = 0 – patient may be suitable for outpatient care.

=> Score >0 – consider admission for endoscopy

=> Score = 6+ – indicates 50% chance of intervention being required (transfusion/OGD/surgery)

102
Q

What is the Rockall score?

A

Used to predict the risk of re-bleeding and death.

Requires both pre- and post-endoscopy findings.

If the total Rockall score is 3+, this indicates a significant risk of re-bleeding.

103
Q

At what point in the GI tract is a bleed considered to be “lower GI”?

A

blood loss occurring from a site distal to the ligament of Treitz (duodenal-jejunal junction).

104
Q

PR bleeding - occult blood

A

No visible blood
Iron deficiency anaemia
+ve FOB or FIT

105
Q

PR bleeding - moderate bleeding

A

Rectal bleeding or melaena

Haemodynamically stable

106
Q

PR bleeding - severe bleeding

A

Large amounts of rectal bleeding

Postural hypotension +/- Significant drop in haematocrit

Haemodynamically unstable

Persistent bleeding/rebleeding

Requires multiple blood transfusions

107
Q

DDx for PR bleeding

A
Haemorrhoids
Anal fissure
IBD
Colorectal cancer
Diverticular disease
Angiodysplasia
UGI bleed
Haemorrhagic infective gastroenteritis
108
Q

Angiodysplasia

A

Acquired submucosal AV malformations

Most commonly located in caecum and ascending colon.

Most commonly presents with iron deficiency anaemia and occult bleeding

Typical presentation is of painless, fresh, PR bleed in elderly patients

Can be difficult to differentiate from diverticular bleeding.

109
Q

Investigations for PR bleeding

A

A-E assessment if severe

Abdominal exam
PR exam

Stool cultures
Faecal calprotectin

Bloods - FBC, U&E, LFT, coagulation, G&S, XM, ferritin/iron studies, VBG

110
Q

Why are tall people more likely to be affected by PTX?

A

the gradient of negative pleural pressure increases from the lung base to the apex

=> alveoli at the lung apex in tall individuals are subject to significantly greater distending pressure than those at the base of the lung

predispose to the development of apical subpleural blebs.

111
Q

How does a primary spontaneous PTX occur?

A

No underlying lung disease

Rupture of a pleural bleb

112
Q

How does a secondary spontaneous PTX occur?

A

Due to underlying lung disease:

COPD, asthma, severe pulmonary fibrosis, etc.

113
Q

Who are most likely to get primary/secondary spontaneous PTXs?

A

Primary - young, tall (and thin?) males.

Secondary - older patients (>40), usually smokers

114
Q

Difference in clinical signs between primary and secondary PTX?

A

Primary - symptoms can be minimal - low index of suspicion is required.

Secondary - symptoms more likely to be severe, even with a small PTX

115
Q

PTX - symptoms

A

Sudden onset pleuritic chest pain

Potentially pallor and tachycardia (tension???)

If small, potentially no symptoms.

116
Q

PTX - signs on affected side

A

Reduced chest expansion
Hyper-resonance on percussion
Diminished breath sounds on auscultation

117
Q

What are signs of a TENSION PTX?

A
Trachial deviation (away from affected side)
Cyanosis
Severe tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Hypotension
118
Q

how does tension PTX occur?

A

one-way valve system at the site of the breach in the pleural membrane

allows air to enter the pleural cavity during inspiration but preventing release of air during expiration.

This increases the intrapleural pressure so that it exceeds atmospheric pressure.

This results in impaired venous return and reduced cardiac output results in the typical features of hypoxaemia and haemodynamic compromise.

119
Q

Who is tension PTX most likely to affect?

A
Ventilated patients on ITU
Trauma patients
Resuscitated patients (CPR)
Lung disease: acute asthma or COPD 
Blocked or clamped chest drains
Patients on non-invasive ventilation 
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment (very small patient group)
120
Q

Management of tension PTX

A
  1. call for help immediately.
  2. Oxygen therapy
  3. Needle decompression with a cannula
    => 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line with a 14g (orange) cannula.
    => If initial treatment at 2nd ICS fails, then try 4th/5th ICS.
  4. After decompression, patient will require rapid insertion of a chest drain.
121
Q

Size of PTX

A

The general rule is that a 2cm interpleural distance at the level of the hilum equates to a pneumothorax of 50% of the volume of the lung.

<2cm is a small pneumothorax and patient may not need treatment

122
Q

What are fluids commonly prescribed for?

A
  1. Fluid resuscitation
  2. Fluid maintenance
  3. Fluid replacement
123
Q

Fluid compartments of the body

A

intracellular (ICF) and extracellular (ECF).

ECF
=> interstitial compartment
=> intravascular compartment

124
Q

How much of the body’s water is in the ICF and ECF?

A

~65% in ICF

~35% in ECF
=> 75% is interstitial
=> 25% is intravascular

125
Q

Starling’s hypothesis of fluid movement

A

fluid movement due to filtration across the wall of a capillary is dependent on the balance between the hydrostatic pressure gradient and the oncotic pressure gradient across the capillary.

