Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 3 > Acute abdomen > Flashcards

Acute abdomen Flashcards

Acute abdo

1
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

Inflammation of the appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the typical presentation of appendicitis?

A

Peri-umbilical pain that moves to the RIF (peritonitis)
Acute onset
5-40 yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the aetiology of appendicitis?

A

Gut organisms invade the appendix after luminal obstruction

Leads to oedema, ischaemic necrosis, and perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the signs of appendicitis?

A 
Epigastric pain (early)
RIF pain (late)
Peritonitis
Rovsing's sign
Cope's psoas sign
Cope's obturator sign
Rebound tenderness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs of peritonitis?

A

Keeps very still
Abdo pain upon movement
Rigid abdomen
Rebound tenderness- more pain on lifting up than pushing down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Pain in RIF upon palpation of LIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Cope’s psoas sign?

A

Pain upon extending the hip

seen only in retrocaecal appendices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Cope’s (obturator) sign?

A

Pain on passive flexion and internal rotation of the hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the investigations for appendicitis?

A

Can be a clinical diagnosis

  • USS – first line (especially transvaginal) if the differential includes gynaecological pathology
  • CT- sensitive + specific, exclude other Ddx
  • Bloods- leukocytosis, CRP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the scoring system for appendicitis?

A

ALVARADO SCORE for acute appendicitis

Looks at obs, pain and bloods

  • discharge 1-4
  • observe 5-6
  • surgery 7-10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the management for appendicitis?

A

Appendectomy
Abx: Metronidazole and Cefotaxime

If appendiceal mass, antibiotic therapy is favoured, with an interval appendectomy 6-8 weeks later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the complications of appendicitis?

A

Perforation- more common with feacolith involvement (children)
Appendix mass- inflamed appendix becomes wrapped in omentum and forms a mass (wait to die down pre-surgery)
Appendix abscess- infected appendix walls off and forms an abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A

Diverticulosis associated with complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

Presence of diverticulae outpouchings of the colonic mucosa and submucosa throughout the large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Acute inflammation and infection of a diverticulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the classification of diverticular disease?

A 
Hinchey classification
Ia: phlegmon
Ib/II: localised abscess
III: perforation with purulent peritonitis
IV: faecal peritonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the symptoms of diverticular disease?

A 
Bloody stool
LIF pain +/- bloating
Fever
N+V, anorexia
Urinary symptoms- if there is a bladder fistula 
Peritonism- lying very still
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the signs of diverticular disease?

A

LIF tenderness +/- bloating
Guarding, rigidity + rebound tenderness (peritonism)
Tachycardia, low grade pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the investigations for acute diverticulitis? What musn’t you do?

A
  • CT abdomen
  • erect CXR (?perforation- pneumoperitoneum)
  • G+S/cross-match - if suspect surgery required
  • bloods (FBC, CRP, clotting)

NEVER do barium enema in acute presentation- increased risk of perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is are the 2 treatment options for an acute presentation of diverticular disease? (diverticulitis)

A

MILD = IV antibiotics + fluids + bowel rest

SEVERE (recurrent attacks/complications) = surgery
= Hartmann’s procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the treatment for a chronic presentation of diverticular disease?
(diverticulosis)

A

Soluble high-fibre diet
Anti-inflammatories eg. mesalazine
Surgery (if recurrent attack/complications)
-Primary anastamosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Hartmann’s procedure?

A

Resection of the diseased bowel and an end-colostomy formation, with an anorectal stump.
When primary anastamoses are not possible ( inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a primary anastamosis? When is it contraindicated?

A

Resection of the diseased bowel and anastamoses of the two resected ends

To protect the anastomosis and allow it to heal, adefunctioning(loop) ileostomymay be used to divert bowel contents away from the primary anastomosis

contraindicated in acute infection/inflammation- oedema in bowel –> anastamoses will leak when inflammation subsides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the complications of diverticular disease?

A 
Diverticulitis (high recurrence rate)
Faecal peritonitis
Fistulas
Peri-colic abscess (faecolith)
Colonic obstruction
Perforation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the definition of a hernia?

A

a condition in which part of an organ is displaced and protrudes through the wall of the cavity containing it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the symptoms of a hernia?

A

Groin lump
Groin pain
Vomiting
Scrotal swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a strangulated hernia?

A

An ischaemic hernia due to a constriction around the vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

RF for hernias

A

male sex
old age
smoking
family history
increasing intra-abdominal pressure: obesity, chronic cough, heavy lifting, constipation
connective tissue disorders (Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which hernia is more often strangulated, hence requiring surgery?

