Acute and Emergency medicine Flashcards

1
Q

When does Troponin rise and peak in ACS?

What does this tell you?

A

Within 3-12 hours
Peak 24-48 hours

Angina will have no trop rise; STEMI/NSTEMI will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is myoglobin useful in ACS

A

Early rise at 1-4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is CK useful in ACS

A

Rise 3-12 hours

Peak 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperacute (hours) and Acute (hours to days) changes on an ECG in ACS

A

Hyperacute- Tall T, ST elevation

Acute- T wave inversion, Pathological Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Leads 11,111,avf on an ECG are…

A

Inferior heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Leads 1,avl, V5, V6 on an ECG are…

A

Lateral heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Leads V1, V2 on an ECG are…

A

Septal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Leads V3, V4 on an ECG are…

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Indications for primary percutaneous coronary intervention

A

ST rise >1mm (2 small squares) in 2 limb leads
ST rise of >2mm in 2 contralateral chest leads
LBBB

Must be within 120 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What if a STEMI presents >120 minutes, how do you treat it?

A

Thrombolyse

If no effect then PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does MONAT stand for in STEMI treatment?

A
Morphine 2.5-10mg slow IV bolus + Metoclopramide
Oxygen 15L NRBM 
Nitrates GTN spray
Aspirin 300mg PO
Ticagrelor or clopidogrel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treating an acute NSTEMI/Unstable angina

A
300mg Aspirin 
Nitrates
Morphine
Anti-thrombin therapy:
1- Fondaparinux 
2- Ticagrelor (12 months)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the GRACE score

A

6 month future CV AE risk

if >3% then coronary angiography within 96 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the TIMI score

A

Mortality AE predictor post-MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can give a falsely high troponin

A
HF
PE
CKD
Dialysis
Arrhythmia 
SAH
Seziure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What medications should someone be on post-MI

A

Beta blocker, aspirin, 12 month ticagrelor, ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ECG signs for angina

A

ST depression, Flat/inverted T waves

Signs of past MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When do you refer an anigina to a specialist

A

New angina of sudden onset
Recurrent and Hx of MI/CABG
Uncontrolled by drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Well’s score; what action do you take if >4?

A

Likelihood of PE

> 4= High risk therefore CTPA
< 4= Low risk -> D-dimer= +ve = CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a PERC score? Explain ‘HAD CLOTS’

A

Any of the criteria in this score are met then PE not ruled out

Hormone, Age >50, DVT/PE Hx, Cough blood Leg swelling, O2 neded, Tachycardia >100BPM, Surgery/Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

D-dimer has good sensitivity, what does this mean?

A

SNOUT

-VE= UNLIKELY TO BE PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PE associated ECG changes

A

S1Q3T3

Large S wave in lead 1
Pathological Q wave in lead 3 (> 1 small box duration)
Inverted T wave in lead 3
Right axis deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the gold standard for PE Dx?

When can the above not be done?

A

CTPA

If renal impairment or pregnant therefore use V/Q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you identify a massive PE?

What do you treat this with?

A

Hypotension +/- Cardiac arrest

Alteplase (Thrombolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you treat sub-massive or non-massive PEs

A

LMWH or fondaparinux for 5 days or until INR >2

Warfarin should be started within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are type A and Type B aortic dissections?

A

Type A- Ascending Aorta (MAJORITY) and highest mortality, caused by tamponade, interrupted flow, valve incompetence

Type B- Not in the ascending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

General features of Aortic dissection

A

Abrupt sharp tearing chest pain that is maximal at onset

Paraplegia, limb ischaemia, neuro deficit, syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Signs of Type A dissection vs type B

What are the pulses like? Any murmurs?

A

Type A- Hypotension
Type B- Hypertension

Asymmetry and absence of peripheral pulses
Aortic regurg murmur (Early diastolic decrescendo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you confirm a Dx of Aortic dissection

A

BP both arms

CT angiography is gold standard

Transoes echo if haemodynamic instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you treat aortic dissection

A

Type A= surgery

Type B= Iv labetalol to control HTN, conservative if uncomplicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Presentation of pericarditis

A

Non prod cough, chest pain worse on lying flat, radiates to neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ECG changes in pericarditis

A

Wide spread saddle shaped ST elevation
PR depression
T wave inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treating pericarditis

A

NSAIDS (Naproxen) + PPI and cease phenytoin

Avoid antimicrobials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How gets primary and secondary pneumothorax?

A

Primary- young thin men

Secondary- Old with pre-existing lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Criteria for chest drain in pneumothorax

A

> 2cm + SOB +/- > 50yrs

< 2cm + no SOB and primary ?Discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which way is the mediastinum pushed in a tension pneumothorax

A

Contralaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you treat a tension pneumothorax?

A

Large bore needle 2nd ICS MCL
Syringe and saline- allow air to bubble through
Then chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does a tension pneumothorax cause cardiorespiratory arrest?
What are the signs of this

A

Great vein compression

Hypotension, neck vein distension, Cont. Tracheal deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a low/Int and high risk CURB-65 score?

A

Low- 0-1
Int- 2
High= 3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When would you consider an ICU admission for pneumonia?

A

Shock
Hypercapnia
Uncorrected hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common cause of an infective COPD exacerbation

A

H.Influenzae

+ S.Pneum, Morazella Catarrhalis
30% Viruses (Like Rhino virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Indications for admission of an infective COPD exacerbation

A
Cannot cope at home
Deterioration 
Severe SOB/Cyanosis/Oedema 
LTOT
Rapid onset
Acidotic
Sp02<90%
Hypoxic 
CXR changes (Acute)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Treatment of an infective COPD exacerbation

A

Neb bronchodilators- Salbutamol and Ipratropium
30mg Pred
Amox/Tetra/Clarithro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Indications for Abx in a COPD exacerbation

A

Pyrexia
Purulent sputum
Consolidation on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What would indicate a COPD exacerbation is needing NIV?