126
Q

solute concentrations of ICF

A

high potassium concentration.

low sodium concentration.

Intracellular solute concentrations remain more or less constant

127
Q

solute concentrations of ECF

A

high sodium concentration.

low potassium concentration.

128
Q

what determines oncotic pressure gradient?

A

large molecular weight particles such as proteins in the intravascular compartment create a pressure gradient drawing water towards it.

129
Q

what determines oncotic pressure gradient ?

A

affected by circulatory pressures and other pressures in tissues such as oedema, and mechanical restriction such as with infection, plaster casts or bandaging.

130
Q

What are sources of fluid for the body?

A
  1. Oral fluids.
  2. Parenteral fluids.
  3. Water released from metabolism (about 400 ml per day, but not normally included in fluid balance calculations).
131
Q

What are sources of fluid loss?

A

Urine
GI losses
Insensible losses (skin/breathing/etc).
Others - e.g. drains, burns, bleeding.

132
Q

How much fluid is lost in the urine per day?

A

Depends, but usually ~1.5-2L

aim for a minimum urine output of 0.5mL/kg/day

133
Q

How much fluid is lost from the GI tract per day?

A

Normally minor (approximately 100 ml/day lost via the faeces)

Can be substantial in someone with diarrhoea, vomiting, biliary drains and high stoma output.

134
Q

How much fluid is lost from insensible losses per day?

A

500 – 800 ml per day

can increase significantly (e.g. if patient is sweating, febrile, tachypnoeic, or undergoing open cavity surgery).

135
Q

what is the maintenance fluid requirement in an average healthy adult, with no extra losses?

A

2 - 2.5L

136
Q

what is the ideal combination for maintenance fluids?

A

25-30 ml/kg/day of water

Approximately 1 mmol/kg/day each of sodium, chloride and potassium

50 - 100 g/day of glucose to limit starvation ketosis

137
Q

when would you consider prescribing LESS maintenance fluids ?

A

older adults and/or frail,
renal/cardiac failure,
malnourished and at risk of refeeding syndrome

138
Q

What are the typical electrolyte requirements for an average healthy adult requiring intravenous fluid for routine maintenance ?

A

Sodium 1 mmol/kg/day

Chloride 1 mmol/kg/day

Potassium 1 mmol/kg/day

139
Q

What electrolytes are lost during sweating?

A

Sodium

140
Q

What electrolytes are lost through diarrhoea/increased stoma output?

A

sodium, potassium and bicarbonate

141
Q

What electrolytes are lost through vomiting?

A

potassium, chloride and hydrogen ions

142
Q

What electrolytes are lost through insensible losses?

A

none - essentially pure water loss

143
Q

what are the two major classes of fluid for parenteral administration?

A
  1. Crystalloids - solutions of mineral salts.

2. Colloids - contain larger water-insoluble molecules such as complex branched carbohydrates or gelatins

144
Q

Crystalloids

A

Cheap and effective solutions.

Do not cause adverse immunological reactions.

Can be used as maintenance and replacement fluid.

Depending on their solute concentration, they are classified as hypo-, hyper- or isotonic solutions.

145
Q

What is an example of an isotonic fluid and how will this redistribute?

A

e.g. sodium chloride 0.9%

stays almost entirely within the extracellular compartment

146
Q

What is an example of a hypertonic fluid and how will this redistribute?

A

e.g. sodium chloride 3%, mannitol

increase plasma tonicity and draw fluid out of cells

147
Q

What is an example of a hypotonic fluid and how will this redistribute?

A

e.g. sodium chloride 0.45%

lower serum osmolarity and are not commonly used

148
Q

despite redistribution, why can crystalloids still be used for fluid resuscitation?

A

initially when they are rapidly infused, they do cause a transient expansion of the plasma volume.

In emergency - do not wait till the ideal fluid becomes available, give whatever is available to maintain haemodynamic stability.

149
Q

How will a litre of sodium chloride 0.9% redistribute after administration?

A

isotonic - stays in ECF

25% to intravascular (250ml)
75% to interstitial (750ml)

150
Q

Colloids

A

include: Blood, Dextrans, Gelatin (e.g. gelofusine), Human albumin solution, Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)

exert an osmotic force across the capillary membrane drawing fluid in from the interstitial to the intravascular compartment

  • Higher cost.
  • Small, but well-established risk of anaphylactoid reactions and anaphylaxis
151
Q

What does NICE guidance suggest for fluid resuscitation?

A

500 ml of a crystalloid containing sodium in the range 130-154 mmol/litre (e.g. sodium chloride 0.9%) administered over less than 15 minutes.

Human albumin solution 4-5% can be considered for fluid resuscitation only in patients with severe sepsis

152
Q

Why should human albumin solution 20% not be used for fluid resuscitation?

A

it is hyperoncotic => rapid administration can lead to rapid volume expansion and cardiac failure

153
Q

What should be reviewed/monitored during fluid resuscitation?