A

Femoral hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the signs of a hernia?

A

Appears/swells on coughing
Reducible via supination/pressure
STRANGULATED HERNIA: tender, red, colicky, abdo pain, distension, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

LATERAL: Inferior epigastric vessels
INFERIOR: Inguinal ligament
MEDIAL: Lateral border of rectus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the differences between direct and indirect inguinal hernias?

A

Direct:

  • medial to the IE vessels
  • enters through Hesselbach’s triangle (weakness in abdominal wall)

Indirect:

  • lateral to the IE vessels
  • passes through the inguinal canal due to a failure of embryonic closure of the processus vaginalis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can you clinically differentiate between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?

A
  1. Reduce the hernia
  2. Place a finger over the deep inguinal ring (just above midpoint of inguinal ligament)
  3. Ask patient to cough and if the hernia re-appears, it cannot be an indirect hernia (must be direct)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the investigations for a hernia?

A

Mostly a clinical diagnosis

Can do USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the management for a femoral hernia?

A

Surgical repair- mesh

femoral = emergency, inguinal = elective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the management for an inguinal hernia?

A

Reassurance

Elective surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas, can be both acute or chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the symptoms of acute pancreatitis? (give on differential)

A 
Epigastric pain
Radiating to the back
Relieved on sitting forwards
Pain worst on movement
(DDx = AAA- except no hypovolaemic signs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the causes of acute pancreatitis?

GET SMASHED

A 
Gallstones- most common
Ethanol- most common
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps/Malignancy
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hyperlipidaemia/calcaemia/parathyroidism
ERCP
Drugs eg. thiazides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the signs of acute pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric tenderness
Fever
Shock
Tachycardia/tachypnoea
Reduced bowel sounds (peritonitis, ileus)
Cullen’s sign + grey-Turner’s sign (due to intra-abdominal bleeding from pancreatic inflammation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Umbilical bruising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s sign?

A

Flank bruising (have to turn to see it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Fox’s sign?

A

Bruising over the inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the investigations for acute pancreatitis?

A

Bloods- amylase, lipase, FBC, X-match
USS- aetiology- gallstones
Erect CXR/AXR- ?pleural effusion, perforations
CT- exclude other causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the scoring system for pancreatitis?

A

Modified Glasgow Score

46
Q

What does PANCREAS stand for in the Modified Glasgow Score and what is the minimum score for a severe rating?

A 
PaO2: <7.9kPa
Age: >55
Neutrophils: >15x10^9/L
Calcium: <2mmol/L
Renal function: >16mmol/L
Enzymes: LDH >600U/L; AST >200U/L
Albumin: <32g/L
Sugar: >10mmol

Severe: >3

47
Q

Management of acute pancreatitis

A

MEDICAL:
Supportive: Fluid balance, catheter and NG tube, analgesia, glucose control
enzyme supplementation
diabetes medications

SURGERY:
ERCP for gallstones
Catheter drain/necrosectomy

48
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic pancreatitis?

A 
Recurrent post-prandial epigastric pain
Relieved on sitting forwards
T2DM
WL, bloating, steatorrhoea
note: symptoms may be acute on chronic
49
Q

What are the signs of chronic pancreatitis?

A 
Epigastric tenderness
Cullen's sign
Grey-Turner's sign
Fox's sign
Signs of complications
50
Q

What are the investigations for chronic pancreatitis?

A

1st line- CT abdo- look for pancreatic calcification (pathoneumonic)
AXR- pancreatic calcification (less sensitive)
Faecal elastase (raised- normal in acute)
Serum amylase will be NORMAL

51
Q

What is the management of chronic pancreatitis?

A

As for acute (supportive, analgesia)
May be more dependent on enzyme supplementation _ diabetes medications
ERCP if gallstone aetiology

52
Q

What are the complications for chronic pancreatitis?

A 
Pseudocysts
Duodenal obstruction
Pancreatic ascites
Pancreatic necrosis- due to autodigestionof pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes
Systemic – diabetes, steatorrhea
53
Q

What are the symptoms of intestinal obstruction?

A

Diffuse pain
Constipation
Vomiting (SBO)
Abdominal distension

54
Q

What are the risks for intestinal obstruction?

A

SBO

  • Adhesions from prior operations (most common cause in western world)
  • Malignancy
  • Hernia- strangulated/incarcerated

LBO

  • Colorectal malignancies
  • Sigmoid/caecal volvulus
  • Paralytic Ileus
  • Postoperative ileus
55
Q

What are the signs for intestinal obstruction?