A
Previous admin in 12 months
DNACRP
RR>30
PH<7.35
Hx NIV
Abx/Steroids in last 12 months
Decreased exercise tolerance 
Wx loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Criteria for a Moderate Asthma exacerbation

A

PEFR 50-75%
RR<25
HR<110
Speech normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Criteria for a severe Asthma exacerbation

A

PEFR 33-50%
Cannot complete sentences without taking a breath
RR>25/HR>110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Criteria for a life threatening Asthma exacerbation

A
PEFR <33%
Sats <92%
Rising PaCO2
Silent chest/Exhaustion
Dysrhythmia/Bradycardia
Hypotension 
Confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Managing acute asthma

A
Salbutamol- 5mg Neb w/o2 back to back
Ipratropium- 500mcg- Neb w/o2- 4 hourly
Hydrocortisone 200mg IV OR 40mg Pred orally
Magnesium sulphate 2g IV over 20 mins
IV Aminophylline 5mg/kg over 20 mins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Causes of cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

A

LHF leads to inc LV-end diastolic pressure; causes inc pulmonary hydrostatic pressure

MI/IHD/Arrhythmia/Cardiomegaly/-ve Inotropic drugs/Failed prosthetic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Causes of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema

A

ARDS, IV fluid overload, Hypoalbuminaemia, Toxins, Smoke inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Signs of Pulmonary oedema on CXR

A

Batwing Hilar shadows
Kerley B lines (Interstitial space expansion)
Upper lobe diversion because of increased flow- upper lobe pulmonary veins resemble a stag’s antlers
Cardiomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treating an acute pulmonary oedema

A
IV furosemide 50mg 
Morphine 
GTN if BP<90 sys
ICU if cardiogenic shock
?NIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of crackles are heard upon auscultation in pulmonary oedema

A

Fine inspiratory crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Upon leg examination in ?DVT what signs are you looking for (3)?

A

Deep vein tenderness
Swelling 10cm distal to tibial tuberosity; Must be >3cm bigger than unaffected calf
Oedema- MAY BE PITTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How do you interpret Well’s score for DVT?

A

2+= Likely= Proximal leg vein USS within 4 hours
D-Dimer +LMWH if cannot do above but get USS within 24 hours

=1 = Unlikely D-dimer; if +ve then USS within 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treating DVT

A

1) LMWH/Fondaparinux until 5 days or INR>2
2) Warfarin within 24 hours continue for 6 months
3) Safety net- SOB/PAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In unprovoked DVT what should you check for?

A

Cancer
CR/FBC/Calcium/LFTs/Urinalysis

?Thrombophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Features of cellulitis

A

Red, warm, tender, swollen

Poorly defined margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the Eron classification?

A

Classifies cellulitis
1- Afebrile
2- Febrile but no unstable cormobidities
3- Toxic appearance, unstable comorbids
4- Sepsis syndrome- Organ dysfunction, Not responding to fluid challenge

Admit for IV Abx if 3/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How do you treat…
Localised cellulitis with no systemic upset
Cellulitis + Systemically unwell
Cellulitis of the face

A

Localised cellulitis with no systemic upset- Oral flucloxacillin or macrolide/Clinda if allergic

Cellulitis + Systemically unwell- IV Fluclox or Benzyl or Co-Amox

Cellulitis of the face- IV Abx + Optham referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define severe sepsis and septic shock

A

Severe sepsis= SIRS + Organ dysfunction

Septic Shock= SIRS + Hypotension despite fluid resus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What criteria are considered for SIRS

A

Temp, WCC, HR, RR, PAO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the sepsis six

A

BUFALO

Complete within 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Signs of an acutely ischaemia limb (6 P’s)

A

Pale, Pulseless, Pain, Paralysis, Perishingly cold, Paraesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Signs of critical limb ischaemia

A
Hangs leg out of bed
Ulceration/Gangrene
Intermittent claudication 
ABPI <0.5
Mottled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

RF for gout

A
Diet
Diuretics
Renal failure
Cytotoxics
Myeloproliferative disease
Chemo
Aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How do you confirm a Dx of gout

A

Diagnostic: Monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid or tophi

Therefore: 1) Joint aspiration 2) X-ray

Serum uric acid >360 u/mol is suggestive but not diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

X-ray signs of gout

A

Punched out lesions in peri-articular bone
Preservation of joint space
No peri-articular osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Treatment of acute gout

A

Rest + NSAIDS +/- Colchine (+ PPI)

Prednisolone 15mg/day if above CI

If already on allopurinol do not alter!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Preventative drugs for gout

A

Allopurinol (May cause an initial acute attack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Typical presentation of septic arthritis?

A
Inflammed joint with sudden fast onset
>50% knee
No movement 
Joint held in position of most comfort- usually flexion
Fever, shaking, rigors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What would a septic arthritis X-ray look like

A

Initially may be normal

Later on there is a loss of landmarks and soft tissue swelling with displacement of the capsular flat planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Diagnosis of septic arthritis

A

Clinical Hx/Exam +/- X-ray
Joint aspiration (MOST RELIABLE) -> Culture
?CT/MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Treatment of septic arthritis

A

STAT IV flucloxacillin or clindamycin
+ Orthopaedic referral

(VANCOMYCIN IF MRSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the 4 I’s of DKA

A

Infection, Infarction, Insufficient insulin, Intercurrent illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

DKA presentation

A

Osmotic diuresis (Polyuria) leads to hypoperfusion, hypotension, and shock
Polydipsia
SOB
KUSSMAL breathing
Dehydration- Cap refill, dry mouth, dec skin turgor, weak pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

3 Diagnostic criteria for DKA

A

Acidaemia PH<7.3 HCO3<16mmol/L

Ketonaemia/uria Urine ketones ++ or Cap ketones >3 mmol/L

Hyperglycaemia (or known T1DM) CBG >11mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

IV insulin 0.1 units/kg/hr
0.9% Saline 1L over 1 hr > 2 hrs > 2hrs > 4 hrs> 4 hrs> 6 hrs
Treat Hypokalaemia 20mmols if <5 + 40mmols <4.5

Hourly CBG/ketones/bicarb/K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Indications of DKA resolution

A

PH >7.3 ketones <0.3 mmol/L

Stop IV
? Start SC insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When would you consider giving glucose in DKA

A

Once Glucose <14mmol/L
5% Dextrose
or add 10% glucose 125ml/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Indications for Critical care in DKA

A
Bicarb < 5
Pregnancy (Big DKA RF)
Drowsy
HF
Anuria/Oliguria 
K+ <3.5 on admin 
Sats <92%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Potential complications of DKA

A
Arrhythmias 
Gastric stasis
Thromboembolism 
Cerebral oedema
ARDS
AKI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is Whipple’s triad of hypoglycaemia

A

Plasma hypoglycaemia
Concurrent symptoms
Resolution with correction of low glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Treating hypoglycaemia

A

Quick acting carbohyrate/Glucose 10-20g orally

If unconscious/uncooperative then IV glucose 10-20% E.G 150mls 10% Dextrose/15 mins

If no IV then IM Glucagon

Prolonged hypoglycaemic coma- IV Mannitol + Dexamethasone + Iv glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is HHS?