A

mean arterial pressure,
urine output
other clinical measures (e.g. capillary refill).

154
Q

what does the passive leg raise manoeuvre do?

A

mimics the administration of a fluid bolus by redirecting blood from the lower limbs to the heart (i.e. increased pre-load)

Used to predict which patients are most likely to respond to administration of a fluid bolus

155
Q

What are complications of fluid overload?

A
  1. Dilutional hyponatraemia

2. Pulmonary oedema

156
Q

What are some ways of managing fluid overload?

A

Stop IV fluids
Restrict oral fluids
Furosemide
Nitrates - reduce preload

157
Q

what is assessed in an A-E assessment ?

A
A - Airway
B - Breathing
C - Circulation
D - Disability
E - Exposure
158
Q

AIRWAY assessment

A

Can the patient talk?

If no:

Look for signs of airway compromise – e.g. cyanosis, see-saw breathing, use of accessory muscles, diminished/added breath sounds.

Open the mouth and inspect – ?obstruction with secretions/foreign object.

Any added noises – snoring, crowing, gurgling, stridor.

159
Q

What are some causes of airway compromise?

A

Inhaled foreign body

Blood/vomit/secretions in the airway

Soft tissue swelling

Local mass effect

Laryngospasm

Depressed level of consciousness

160
Q

AIRWAY management

A

Seek immediate support from anaesthetist and crash team.

Airway manoeuvres:
=> Head tilt chin lift
=> Jaw thrust

Airway adjuncts:
=> Oro/nasopharyngeal airway

161
Q

BREATHING assessment

A

Is the patient speaking in full sentences?

Is the patient orientated or confused?

Respiratory Rate
=> Normal (12-20)/ bradypnoea/ tachypnoea

O2 Sats
=> 94-98% in healthy individuals
=> 88-92% in patients with COPD

Tracheal position – any deviation?

Chest expansion – symmetrical? any reduced movement?

Percussion and Auscultation

ABG

CXR

162
Q

BREATHING management

A

Position of patient.
Continuous saturation monitoring.
Oxygen therapy (+ nebuliser therapy?)

163
Q

CIRCULATION assessment

A

Pulse
=> Rate – Normal/bradycardia/tachycardia?
=> Rhythm, character and volume

MANUAL Blood Pressure
=> Normal/hypotension/hypertension

Obvious signs of dehydration?
Pallor?
Oedema?

Measure capillary refill time (may need to assess central CRT)
=> Should be <2 seconds.

Auscultate Heart Sounds

164
Q

CIRCULATION problems

A
  • Sepsis
  • Dehydration
  • Blood loss
  • Drugs
  • Electrolyte abnormalities
  • Ischaemia
  • MI
165
Q

CIRCULATION management

A

IV access with cannula

FBC, U&Es, LFTs routinely, and consider additional bloods (lactate, ABG, etc).

12-lead ECG if appropriate.

Hypovolaemia requires IV fluid resuscitation to avoid cardiac arrest.

166
Q

DISABILITY assessment

A

Assess consciousness - AVPU
(if a more detailed assessment is required, then GCS)

Pupils
=> Inspect the size and symmetry of the patient’s pupils
=> Assess direct and consensual light reflex.

Drug chart review
=> Any drugs which may alter consciousness? (e.g. opioids, sedatives, etc).

Blood glucose
=> Normal 4.0 – 11.0 mmol/L
=> If elevated, check ketones (?DKA)

CT head if intracranial pathology suspected

167
Q

AVPU scale

A

Alert: the patient is fully alert, although not necessarily orientated.

(New) Confusion

Verbal: the patient makes some kind of response when you talk to them (e.g. words, grunt).

Pain: the patient responds to a painful stimulus (e.g. supraorbital pressure).

Unresponsive: the patient does not show evidence of any eye, voice or motor responses to pain.

168
Q

What are the 3 categories in GCS?

A

Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Motor Response

169
Q

GCS - eye opening

A
Spontaneous – E4 
To sound – E3
To pressure – E2
None – E1
(NT)
170
Q

GCS - verbal response

A
Orientated – V5
Confused – V4
Words – V3
Sounds – V2
None – V1
(NT)
171
Q

GCS - motor response

A
Obey commands – M6
Localising – M5
Normal flexion – M4
Abnormal flexion – M3
Extension – M2
None – M1
(NT)
172
Q

DISABILITY management

A

Maintain airway if GCS 8 or below.
Naloxone if ?opioid toxicity.
Management of DKA/HHS or Hypoglycaemia.

173
Q

EXPOSURE assessment

A

Head-to-toe examination of the patient, front and back. Aim to maintain dignity and control temperature.

Skin
=> Rashes, bruising, signs of infection?

IV lines
=> Redness/discharge?

Abdominal distension

Calves
=> Erythema, swelling, tenderness?

Surgical wounds
=> Signs of infection?

Evidence of haemorrhage

Evidence of infection

Review output from catheter/drains

Review body temperature.