A

Abdominal distension
Pyrexia/sweating (potential perforation/infarction)
High pitched, tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation
OR absent bowel sounds

56
Q

What are the investigations for an intestinal obstruction?

A
  1. AXR- ?volvulus, ?malignancy
  2. CT to confirm
  3. Bloods- FBc, U+E, X-match
57
Q

what is the rule for normal bowel sizes?

A

3, 6, 9
3cm- small bowel
6cm- large bowel
9cm- caecum

58
Q

What is the management for an intestinal obstruction?

A

Drip and suck (IV drip and NG tube- not a feeding tube, Rile’s tube is stiffer)
Rigid sigmoidoscope decompression
(sigmoid volvulus)
Conservative if volvulus decompresses
Laparotomy (caecal volvulus, other SBO/LBO)

59
Q

What is intestinal ischaemia?

A

Impaired bloodflow to the intestine, resulting in ischaemia of the bowel wall

60
Q

What are the symptoms of acute intestinal ischaemia?

A

Sudden onset diffuse pain
N+V
diarrhoea

61
Q

What are the risk factors of acute intestinal ischaemia?

A

Old age
Cardiovascular disease

OCCLUSIVE

  • AF- most common- thromboemboli
  • Thrombus from atherosclerosis
  • Cocaine use
  • Smoking

NON-OCCLUSIVE

  • Trauma causing hypotensive state -eg. car accidents
  • Mesentery take between 20-25% of CO –> very prone to ischaemia with hypovolaemia
62
Q

What are the signs of acute intestinal ischaemia?

A

Can be NORMAL
Diffuse abdo pain
Shock signs

63
Q

What are the investigations for acute intestinal ischaemia?

A

AXR- perforation, megacolon, Rigler sign, dilation
ABG- lactic acidosis
Angiography- use dye to show blockages
Colonoscopy- ischaemic bowel + rule out other pathology
ECG- look for MI/AF

64
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic intestinal ischaemia?

A

Intermittent gut claudication
Post-prandial pain
PR bleed
Weight loss - due to malabsorption

65
Q

What are the risk factors of chronic intestinal ischaemia?

A

Old age
Cardiovascular disease
Heart failure

66
Q

What are the signs of acute intestinal ischaemia?

A

Can be normal

PR bleed on DRE

67
Q

What are the investigations for chronic intestinal ischaemia?

A 
1st AXR, 2nd CT abdo (perforation, megacolon, dilated)
ABG
Angiography
ECG
colonoscopy
(same as acute really)
68
Q

A nervous 16-year-old college student attends the local A&E department with her boyfriend, complaining of an episode of sudden onset right-sided pain in her abdomen. Physical examination of the patient is unremarkable except from a small scar located near the inguinal ligament. What is the most appropriate first line investigation in this case?

A. USS of the abdomen
B. 𝞫-hCG test
C. Full blood count
D. CT scan of the abdomen
E. No investigations, immediate surgery
A

B. 𝞫-hCG test

Scar indicates likely appendectomy Hx
Risk of pregnancy

1st line investigation in female with acute abdo is pregnancy test

69
Q

A 26-year-old professional rugby player presents to the A&E department with abdominal pain in the umbilical area. On initial inspection, the gentleman is feverish with a temperature of 38C and a BP of 115/90. The admitting doctor suspects a diagnosis of appendicitis from the history and performs an abdominal physical examination and passively extends the gentleman’s right hip which elicits pain. Which eponymous sign of appendicitis is being demonstrated here and what does it represent?

A. Cope’s sign, and a retrocaecal appendix
B. Psoas sign, and a retrocaecal appendix
C. Psoas sign, and an appendix located next to obturator externus
D. Rovsing’s sign, and a retrocaecal appendix
E. Rovsing’s sign, and an appendix located next to obturator externus

A

B. Psoas sign, and a retrocaecal appendix

70
Q

A feverish 56-year-old woman attends her GP complaining of a sudden appearance of bloody stools. She adds that she has experienced a few episodes of bloody stools before but did not seek medical attention and apart from a fever, she has had no other constitutional symptoms. The GP notes that the patient’s diet is particularly low in fibre and on physical examination, tenderness is found on pressure to the LIF. A DRE shows fresh blood upon removal of a gloved finger. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Angiodysplasia
B. Diverticulosis
C. Diverticulitis
D. Mallory-Weiss tear
E. Gastroenteritis
A