A

Sevre uncorrected hyperglycaemia causes osmotic diuresis and volume depletion resulting in blood hyperviscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Presentation of HHS

How do you distinguish this from DKA?

A

Onset is days- weeks
WATERY= Poluria, thirsty, dehydrated, urgdency
WEAK= Fatigue, LoC
PAIN- Headaches, Papilloedema

HHS- Slower onset, Elderly, likely T2DM, Hyperglycaemia is more pronounced, Ketacidosis less pronounced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Dx criteria of HHS

A

Hypovolaemia
Plasma osmolarity >320 mOsmol/kg
Hyperglycaemia > 30mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Management of HHS

A

IV 0.9% saline aim for +ve balance of 3-6L by 12 hours

Once hydrated then give insulin, if given too soon this can precipitate CV collapse; 0.05 units/KG/Hr if ketonaemia

TARGET GLUCOSE 10-15mmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Complications of HHS

A

Higher mortality than DKA…

Ischaemia, Infarction, VTE, DIC, ARDS, Multi-organ failure, Rhabdomyolysis, Cerebral oedema, Central Pontine Myelinolysis,Over-administration of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

ECG findings on 1st degree AV block

A

PR consistently prolonged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

ECG findings on 2nd degree MOBITZ 1 AV block

A

Progressive PR prolongation then a QRS block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

ECG findings on 2nd degree MOBITZ 2 AV block

A

Normal PR
P wave not followed by QRS at a constant ratio
+? Wide QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

ECG findings on 3rd degree AV block

A

No PR interval

P wave does not relate to QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Heart block pharmacological interventions?

When would you use this?

A

0.5mg Atropine IV can repeat 3 times
Adrenaline

Syncope, Shock, MI, Ischaemia, HF (ADVERSE FEATURES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Cerebral perfusion pressure formula

A

CPP= MAP - ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Initial features of increased ICP post-head injury?

What does this progress to?

A

Decreased consciousness
Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation as temporal lobe herniation causes occulomotor compression

Contralateral hemiparesis, Cardio-respiratory arrest, Cushing’s response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is cushing response following head injury

A

Reflex increase in BP with bradycardia

+ irregular breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Signs of a basal skull fracture

A
Bilateral orbital bruising (Panda eyes)
Subconjunctival haemorrhage 
Haemotypanum 
CSF rhinorrhea/otorrhoea
Battle's sign (Brusing over mastoid process over days)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Indications for an immediate CT scan post-head injury

A
GCS<13 (or < 15 in the ED)
Basal skull fracture
Seizure
Focal neurological deficit 
>1 episode of vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Normal sequlae of head injury

A

Mild headache
Nausea
Cannot concentrate
Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Indications for non-urgent CT post-head injury (8 hours)

A

Some LoC/Amnesia

+(65+, Clotting problems, Dangerous mechanism, > 30 mins retrograde amnesia)

ALWAYS IF ON WARFARIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How is recovery in Syncope Vs seizure

A

Syncope is likely to be a rapid full recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is Todd’s paresis?

A

May follow seizures

focal deficit or hemiparesis lasting 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What do all new onset seizures need?

A

BRAIN IMAGING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Indications for an emergency CT post-seizure

A
Focal signs
Head injury
HIV
?Intracranial infection 
No improvement in consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

When is it appropriate to discharge a seizure presentation?

A

Normal neuro/cardio exams
ECG/electrolytes normal
Single seizure

Refer to epilepsy clinic

If already an epileptic then discharge if no change in seizure pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

> 30 mins
Generalised seizure
Doesn’t regain consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Treating Status epilepticus

A

Lorazepam 1-2mg IV slow bolus repeat 5 mins (or 10mg Diazepam) Buccal midazolam if no IV

Then if they continue… 20 mg/kg IV Phenytoin

Get ICU help. RSI if continued seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

3 features of vasovagal syncope

A

Sudden
LoC
Spont.Recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

When would you consider a cardiac referral for syncope?

When would you consider a neurology referral?

A

Abnormal ECG, LoC on exertion, HF, >65 with no prodrome, murmur

Bitten tongue, Amnesia, Unresponsive, Unusual psoturing, Prodrome, Post-ictal confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Examples of…

Reflex mediated syncope
Orthostatic hypotension related syncope
Cardiac syncope

A

Vasovagal, Situational, Cardiac sinus syncope

Primary or secondary AN failure, Alcohol, diuretics, AD, Volume depletion

Bradycardia, SVT, Cardiomyopathy, MI, Valvular, PE, Aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

3 main classifications of syncope

A

Reflex mediated

Orthostatic hypotension

Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What scores you 1 point in the Rosier Stroke score? What scores -2 points?

A

+1= Asymmetrical Arm, face or leg weakness, speech disturbance or visual field defects

-2= LoC, Syncope, Seizure

UNLIKELY IF 0 or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Indications for an urgent CT scan in ?Stroke

A
Presents within 4 hours of onset
On anticoagulation 
GCS <13
Progressive/Fluctuating symptoms 
Papilloedema 
Neck stiffness 
Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Main Categories of symptoms to ask about in ?Stroke (7)

A
Motor 
Sensory
Meningism 
Pain
Speech
Cognition/Consciousness
Sight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Does a normal CT rule out an ischaemic stroke?

A

No
Initial CT may be normal
Do CT angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Managment of an ischaemic stroke

A

300mg Aspirin
Thrombolyse if within 4.5 hours of onset
Mechanical thrombectomy if within 6 hours

STROKE WARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

On the HUNT & HESS scale for SAH severity what would indicate a more severe event?

A

Stupor, Hemiparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What do you do in suspected SAH?

A

Emergency CT scan (detects >90%)

Then admit for lumbar puncture (typically regardless of CT result) as it takes 12 hours for xanthochromia to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Once an SAH is confirmed what can be done to investigate causative pathology

A

Aniogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How do you control BP in SAH and what is the target?

A

BP<160

Nimodepine (also prevents vasospasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How do you treat raised ICP in SAH

A
IV Mannitol 
(Increases blood plasma osmolarity, driving water into plasma from the cerebral tissues)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If an ?SAH is unconscious what do you do?

A

ET tube
Arterial line
Catheter
Neurosurgical team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Complications of SAH

A
30% Rebleed
Vasospasms 
Hyponatraemia 
Seizures
Hydrocephalus 
Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Key ‘later’ features of meningitis

A
Meningism 
Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs 
Decreased consciousness 
Seizures
Focal CNS 
Petechial or purpuric non-blanching rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Signs of meningococcal septicaemia

A

Later features of meningitis +

Slow cap refill
Hypotension
Unusual skin colour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Signs of septicaemia without meningitis

A

Hypotensive + infective signs

NO KERNIG’S BRUDZINSKI’S NOR FOCAL NEURO DEFICITS

129
Q

Gold standard Dx for meningitis

A

Lumbar puncture with CSF culture

130
Q

Lumbar puncture signs suggesting bacterial meningitis

A

> 1.5g of proteins
CSF glucose <50% Plasma glucose (SAME IN VIRAL)
Cloudy fluid (CLEAR IN VIRAL)
RELEASE PROTEINS, USE GLUCOSE, NEUTROPHILLIC

131
Q

Treatment of bacterial mengingits in secondary care

A

IV ceftriaxone immediately + IV Amox/Ampicillin if >60/Immunocomp/<3 months
Analgesia, Antipyretics, Hydration
IV Dexamethasone 10mg/4Xday

132
Q

Best Abx for strep.Pneum meningitis

A

Benzylpenicillin + Vanco/Ceph/Rifampicin

Dependent on local sensitivities

133
Q

Key signs of a space occupying lesion

A
Headche worse on lying/Bending/Coughing
Vomiting, papilloedema, Dec GCS
Focal neurology 
Blackout, personality change, Amnesia
Seizures
134
Q

4 features indicating a secondary headache (SAH, Lesion) vs a primary (Tension, Migraine)

A

Sudden onset
Focal neurology
Systemic features
>50

135
Q

Key diagnostic criteria for temporal arteritis

A
> 50
New pain
Temporal artery abnormality 
ESR>50mm/hour
Abnormal artery biopsy

NEED 3/5

136
Q

What visual signs can you get in temporal arteritis

A

Rapid + profound

diplopia Amaurosis fugax

137
Q

What does the optic disc look like in temporal arteritis

A

Pale, Waxy, Elevated disc, Splinter haemorrhages

138
Q

Treatment of temporal arteritis

A

High dose prednisolone
IV mehtylpred if visual symptoms
+ Osteoporosis prophylaxis
Low dose aspirin

139
Q

Onset of venous sinus thrombosis?

A

Onset is days-weeks NOT SUDDEN

140
Q

What must you exclude in venous sinus thrombosis

A

SAH and Meningitis

141
Q

What can be used to Dx venous sinus thrombosis

A

MRI T2 weighted to visualise thrombus

CT/MRI/Venography

142
Q

What are the features of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

periorbital oedema

6th CN palsy

143
Q

Transverse sinus thrombosis

A

Headache mastoid pain, focal neurology, papilloedema

144
Q

Saggital sinus thrombosis

A

Seizures, Hemiplegia, Papilloedema

145
Q

Sigmoid sinus thrombosis causes lots of what

A

Opthalmic symptoms- oedema, proptosis pain

146
Q

What size defines an arterial enlargement as aneurysmal?

When is said aneurysm at low chance of rupture?

A

> 3cm

<5cm

147
Q

What imaging technique composes the initial assessment of AAA?
What then shows anatomical details?

A

USS 3mm accuracy (initial assessment and follow up)

CT

148
Q

Signs of AAA rupture?

A
Sudden abd pain/back pain -> Loin groin 
sudden collapse
Expansile mass
Shock 
Hypotension
Absent pulses
PEA
149
Q

Management of a ruptured AAA

A
STABILISE 
High flow O2
2X large bore cannulas 
Emergency cross match
IV analgesia
Cyclizine 
Vascular surgeon
150
Q

When would preventative AAA surgery be considered

A

> 5.5cm

151
Q

USS monitoring for AAA

A
3-4.4cm= Annual USS
4.5+= 3 monthly USS
152
Q

What is Rovsing’s signs

A

Pain in RIF when pressing LIF

153
Q

McBurney’s point

A

1/3rd from ASIS to umb

Pain and guarding when ?Appendicitis

154
Q

Key investigations to do if ?Appendicitis

A

Urinalysis +/- pregnancy test- RULE OUT UTI
USS (FAST) can exclude pelvis pathology and show free fluid

CT has high sensitivity and specificity

155
Q

Pre-surgical Abx for appendicitis

A

Metronidazole and cefuroxime

156
Q

Appendicitis complications

A
Perforation 
Wound infection 
Mass
Abscess 
paralytic ileus 
Adhesion 
Maternal mortality in pregnancy
157
Q

Best imaging for gall stones

A

USS

158
Q

What is acute cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder wall likely because of Impaction of the neck of the gallbladder
Murphy’s sign (2 fingers, pain on insp, not on LUQ)
RUQ pain
Fever
N&V

159
Q

Treating Acute cholecystitis

A
NBM 
Analgesia 
Fluids
IV cefuroxime 
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
160
Q

What is Ascending cholangitis?

A

Infection and stasis of the biliary tree

161
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

What is Reynold’s pentad?

A

RUQ pain, Fever/Rigors/ Jaundice

Pentad= Above + CNS distrubance and Hypotension

BOTH SEEN IN ASC CHOLANGITIS

162
Q

4 F’s of biliary colic

A

Female, Fat, Forty, Foetus

163
Q

Classificiation of bowel obstruction

A

Extrinsic
Intramural
Intraluminal

164
Q

Important bowel obs Qs

A
Any bowel disease
Recent surgery
Hernias
RT
Cancers
165
Q

From a Hx how do you distinguish SBO from LBO

A

In SBO…

Faeculent vomiting is earlier, colicky pain is worse, constipation is later, and distension is central

166
Q

What are haustra

A

Do not cross full diameter of LB

167
Q

What are valvulae conniventes

A

Cross full diameter of small bowel

168
Q

What is the 3, 6, 9 rule for bowel obstruction?

A

Abnormal if…
SB= >3cm
LB= >6cm
Caecum= >9cm

169
Q

SBO vs LBO on an AXR

A

SBO= Central gas shadows, valvulae conniventes, no gas in LB

LBO= Constant pain. Peripheral gas shadows, not in rectum, Coffee bean sign if volvulus.

170
Q

What does a barium swallow + x-ray determine

A

Level of obstruction in SBO

171
Q

Classic presentation of diverticulitis

A
Tender colon with peritonism 
\+ Change in bowel habit
\+ Older
\+ LUTS
\+ N&amp;V
172
Q

CXR sign of perforated bowel

A

Pneumoperitoneum

173
Q

4 major complications of diverticuliutis

A

Abscess (use CT with contrast) then USS guided drainage
Perforation
Haemorrhage
Fistulae

174
Q

When would you admit diverticulitis

A

Cannot tolerate oral fluids
Pain intolerable
Not improved for 72 hours

175
Q

Basic treatment principles of diverticulitis

A
Analgesia
NBM
IV fluids 
\+/- Abx 
Avoid colonscopy as may cause perforation
176
Q

Best imaging for an ovarian cyst

A

Transabdominal/vaginal USS
Then MRI if >7cm

Always rule out UTI and pregnancy

177
Q

When must you always consider ectopic pregnancy as a DDx?

A
Young women 
Abdomen pain
Vaginal bleeding 
Syncope 
Look for hypovolaemic shock!
178
Q

Diagnosis of Ectopic pregnancy

A

USS (Vaginal>Abdominal)

Pregnancy test

179
Q

What are Cullen’s and Grey Turner’s signs?

A

Periumbillical bruising= Cullen’s

Flank bruising= Grey Turner’s

180
Q

I GET SMASHED

A

Idiopathic

Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma

Surgery
Mumps
AI
Scorpion sting 
Hypercalcaemia/Lipidaemia/Hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs
181
Q

By how much is serum amylase raised in acute pancreatitis?

A

3x (or more)

Serum lipase better

182
Q

Best imaging for pancreatitis

A

CT least ambiguous and good for severity and Px (post-72 hours)
USS can see gallstones
MRI good for severity

183
Q

How does glucose and calcium change in pancreatitis?

A

Hypocalcaemia

Hyperglycaemia

184
Q

What is the Ranson/Glasgow score

A

Pancreatitis severity- PANCREAS

Pao2 <8kpa
Age >55
Neutrophils/WCC >15 x 10^9
Calcium <2mmol/L
Renal urea >16 mmol/L
Enzymes= LDH >600 IU AST >200 IU/L
Albumin <32 g/L
Blood sugars >10 

> 3 points in the 1st 48 hours means severe pancreatitis

185
Q

Systemic complications of pancreatitis

A
Respiratory oedema, effusion, consolidation, ARDS
Hypovolaemia and shock 
DIC
Low calcium, High glucose, Low Mg
Haemorrhage, Ileus
Renal dysfunction
186
Q

What effect does eating have on duodenal ulcers

A

Pain relief upon eating (Gastric is worse after eating)

187
Q

Most common type of peptic ulcer

A

Duodenal ulcer

188
Q

Indications for endoscopy if ? Peptic ulcer

A

> 55 + 1st presentation

Anaemia/Wx loss/Chronic blood loss/Bleeding/Progressive dysphagia/Persistent vomiting/Mass

189
Q
What are...
Melaena 
Haematemesis 
Coffee ground-vomit 
Haematochezia
A

Melaena- Black tarry stools= UGIB
Haematemesis= Bright red indicates active haemorrhage
Coffee ground-vomit= Bleeding ceased
Haematochezia= Fresh blood, LGIB

190
Q

What happens to urea in a GI bleed

A

Increases

191
Q

In what time frame do you do an endoscopy for UGIB

A

Within 24 hours

If unstable then immediately

192
Q

What is the Blatchford score?

A

Informs whether someone needs an endoscopy

193
Q

What is the Rockall score?

A

Predicts outcomes in GI bleed

194
Q

Key investigations for renal colic

A

CT KUB within 14 hours

Urinalysis and MSU- LOOK FOR BLOOD

195
Q

What analgesia is best for renal stones?

A

IV opioids with oral NSAID like diclofenac or Ketorolac

196
Q

When would you give immediate Abx for otitis media?

A

Perforation or discharge
Systemically unwell
> 4 days of symptoms
< 2 yrs and bilateral

AMOXICILLIN

197
Q

Signs of a Quinsy? What do you do?

A

Unilateral pain
Deviated uvula
Cannot open mouth

Contact ENT + IV benzylpenicillin

198
Q

Criteria for oral Abx in Tonsillitis

A

Fever
Exudative
Tender Ant.Cervical lympthadenopathy
Absent cough

PENICILLIN

199
Q

What is croup

A

Viral URTI that causes inflammatory spread to the larynx/trachea

URTI symptoms lead to stridor/resp distress/hoarseness

Give Dex +/- Adrenaline

200
Q

Westley clinical scoring of croup

A
Insp stridor 
Intercostal recession 
Air entry
Cyanosis 
Consciousness 

> 6 severe

201
Q

Sepsis criteria considers…

A

Infection + 2 or more of:

TEMP, CAP REFILL, HR, RR, WCC, LACTATE

202
Q

In ALS when do you assess the rhythm?

A

After every 2 min cycle of CPR

203
Q

What do you do if the rhythm is shockable (VF, Pulseless VT)

A

1 shock

Resume CPR for 2 min

204
Q

What do you do if the rhythm is non-shockable (PEA/Asystole)

A

Resume CPR for 2 mins

205
Q

When do you give adrenaline during CRP?

A

1mg every 3-5mins IV/IM

206
Q

When do you give amiodarone during CPR?

A

300Mg after 3 shocks

207
Q

The reversible causes of Cardiac arrest

A

Hypoxia
Hypothermia
Hypovolaemia
Hypo/perkalaemia

Tension Pneumo
Thrombosis
Tamponade
Toxins

208
Q

What are adverse features in an tachycardic adult with a pulse?

A

Shock
MI
Syncope
HF

209
Q

In a tachycardic adult who is unstable what do you do?

A

Synchronised DC shock up to 3 attempts
300mg amiodarone/10-20mins
Expert help
Repeat shock then 900mg amiodarone over 24 hours

210
Q

Broad complex tachycardia?

A

VT

211
Q

Narrow complex tachycardia?

A

SVT
AF
Flutter
Re-entry paroxysmal SVT

212
Q

Treating Fast AF <48 hours onset

A

Heparinise

Cardioversion

213
Q

Treating AF >48 hours onset

A

Beta blocker or CCB

CHADVAS2 >2= Anticoagulation

214
Q

Indications for emergency electrical cardioversion in AF?

A

Shock, syncope, Acute HF, Ischaemia

215
Q

Agents used for chemical cardioversion

A

Flecainide if no structural disease

Otherwise: Amiodarone

216
Q

ECG signs of Flutter

A

Regular atrial beat

Sawtooth pattern as constant atrial depolarisation

217
Q

Treating Flutter

A

Cardioversion (even if >48 hours)
Radiofrequency ablation
Carotid sinus massage and adenosine

218
Q

SVT ECG findings

A

Narrow QRS <3 small Sq

Rate >100 BPM

219
Q

Treating SVT

A

Vagal maneouvres
IV adenosine or DC cardioversion
Cardiology referral

220
Q

ECG findings in VT

A

Rate >100BPM
Broad QRS >3 small squares
Precordial leads unlikely to have both R + S

221
Q

Treating VT

A

If BP<90, CHEST PAIN OR HF THEN…

Immediate synchronised cardioversion, shock if acutely unwell

If not then can use Amiodarone via central line

222
Q

Treating VF

A

ALS algorithm

223
Q

Causes of Hyponatraemia

A

Hypovolaemic- D+V, Diuretics, renal failure, adrenocortical suppression
Euvolaemic- SIADH, Acute water load
Hypervolaemic- CCF, Cirrhosis, Nephrotic syn, Renal failure

224
Q

SIADH Criteria

A

Serum hypo-osmolarity <275
Urine osmo >100
Urine Na+ > 30

225
Q

Causes of SIADH

A

Malignancy, Diuretics, PPIs, SSRIs, ACEi, Loop diuretics

226
Q

How do you treat Hyponatraemia

A

If Hypovolaemic then 0.9% Saline

If Euvolaemic/SIADH then fluid restrict +/- Demeclocycline

227
Q

Hypernatraemia causes

A

Dehydration, GI loss, Urinary loss, Hyperaldosteronism, Diabetes insipidus

228
Q

Treatment of hypernatraemia

A

Isotonic 0.9% saline

229
Q

Causes of hyperkalaemia

1) Renal
2) Extracellular shift

A

Renal- AKI/CKD/Amiloride/Spiro/ACEi,/NSAIDS/Addison’s

Extracellular shift- DKA, Digoxin, Theophylline

230
Q

Hyperkalaemia ECG changes

A

Tall Tented T waves
Small P waves
Polonged PR
Wide QRS

231
Q

When do you treat hyperkalaemia

A

> 6 + ECG changes

>6.5

232
Q

In hyperkalaemia how do you…

1) Stabilise the cardiac membrane
2) Shift K+ into cells
3) Remove K+ from body

A

1) 10% 10mls IV Calcium gluconate every 10 min
2) 50mls 50% glcuose with 10 units soluble insulin +/- 5mg Sal back to back
3) 15g calcium resonium

233
Q

Hypokalaemia causes

A
Diuretics
Conn's 
D+V
Laxatives 
CUSHINGS 
ALKALOSIS 
Salbutamol/Ins/Glucose
234
Q

Causes of hypocalcaemia with
Low PTH
High PTH
Other

A

Low PTH- Iatrogenic, PT destruction, AI

High PTH- Vit D deficiency

Other- Pancreatitis, Bisphosphonates, Malignancy

235
Q

Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s sign?

A

Chvostek’s- Tap facial nerve to elicit muscle spasm

Trousseau’s- Inflating BP cuff elicits Carpopedal spasm

HYPOCALCAEMIA

236
Q

What is severe hypocalcaemia

A

<1.9

237
Q

Signs of hypocalcaemia

A

Tetant, Seizures, Carpopedal spasm, Inc QT, Paraesthesia

238
Q

3 key diseases to exclude with hypocalcaemia

A

Acute pancreatitis, CKD, Rhabdomyolysis

239
Q

When do you treat hypocalcaemia; what with?

A

Tetany/Seizures <1.9

Calcium gluconate slow IV

240
Q

Hypercalcaemia

A

Primary hyperPTH
Maligancy
Thiazides
Primary adrenal insufficiency

241
Q

Hypercalcaemia symptoms

A

BONE STONES MOANS GROANS

Pain, vomiting, polyuria, Polydipsia, weakness, constipation, Dec QT, Pancreatitis, Fatigue, Depression, cog impairment

242
Q

Hypercalcaemia + Inc Alk Phos could indicate pain

A

Bony mets

243
Q

Hypercalcaemia treatment

A

Fluids and bisphosphonates

244
Q

Key Q in paracetamol OD

A
Number of tablets
Dose
When and how long over 
Taken with anything else
Psych Hx
245
Q

Biochemistry seen in Paracetamol OD

A
Deranged LFTs ALT>1000
Acidaemia 
Inc INR
Inc creatinine ?Renal failure
Hypoglycaemia 
Tachycardia
246
Q

Risk factors for severe liver damage in paracetamol OD

A

> 150 mg/kg
12 g (24 tabs)
Inducers of P45O (CBZ, Pheny, Rif, Barbit)

247
Q
Treating Paracetamol OD...
<1 hour
<4 hours
<4-8 hours
>8 hours 
Staggered OD
A

<1 hour- Charcoal
<4 hours- Wait until 4 hours for paracetamol level
4-8 hours- Use level and if above line give NAC
>8 hours- Give NAC and review with curve
Staggered OD- Give NAC, Graph useless

248
Q

How is NAC given in Paracetamol OD

A

IV infusion in 5% glucose 3 consecutive doses/24 hours

150 mg/kg in 200ml glu over 1 hour
50mg/kg in 500ml glu/4 hrs
100mg/kg in 1L /16 hours
(1hr-> 4hr-> 16hr) 
Stop if INR <1.3 ir ALT<2X upper limit of normal
249
Q

Common side effect of NAC?

A

Anaphalactoid reaction therefore give antihistamine

250
Q

When would you admit a patient with acute alcohol withdrawal?

A
Safeguarding
Delirium Tremens (or Hx of this)
Seizures
<18yrs
AN over-activity
Wernicke's
251
Q

What is pabrinex?

A

Prophylactic treatment of thiamine deficiency

252
Q

Opiate OD causes what result on an ABG

A

Respiratory acidosis

253
Q

Treatment of Opiate OD

A

Naloxone
400mcg
short half life so may need to repeat

254
Q

ABG result caused by TCA OD

A

metabolic acidosis

255
Q

ECG changes on TCA OD

A

Prolonged QT
Widening of QRS PR
Polymorphic VT Torsades de pontes
Broad complex tachy

256
Q

Treating TCA OD

A

IV Bicarb

IV lipid emulsion

257
Q

Amphetamine OD presentation

A
Hyperreflexia
Tachycardia
Dilated pupils
Delirium 
Agitation 
MDMA- Polydipsia, hyponatraemia, Convulsions
258
Q

Treating Amphetamine OD

A

Activated charcoal

Benzo to treat convulsions

259
Q

3 Diagnostic criteria for anaphylaxis

A

Sudden onset/Rapid progression

Life threatening airway/breathing/circulatory compromise

Skin and mucosal changes

260
Q

Key enzyme test for anaphylaxis Dx

A

Triptase

Once stable, 4 hour level and then 24 hour for baseline

261
Q

Most important drug to give first in anaphylaxis

A

Adrenaline
Reverses vasodilation and bronchoconstriction but more importantly ameliorates mast cell degranulation

Adrn-> Repeat -> Fluids -> Chlor + Hydro

262
Q

3 drugs to give in anaphylaxis

A

0.5mls 1:1000 Adrenaline IM; repeat every 5 mins

10mg Chlorpenamine IV

200mg Hydrocortisone IV

(Watch for biphasic/prolonged reaction therefore admit)

263
Q

4 key complications of AKI

A

Hyperkalaemia
Pulmonary oedema
Pericarditis
Metabolic acidosis

264
Q

Indications for RRT in AKI

A

Pulmonary oedema
Persistently high K+
PH <7.15
Ecephalopathy, OD, Pericarditis

265
Q

How do you use serum creatinine and urine output to detect AKI?

A

26umol rise in SC in 48 hours (or 50% in 7/7)

Urine output <0.5ml/kg/hr in 6 hrs (or 8 hrs in children)

266
Q

What are the 3 stages of AKI?

A

1) Creatinine inc 1.5x or UO<0.5 for 6 hrs
2) Creatinine inc 2-2.9 baseline or UO<0.5 for >12 hrs
3) Creatinine inc 3x baseline or UO <0.3 for > 12 hours or Anuria for > 12 hours

267
Q

What is STOP AKI

A

Sepsis- BUFALO

Toxins- DIAMOND HAL

Optimise BP

Prevent harm (Hyperkalaemia, Pul oedema, Acidosis, Pericarditis)

268
Q

Key symptoms distinguishing delirium from confusion

A

Delirium will have fluctuations in consciousness and a short attention span therefore they cannot concentrate
Thinking is also disordered
USE 4AT

269
Q

Key aetiologies of delirium

A

Systemic infection, intracranial infection, Drugs, Withdrawal, Metabolic, Hypoxia, Vascular, Head injury, Epilepsy, Nutritional

270
Q

Common causes of unconsciousness

A
Hypoglycaemia
Drug OD
Head injury
Stroke
SAH
Convulsion
Alcohol intoxication
271
Q

Key causes not to miss in a patient with collapse/syncope

A

PE
GI bleed
Ectopic pregnancy
Ruptured AAA

272
Q

The San Francisco Syncope rule says to admit a patient with syncope if they have…THINK CHESS

A

[CHESS= CHF, Haematocrit<30%, ECG, SOB, SBP<90]
CHF
Haematocrit <30% (Total red blood cells as % of total volume)
Abnormal ECG
SoB
Sys BP <90

273
Q

Indications for an MRI in a patient with back pain

A
>55
Systemically unwell
Hx trauma or malignancy
Infection
Fracture
Cauda equina
274
Q

Back pain red flags

A
<20 or >50
Hx malignancy
Night pain
Fever
Hx trauma
Systemically unwell
275
Q

Ottawa ankle rules of x-ray

A

Aim is to exclude a fracture
Cannot Wx bear for 4 steps post injury and NOW
Tenderness over posterior surface or malleoli
Lower threshold if extremes of age or intoxicated

Remember a crack or snap does not mean there was a fracture

276
Q

Advice for ankle injury

A

RICE
Crutches if cannot Wx bear
Encourage mobilisation
If X-ray not needed then come back in 5 days if you still cannot Wx bear

277
Q

Describe a Colle’s and Smith’s wrist fracture

A

Colle’s is FOSH ‘dinner fork’ with the radius displaced downwards and hand displaced dorsally

Smith’s is fall onto flexed wrist, Palmar angulation of distal bone fragment ‘Garden spade’

278
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture

A

Wrist fall on outstretched arm with elbow flexed

Distal radius fracture with disolaction of distal radioulnar joint

279
Q

What is a Barton’s fracture

A

Dislocation of the radial-carpal joint

280
Q

Important X-ray advice for fractures

A

Always get 2 views!

281
Q

What causes an acromioclavicular dislocation

A

Direct blow to top of the shoulder in young athletes
Adduction= pain
Tender over AC joint

282
Q

Most common form of glenohumeral dislocation

A

Anterior

Look for military badge numbness

283
Q

What is ‘light bulb’ sign on an X-ray

A

Loss of normal half moon overlap (Humerus and scapula)
Suggests posterior dislocation
LOOK FOR LOSS OF EXT.Rotation

284
Q

Sign of a fractured neck of femur

A

Shortened leg and externally rotated

285
Q

In a ?Hip fracture when are you most concerned about infringement on blood supply?

A

Score 3-4 on Garden system
Complete fracture + Either partially displaced or bony disruption
(2= Complete + non displaced)
(1= Incomplete)

286
Q

How do you confirm a Dx of urinary retention

A

USS of bladder

>300cc

287
Q

Classic presentation of testicular torsion

A
Sudden severe pain radiating to lower abdomen 
Vomiting 
Red, tender and swollen 
Upwards retraction 
No cremasteric reflex 
Pain NOT eased by elevation
288
Q

Causes of airway obstruction

A
CNS depression
Foreign body
Trauma 
Swelling 
Laryngospasm/Bronchospasm 
Blocked tracheostomy
289
Q

Causes of breathing problems

A

CNS depression
Muscle weakness
Disorders of lung function
PE, ARDS, Oedema

290
Q

Causes of circulatory problems

A

Primary cardiac- MI, Arrhythmia, Tamponade, HF, Myocarditis, HOCM

Secondary cardiac- Asphyxia, Tension Pneumo, Blood loss, Hypoxia, Hypothermia, Septic shock, Hyperthermia, Rhabdomyolysis

291
Q

Trauma triad of death

A

Coagulopathy
Metabolic acidosis
Hypothermia

292
Q

What injury severity score indicates major trauma

A

> 15

293
Q

Sign of an obstructed airway

A

Quiet

No movement

294
Q

Injuries causing Airway compromise

ATOMFC

A
Airway obstruction
Tension pneumothorax 
Open pneumothorax (defect 1/3rd diameter of trachea)
Massive haemothorax (>1500mls)
Flail chest
Cardiac tamponade
295
Q

Assessing circulation/End organ perfusion with HEP B

A

Hands- Temp, sweating, CRT
End organ perfusion- UO, Conscious level
Pulse- Rate quality, regular
BP- Hypotension?

296
Q

What does on the floor and 4 more refer to?

A

Blood loss…

External wound

Chest cavity
Abd.Cavity
Pelvic cavity
Long bone fracture

297
Q

What are the 4 types of shock

A

Hypovolaemic/Haemorrhagic
Obstructive (Tamponade)
Cardiogenic
Distributive (Sepsis, Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic)

298
Q

Define Hypotension

A

> 40 decrease in baseline MAP
SYS<90
MAP<60

299
Q

Eye opening in GCS (4)

A

4- Spontaneous
3- To speech
2- To pain
1- None

300
Q

Verbal response in GCS (5)

A
5- Orientated 
4- Confused 
3- Inappropriate words
2- Sounds 
1- None
301
Q

Motor response in GCS (6)

A
6- Obeys commands
5- Localises to pain
4- Withdraws from pain
3- Abn. Flexion
2- Abn.Extension
1- None
302
Q

What GCS scores is minor, moderate and severe

A

Minor 13-15
Moderate 9-12
Severe 3-8
(<8 always intubate)

303
Q

What are the Canadian C-Spine rules?

A

Trauma criteria for whether someone needs imaging

If they meet any of the low risk factors they do not need imaging

304
Q

What low risk factors are considered in the Canadian C-spine rules?

A
Comfortable sitting
Ambulatory 
Rear-end motor collision 
Delayed onset neck pain 
No midline cervical spine tenderness
305
Q

High risk criteria for a ?C-spine injury

A

> 65 Years
Dangerous mechanism (Fall>1m, High speed collision, horse riding injury etc)
Paraesthesia in extremities

306
Q

Signs of a trauma induced spinal injury

A
Diaphramatic breathing 
Neurogenic shock
Priapsim 
Responds only to pain above clavicles
Fixed position of upper limb 
Flacid areflexia
LoS/Function
Tender/Swelling on leg roll
307
Q

When is a trauma induced spinal injury unlikely? When do you decide whether there is a spinal injury?

A

No Neuro deficit + No pain along spine

1 week post-injury

308
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie doctrine?

A

Compensatory mechanisms maintain normal ICP for change in volume <100-120ml
After this ICP inc and you can get coning

309
Q

Shape of a subdural haematoma?

What vessel system is likely involved?

A

Crescent moon shaped

Venous

310
Q

Shape of a extradural haematoma?

What vessel system is likely involved?

A

Lemon shaped/Lens shaped

Arterial

311
Q

Key principles in preventing secondary brain injury

A
Prevent hypoxia and hypercapnia 
Maintain BP
Look for decompensation 
Prevent hypoglycaemia 
CT early
Senior input
312
Q

Venous saturation and pressure targets in Sepsis

A

CVP= >8mmhg

SVO2>70%

313
Q

In septic shock (or lactate >4) what is it important to do within 6 hours (think veins)?

A

CVP and central venous oxygenation

314
Q

Rule of 15% in collapse

A
PE 
Aortic dissection 
ACS
Ectopic 
Ruptured AAA
SAH
315
Q

What 4 key themes must be explored in collapse Hx?

A

HEAD- Hypoxia, Hypoglyc, Epilepsy
HEART- IHD, Emboli (AF?), Arrhythmia, AS
VESSELS- Vasovagal, situaitonal, Ectopic
DRUGS- Anti-HTN, Beta-blockers

316
Q

What is the OESIL RISK score?

A

Assesses risk of cardiac death post-syncope/collapse

>65, Hx CVD, No prodrome, Abn ECG

317
Q

What are the 6 parameters of a NEWS SCORE

A
RR
02 sats
Temp
Sys BP
HR
Consciousness
318
Q

Explain how different NEWS Scores impact management

A

0= Min 12 hour obs
1-4= Min 4-6 hourly obs, Assess by Reg.Nurse
>5 or 3 in one parameter= Min 1 hour obs, inform Med team, clinical assessment
>7= Vital sign monitoring continuously, assessed by team with critical care competencies