C. Diverticulitis

71
Q

A feverish 65-year-old is brought to the local A&E department by her daughter. She complains about nausea, LIF pain and vomiting. The attending doctor takes a full history and performs an abdominal examination and subsequently makes a diagnosis of acute diverticulitis with some associated signs of peritonism. A erect AXR is taken which shows some air under the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

A. Hartmann’s procedure
B. Primary anastomosis
C. Colectomy and end-ileostomy formation
D. Delorme’s procedure 
E. Whipple’s procedure
A

A. Hartmann’s procedure

in acute, cannot do a primary anastamoses

C is an alternative but this would be overkill to remove entire colon

Whipple is for pancreatic cancer

72
Q

A 26-year-old bodybuilder attends the local day-surgical clinic upon referral from his GP due to a groin lump. The general surgical registrar suspects a hernia and so performs a simple test to ascertain the type of hernia to determine the most appropriate management. The doctor reduces the hernia and then places their finger over the deep inguinal ring. The patient is asked to cough and the hernia does not reappear. What is the most likely type of hernia?

A. Femoral hernia
B. Direct inguinal hernia
C. Indirect inguinal hernia
D. Spigelian hernia
E. Hiatus hernia
A

C. Indirect inguinal hernia

placing finger over deep inguinal ring obstructs channel.

73
Q

Which of the following may be raised in chronic pancreatitis?

A. Amylase
B. Calcium
C. Faecal elastase
D. Albumin
E. Haematocrit
A

C. Faecal elastase

74
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of acute pancreatitis?

A. Mumps
B. Hypocalcaemia
C. Thiazide drugs
D. Trinidad scorpion bite
E. Steroids
A

B. Hypocalcaemia

75
Q

An overweight 65-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with discomfort in her right groin. On examination, the suggestion of a reducible groin lump is noted. She is routinely referred to the surgical outpatient clinic with a possible diagnosis of inguinal hernia. However, two weeks later and before her surgical appointment, she again visits her general practitioner, this time with vomiting, diarrhoea, and colicky abdominal pain. What is the next most appropriate management step?

A. Administer antibiotics
B. Give IV fluids
C. Insert an NG tube
D. Give IV fluids and insert an NG tube
E. Administer an enema
A

D. Give IV fluids and insert an NG tube

76
Q

A 70-year-old gentleman presents to the A&E department with sudden-onset severe diffuse abdominal pain. Observations are taken in the ambulance which show an irregularly irregular pulse rate of 130 and a blood pressure of 76/60mmHg. An abdominal X-ray is performed as soon as possible which shows the Rigler sign and the physician diagnoses an acute form of mesenteric ischaemia with perforation. What is the most likely cause for the acute onset of the mesenteric ischaemia?

A. Atherosclerotic disease
B. Embolism
C. Thrombosis
D. Polycythaemia vera
E. Idiopathic
A

B. Embolism

77
Q

Name the incisions used in appendectomy

A

McBurney’s/gridiron: oblique incision made two thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine
Lanz: transverse incision across McBurney’s point (better scar healing)

78
Q

Diverticulitis RF

A 
50-70yo 
Asymptomatic life
Low dietary fibre
Smoker
NSAIDs
79
Q

Investigations for chronic diverticulosis

A
  1. barium enema

2. +/- flexible sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy

80
Q

Indications for loop ileostomy?

A

Divert bowel contents way from distal bowel anastamoses

allows bowel to rest + heal

eg after cancer/diverticulae resection

81
Q

Explain the aeitiology of diverticulitis

A

A low fibre diet can lead to loss of stool bulk, consequently high pressures are required to expel the stool, leading to herniations through the muscularis at weak points
Pathogenesis: most common in sigmoid colon; can be obstructed with stool, leading to bacterial overgrowth, injury and diverticulitis

82
Q

Urinary complication + signs of diverticulitis

A

Diverticular fistulation into the bladder:
pneumaturia
faecaluria
recurrent UTIs

83
Q

Define hiatus hernia

A

protrusion of intra-abdominal contents through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

84
Q

Define Spigelian hernia

A

hernia occurs on the linea semilunaris of the abdomen

85
Q

Most common type of hernia

A

inguinal

86
Q

which hernia is more common in females?

A

femoral

87
Q

which hernia is more commonly strangulated?

A

femoral- therefore surgery recommended

88
Q

When is a hernia classified as strangulated?

A

the compression around the hernia prevents blood flow into the hernial contents causing pain + ischaemia to the tissues

89
Q

define incarcerated hernia

A

the hernia is compressed by the defect causing it to be irreducible (i.e. unable to be pushed back into its original position)

90
Q

define obstructed hernia

A

refers mainly to hernias containing bowel
contents of the hernia are compressed to the extent the the bowel lumen is no longer patent
causes bowel obstruction

91
Q

How to we discern between femoral and inguinal hernias?

A 
FEMORAL = lateral & inferior to pubic tubercle
INGUINAL = superior & medial to public tubercle
92
Q

contents of femoral versus inguinal hernia

A 
FEMORAL = omentum
INGUINAL = bowel
93
Q

2 enzymes tested for in acute pancreatitis

A

serum amylase- >3x upper limit normal (normal in chronic)

serum lipase - more sensitive/specific

94
Q

Which electrolyte/mineral drops in acute pancreatitis and why?

A

serum calcium drops in acute pancreatitis due the sequestering of free Ca2+ by free fatty acids

95
Q

What 2 things does a low calcium in pancreatitis tell us?

A

very low Ca2+ has a worst prognosis

normal Ca2+ supports an aetiology of hypercalcaemia causing the pancreatitis

96
Q

How may the history of chronic pancreatitis be different to that of acute?

A 
chronic = 70% alcoholic 
acute = more likely gallstones

Longer symptom history, recurrent episodes

97
Q

Prognosis chronic + acute pancreatitis

A

Chronic = reduces life expectancy by 10-20 years

Acute =
20% run severe course with 70% mortality
80% run milder with 5% mortality

98
Q

What might you see on AXR in intestinal obstruction?

A

Rigler’s sign- indicated pneumoperitoneum

Volvulus- caecal/sigmoid (folding of abdomen)

99
Q

How do you differentiate between large and small bowel on AXR?

A 
SBO = valvulae conniventes (mucosal folds full width of bowel). CENTRAL
LBO = haustra (pouches protruding partway across lumen). PERIPHERAL
100
Q

Comma sign indicates what?

A

caecal volvulus

101
Q

coffee bean sign indicates what?

A

sigmoid volvulus

102
Q

Rigler’s sign indicates what?

A

air both sides of the bowel wall (pneumoperitoneum) –> perforation

103
Q

Prognosis SBO

A

Mortality at 25% with delayed surgery >36 hours; drops to 8% at <36 hours

104
Q

Name the terms given to small versus large bowel ischaemia

A

Small bowel = mesenteric ischaemia

Large bowel = ischaemic colitis

105
Q

Which 3 blood vessels supply the bowels?

A 
Coeliac trunk (oesophagus, stomach and duodenum)
SMA: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, large colon up to splenic flexure
IMA: descending colon to rectum
106
Q 
Differentiate between mesenteric ischaemia and ischaemic colitis in terms of :
causes
symptoms
management
prognosis
A 
MESENTERIC ISCHAEMIA
more commonly occlusive cause (thromboembolic)
acute, severe onset
surgical emergency (open laparotomy)
^ mortality

ISCHAEMIC COLITIS
more commonly non-occlusive cause (hypoperfusion, hypercoagulable states)
transient claudication (eg post prandial)
conservative management- bowel rest, fluids
good prognosis- majority recover

107
Q

What spinal levels are the IMA and SMA at?

A

SMA- L1 (duodenum –> splenic flexure)

IMA- L3 (everything else)

108
Q

Which part of the bowel are most vulnerable to ischaemia due to hypoperfusion?

A

SPLENIC FLEXURE(Griffith’s point)
marginal artery of Drummond is occasionally tenuous here and is absent in 5% people
(means small area has no vasa recta)

RIGHT COLON
supplied by marginal artery of Drummond (underdeveloped in 50% population)

RECTOSIGMOID JUNCTION
Sudek’s point - most distal connection to collaterals

109
Q

Management of mesenteric ischaemia (occlusive vs non-occlusive)

A

OCCLUSIVE, NO GANGRENE
thrombectomy, thrombolysis

NON-OCCLUSIVE, NO GANGRENE
fluid resuscitation- they have hypoperfusion causing the ischaemia

GANGRENE- laparotomy. Bowel is dead.

110
Q

Management of ischaemic colitis

A

supportive (mainly medical, unlike mesenteric ischaemia)…

IV fluids
drip and suck (if ileus)
If gangrene- laparotomy

Year 3 (38 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions