Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MRCP High Yield > Active Recall > Flashcards

Active Recall Flashcards

1
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

Anti-CCP [70-80%]
Rheumatoid Factor [Low specificity]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Auto-Antibodies [6]
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

A

Anti-dsDNA [Renal involvement]
Anti-Smith [20%]
Anti-Histone [Drug-induced SLE]
Anti-Nuclear (ANA) [Low specificity]
Anti-Ro [Neonatal heart block]
Anti-U1-RNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Sjogren’s Syndrome

A

Anti-Ro (Anti-SSA)
Anti-La (Anti-SSB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD)

A

Anti-U1-RNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Auto-Antibodies [6]
Systemic Sclerosis (CREST Syndrome)

A

Anti-Scl-70 [Worse prognosis]
Anti-Topoisomerase
Anti-Centromere [Limited cutaneous]
Anti-RNA Polymerase III [Diffuse cutaneous]
Anti-Fibrillin [Fibrosis, myositis]
Anti-Nuclear (ANA) [Low specificity]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Dermatomyositis

A

Anti-Jo1
Anti-Mi-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Wegener’s Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)

A

cANCA (Anti-PR3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Churg-Strauss Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)

A

pANCA (Anti-MPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)

A

Anti-VGCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Autoimmune Hepatitis

A

Anti-Smooth Muscle
Anti-LKM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)

A

Anti-Mitochondrial (AMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)

A

cANCA (Anti-PR3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Graves’ Disease

A

TRAb (Anti-TSHR)
Anti-TPO [But more common in Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Auto-Antibodies [3]
Coeliac Disease

A

Anti-EMA
Anti-TTG
Anti-Gliadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Goodpasture’s Syndrome

A

Anti-GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Pernicious Anaemia

A

Anti-Parietal Cell
Anti-Intrinsic Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Myasthenia Gravis

A

Anti-AChR
Anti-MUSK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Auto-Antibodies [4]
Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome (APS)

A

Anti-Cardiolipin
Anti-β2 Glycoproptein
Lupus Anticoagulant (LAC)
Anti-Phospholipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-DQ2, HLA-DQ8

A

Coeliac Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HLA Associations [4]
HLA-B27

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis
Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)
Seronegative Arthritis
Psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gene Mutation [2]
Haemochromatosis

A

HFE Gene
C282Y Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-DRW4

A

Felty Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-B51

A

Behçet’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-B*1502

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Gene Mutation [2]
Autosomal-Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

A

PKD-1 [ADPKD Type 1]
PKD-2 [ADPKD Type 2]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gene Mutation [3]
Alport Syndrome

A

COL4A3
COL4A4
COL4A5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Gene Mutation [2]
Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)

A

HNF-1 α [MODY3]
HNF-1 β [MODY5]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Prostate Cancer

A

PSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tumour Markers [3]
Testicular Cancer

A

β-HCG [Seminoma]
AFP [Non-seminoma]
LDH [Non-seminoma]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Hepatocellular Cancer

A

AFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Ovarian Cancer

A

CA-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Pancreatic Cancer

A

CA-19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Breast Cancer

A

CA-15-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Colorectal Cancer

A

CEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Statistics
Chi-Square Test

A

Compare binary outcomes

Example: Testing a new cardiac stent
Is there re-stenosis 1 year later?
Either “Yes” or “No”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Statistics
Paired T-Test

A

Used when a group has been measured twice (eg each individual has two repeated measures)
Assumes normal distribution

Example: Compares the BP of a group of patients before and after they take a new anti-HTN drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Statistics
Unpaired Student’s T-Test

A

Tests the hypothesis that there is no difference between the mean of two samples

Example: Comparing the mean bowel transit time in two groups of patients given different types of bowel prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Statistics
Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) Test

A

Tells you if the dependent variable changes according to the level of the independent variable.

Example: Your independent variable is social media use, and you assign groups to low, medium, and high levels of social media use to find out if there is a difference in hours of sleep per night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Statistics
Kruskal-Wallis Test

A

Used when there is one nominal variable and one measurement variable, but data is not normally distributed

Example: You want to find out how test anxiety affects actual test scores. The independent variable “test anxiety” has three levels: no anxiety, low-medium anxiety and high anxiety. The dependent variable is the exam score, rated from 0 to 100%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Statistics
Wilcoxon Rank-Sum Test
(aka Mann-Whitney U-Test)

A

Used when a group has been measured twice (eg each individual has two repeated measures), but data is NOT normally distributed

Essentially Paired T-Test but for ordinal data rather than continuous data

Example: Do salaries (continuous scale) differ based on educational level (ordinal, “high school” vs “university”)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Statistics
Pearson Correlation Coefficient

A

Looks for an association between two continuous variables

Example: Is there correlation between waist circumference and blood pressure?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Statistics
Spearman’s Rank Correlation Coefficient

A

Used to compare the statistical dependence of two variables by rank

Example: Looking at the correlation between IQ and number of hours spent playing computer games

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MEN1 Syndrome

A

“PPP”
Pituitary Adenoma
Parathyroid Hyperplasia
Pancreatic Tumours [60%: Gastrinomas]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MEN2A Syndrome

A

“MPP”
Medullary Thyroid Cancer
Parathyroid Hyperplasia
Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MEN2B Syndrome

A

“MMP”
Medullary Thyroid Cancer
Marfanoid Habitus
Phaeochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

CYP3A4 Inhibitors
“SICKFACES.COM GQ”

A

Sodium Valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol (Binge Drinking)
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
Sulfanamides

Chloramphenicol
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

Grapefruit Juice
Quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CYP3A4 Inducers
“SCRAP GPS”

A

Smoking
Carbamazpine
Rifampicin
Alcohol (Chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitones
Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Causes of HAGMA
“CAT MUDPILES”

A

Carbon Monoxide, Cyanide
Aspirin
Theophylline
Methanol
Urea
DKA / Alcohol Ketoacidosis
Propylene Glycol
Isoniazid, Iron, Ibuprofen
Lactic Acidosis
Ethylene Glycol
Salicylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Causes of NAGMA
“HARD UPS”

A

Hyperalimentation, HyperPTH, HCl Acid
Acetazolamide, Addison’s
RTA
Diarrhoea
Ureto-Sigmoid Fistula
Pancreatic Fistula
Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Associated Conditions [5]
TP53 Gene Mutation

A

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome
“BLOB”
- Breast Cancer
- Leukaemia
- Osteosarcoma
- Brain Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gene Mutation [2]
Breast Cancer

A

BRCA1
BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Associated Conditions [4]
Ras Gene Mutation

A

“BLOP”
Breast Cancer [KRas]
Lung Cancer [KRas]
Ovarian Cancer [KRas]
Pancreatic Cancer [Ras]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Associated Conditions [2]
RET Proto-Oncogene

A

MEN Syndromes
Hirschsprung’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gene Mutations [1]
Primary Polycythaemia

A

JAK2 Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Gene Mutations [2]
Cystic Fibrosis

A

Delta-F508 Mutation
Defective CFTR Gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
BRAF Mutation

A

Malignant Melaonoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
C-Myc Oncogene
t(8;14) Chromosome Translocation

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Gene Mutations [2]
Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)

A

MSH2 Mutation
MLH1 Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Gene Mutations [1]
Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

A

APC Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)

A

Anti-GAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HLA Associations [4]
HLA-DR3

A

Myasthenia Gravis
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC)
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

HLA Associations [3]
HLA-DR4

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune Thyroid Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CVP Waveform
A Wave

A

Atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

CVP Waveform
C Wave

A

Tricuspid bulging (IVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CVP Waveform
V Wave

A

Systolic filling of atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

CVP Waveform
X Descent

A

Atrial relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

CVP Waveform
Y Descent

A

Early ventricular filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Hypersensitivity Reaction Type I

A

Anaphylaxis
Hay Fever
Food & Drug Allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hypersensitivity Reaction Type II

A

Haemolytic Reactions

ABO Incompatibility
Haemolytic Disease of the Newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Hypersensitivity Reaction Type III

Mediator & 3 Examples

A

Mediated by immune complexes

Post-Streptococcal GN
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Type IV
Hypersensitivity Reaction

Mediator & 3 Examples

A

Delayed reaction mediated by cellular response (T-cell)

Contact Dermatitis
T1DM
Multiple Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
t(9;22) Philadelphia Chromosome Translocation (BCR-ABL)

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
t(15;17) Chromosome Translocation

A

Acute Promyelcytic Leukaemia (PML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
t(11;14) Chromosome Translocation

A

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Associated Conditions [3]
EBV Infection

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
H.Pylori Infection

A

Gastric Lymphoma (MALT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

PBF Findings [3]
Schistocystes (Fragmented RBCs)

A

MAHA
DIC, TTP, HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RBC Inclusions [1]
Howell-Jolly Bodies

A

Hyposplenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

RBC Inclusions [1]
Heinz Bodies

A

G6PD Deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

RBC Inclusions [3]
Pappenheimer Bodies

A

Thalassaemia
Sideroblastic Anaemia
Haemolytic Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

RBC Inclusions [4]
Basophilic Stippling

A

Lead Poisoning
Thalassaemia
Sickle Cell Anaemia
Myelodysplastic Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Autosomal Dominant Conditions
“HEAVY”

A

Huntington’s Disease
Ehler-Danlos Syndrome
Achondroplasia
von Willebrand’s Disease
PseudohypoparathYroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Autosomal Recessive Conditions
“SWATCH F”

A

Sickle Cell Anaemia
Wilson’s Disease
α1-AT Deficiency
Thalassaemia
Cystic Fibrosis
Haemochromatosis

Friedrich’s Ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

HIV Opportunistic Infections [5]
CD4 Count 200 - 500

A

Tuberculosis
Herpes Zoster
Oropharyngeal Candidiasis
Kaposi Sarcoma
Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

HIV Opportunistic Infections [3]
CD4 Count 100 - 200

A

PCP Pneumoina
Oesophageal Candidiasis
HIV-Related Dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

HIV Opportunistic Infections [5]
CD4 Count < 100

A

Cerebral Toxoplasmosis
Cryptococcal Meningitis
CMV Infection
Disseminated MAC Infection
John Cunningham Virus → PMFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Lung Upper Lobe Fibrosis
“SA CATS”

A

Sarcoidosis
ABPA
Coal Miner’s Pneumoconiosis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Tuberculosis
Silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Lung Lower Lobe Fibrosis
“RASH”

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis
Asbestosis
Scleroderma
Hamman-Fisch Syndrome (IPF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes [2]
Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)

A

SIADH
Cushing’s (Ectopic ACTH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes [1]
Squamous Cell Lung Cancer

A

PTHrP-Mediated Hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndromes [1]
Bronchial Carcinoid

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopaenia (HIT)

A

Anti-PF4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Immune Thrombocytopaenic Purpura (ITP)

A

Anti-Nuclear (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

HBV Panel

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration

A

Anti-Yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Gene Mutation [1]
Marfan’s Syndrome

A

FBN1 Gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Paraneoplastic Syndrome [1]
Gastric Adenocarcinoma

A

Acanthosis nigricans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Western Blot

A

Used to separate native proteins by 3D structure, or denatured proteins by polypeptide length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Eastern Blot

A

Used to characterize post-translational modifications to peptides and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Northern Blot

A

Used to characterize RNA structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Southern Blot

A

Used to evaluate DNA sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Autosomal Dominant Conditions
“DOMINANT”

A

Dystophica Myotonica
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Marfan’s Syndrome
Intermittent Porphyria
Noonan’s Syndrome
ADPKD
Neurofibromatosis
Tuberous Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Antibiotic Choice
Strep Pyogenes IE

A

IV Penicillin + Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Antibiotic Choice
Staphylococcal IE
(Non-MRSA)

A

IV Flucloxacillin + Gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Antibiotic Choice
MRSA IE

A

IV Linezolid

(Traditionally IV Vancomycin, but Linezolid has growing evidence as a superior option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Serum Caeruloplasmin

A

Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

HLD Drug Mechanisms
Evolocumab

A

PCSK9 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

HLD Drug Mechanisms
Fibrates

A

PPAR-α Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

HLD Drug Mechanisms
Ezetimibe

A

NPC1L1 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

HLD Drugs Mechanism
Statins

A

HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Acarbose

A

Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Gliptins

A

DPP4 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Glutides

A

GLP-1 Agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Glitazones

A

PPAR-γ Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Glifozins

A

SGLT2 Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Drug Side-Effects
Vincristine

A

Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Drug Side-Effects
Cyclophosphamide

A

Haemorrhagic Cystitis

Co-administration with Mesna reduces risk of this happening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Drug Side-Effects
Doxorubicin

A

Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Meningitis Pathogens
Adults
“E-NHS”

A

Enterovirus
Neisseria Meningitidis
Herpes Simplex Virus
Streptococcus Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Meningitis Pathogens
Elderly
“SGL”

A

Strep Pneumoniae
Gram-Negative Rods
Listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Myeloma

A

β2 Microglobulin [Used for monitoring progression]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Tumour Markers [1]
Medullary Thyroid Cancer

A

Calcitonin [Used for monitoring progression]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Headache Types & Treatment

Multiple unilateral episodes
Short duration (< 2 minutes)
Sensitive face eg triggered by brushing teeth or blow-drying hair

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

Acute Tx: Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Headache Types & Treatment

Retro-orbital pain
Tearing, eye redness
Long duration (up to 90 minutes)
Long “dormant” periods (months)
Multiple episodes when attack occurs (several times a day)

A

Cluster Headache

Acute Tx: O2, Sumitriptan
Prophylaxis: Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Classic Pneumonia Pathogens [1]
Related to HSV-1 (Cold sores)

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Classic Pneumonia Pathogens [2]
Cavitation

A

Staphylococcus [Occurs after Flu]
Klebsiella [Occurs in alcoholics and immunocompromised hosts]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Common Pneumonia Pathogens [1]
Related to epidemic outbreaks
Erythema multiforme
+ Treatment?

A

Mycoplasma

Tx: Macrolides eg Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Common Pneumonia Pathogens [1]
Preceded by ARI 1-2 weeks prior

A

Chlamydia Pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

DM Drug Mechanisms
Metformin

A

Indirect AMP Kinase Activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Auto-Antibodies [2]
Pemphigus Vulgaris

A

Anti-DSG1
Anti-DSG3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Faecal Elastase

A

Pancreatic Insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Classic Investigations [2]
Faecal Calprotectin

A

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)
Infective Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Faecal Fat

A

Pancreatic Insufficiency
(But Elastase is superior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Drug Side-Effects [2]
Mycophenolate

A

Tremor
Gum Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Drug Side-Effects [2]
Methotrexate

A

Pulmonary Fibrosis
Hepatic Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Drug Side-Effects [2]
Ciclosporin

A

Hirsutism
Gum Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Anti-Emetic Mechanism
Domperidone

A

D2/D3 Dopamine Receptor Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Anti-Emetic Mechanism
Betahistine

A

H3 Receptor Antagonist
(Also weak H1 Agonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Anti-Emetic Mechanism
Ondansetron

A

5HT3 Receptor Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Headache Types & Treatment

Female obese patient
Worse in morning and lying flat
Bilateral papilloedema
Elevated LP opening pressure

A

Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

Acute Tx: Acetazolamide
Prophylaxis: Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Carbon-13 Urea Breath Test

A

H.Pylori Clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Hydrogen Breath Test

A

Small Bowel Overgrowth Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Antibiotic Mechanisms
Quinolones

A

-floxacins
DNA Gyrase Inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Dog Bite Bacteria & Treatment

A

Pasteurella
1st Line: Augmentin
2nd Line: Doxycycline + Metronidazole (if allergic to Penicillins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Classic ECG Changes
Acute Pericarditis

A

ST depression in V1, aVR
Concave STE in other leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

α1-AT Deficiency Genotypes
Lung Involvement

A

II or ZZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

α1-AT Deficiency Genotypes
Liver Involvement

A

MZ or SZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

α1-AT Deficiency Genotypes
Generally Well

A

MM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Aortic Stenosis
Small Bowel Angiodysplasia
von Willebrand’s Disease

A

Heyde Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Stroke Features

Vertigo
Swallowing impairment
Ipsilateral cerebellar signs
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

PICA
(Lateral Medullary Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Vasculitis
Uveitis
Oro-Genital Ulcers

A

Behcet’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

In-Stent Thrombosis vs Stent Restenosis

A

In-Stent: Within 30 days
Restenosis: After 30 days

158
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Male phenotype
Tall height
Bilateral gynaecomastia
Sparse pubic hair
Small testes

A

Klinefelter Syndrome (XXY)

159
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Female phenotype
Bilateral undescended testes
Bilateral inguinal hernias as an infant

A

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome

160
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Unable to progress through puberty
Poor sense of smell

A

Kallman Syndrome
(Inherited form of Hypogonadotrophic Hypopituitarism)

161
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Abnormal facies
Short stature
Cardiac defects
Ribcage abnormalities
Risk of haemorrhage

A

Noonan Syndrome

162
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Female phenotype
Short stature
Bicuspid aortic valve

A

Tuner Syndrome

163
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Tall, thin
High arched palate
Valvulpathy - AR / PR / MVP
Upward lens dislocation

A

Marfan Syndrome
(FBN1 Defect)

164
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-B108

A

Graves’ Disease

165
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Optic neuritis
Loss of propioception and vibration sense
Upgoing plantars

A

Vit B12 deficiency

166
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Ophthalmoplegia
Short-term memory loss
Confabulation

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy (Thiamine deficiency)

167
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Rapidly-progressing lower limb weakness
Hyper-tonia
Hyper-reflexia
Perianal anaesthesia

A

Conus Medullaris Syndrome

168
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Gradually-worsening LL weakness
Hypo-tonia
Hypo-reflexia
Saddle anaesthesia

A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

169
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Lower limb weakness
Hypo-tonia
Loss of pain and temperature sensation

A

Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome

170
Q

STI Treatment
Gonorrhoea

A

1st-Line: IM Ceftriaxone 1g ONCE
If allergy: PO Azithromycin 2g ONCE
If epididymo-orchitis: PO Doxycyline x 14 days
If generalized disease (eg joint involvement): IV Ceftriaxone

171
Q

STI Treatment
Chlamydia

A

Doxycyline

172
Q

Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Russian
Pharyngitis with grey-white pseudomembrane

A

Diphtheria

Tx: Azithromycin

173
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Middle-aged male
Chronic cough
Weight loss
Steatorrhoea
Arthritis

A

Whipple’s Disease

Key Feature: PAS+ Macrophages
Tx: Bactrim

174
Q

Spot Diagnosis

HIV+
Clusters of firm, flesh-coloured, umbilicated papules

A

Molluscum contagiosum virus infection

175
Q

Pharmacotherapy for Stress Incontinence [1]

A

Duloxetine

176
Q

Pharmacotherapy for Urge Incontinence [3]

A

Oxybutinin
Tolteridone
Mirabegnon

177
Q

Spot Diagnosis

HIV+, CD < 100
Progressive memory loss
Psychiatric disturbances

A

Progressive multifocial leukoencephalopathy (PMFL)
ie John Cunningham (JC) virus infection

178
Q

HLA Associations [5]
HLA-DR2

A

Goodpasture’s Syndrome
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Multiple Sclerosis
Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PBC)
Autoimmune Hepatitis

179
Q

HLA Associations [1]
HLA-B5701

A

Abacavir Hypersensitivity

180
Q

Drug Side-Effects
Bleomycin

A

Pneumonitis → Pulmonary Fibrosis

181
Q

Drug Side-Effects
Trastuzumab

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

182
Q

Food Poisoning Bacteria

Onset: 1-6 hours
Dairy foods
More vomiting than diarrhoea

A

Staphylococcus Aureus
Mechanism: Enterotoixin

183
Q

Food Poisoning Bacteria

Reheated rice
Chinese takeaway
Non-bloody diarrhoea
Profuse diarrhoea and/or vomiting

A

Bacillus Cereus

184
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

Onset: 6-12 hours
Both vomiting and diarrhoea
Bloody diarrhoea
Uncooked chicken

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

Tx: Quinolone or Cephalosporin

185
Q

Food Poisoning Bacteria

Onset: 12-48 hours
Profuse diarrhoea
No vomiting
NH outbreak

186
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

Onset: 6 - 12 hours
Both vomiting and diarrhoea
Bloody diarrhoea
Abdominal cramps

A

Salmonella Typhi

Tx: Quinolones

187
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

Onset: Slow, benign
Recent travel
Contaminated water
IBS-like symptoms

A

Giardiasis

1st-Line Tx: Tinidazole
2nd-Line: Metronidazole

188
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

1-3 week duration
Recent travel
Bloody mucoid diarrhoea
Lower abdominal pain
Liver abscess (Trophozoites)

A

Entamoeba Histolytica
(Amoebiasis)

Tx: Metronidazole

189
Q

Food Poisoning Bacteria

Onset: Acute
Watery non-bloody diarrhoea
Sometimes green stools
Abdominal cramps

A

Cryptosporidium

190
Q

Food Poisoning Bacteria

Onset: Acute
Watery non-bloody diarrhoea
Sometimes green stools
Abdominal cramps

A

Cryptosporidium

191
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Seizure
Cafe-au-lait spots
Fleshy nodules on trunk and arms
Eye: Lisch nodules

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1

192
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Brown Kaiser-Fleischer Rings

A

Wilson’s Disease
(Copper Deposits)

193
Q

Anti-Platelet Mechanisms

Dipyridamole

A

Adenosine Uptake Inhibitor

194
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Kaiser-Fleischer Rings

A

Wilson’s Disease
(Copper Deposits)

195
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Seizure
Cafe-au-lait spots
Nodules on trunk and arms
Eye: Cataracts

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 2

196
Q

Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

LMN signs
Ascending LL weakness
Recent gastroenteritis

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

Tx: IV Immunoglobulin

197
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Central weakness
Blurred vision
Speech and swallowing impairment
Food-borne illness

198
Q

Anti-Platelet Mechanisms

Heparin

A

Antithrombin-III Inhibitor

199
Q

Gene Mutations [1]

Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH)

200
Q

Encapsulated Organisms [3]

A

Neisseria Meningitidis
Strep Pneumoniae
Haemophilus Influenzae

201
Q

Stroke Features

Contralateral LL loss of power and sensation
Gait apraxia
Urinary incontinence

A

Anterior cerebral artery
(Mostly distal anterior, as proximal anterior will still have enough collaterals to compensate)

202
Q

Stroke Features

Hemiparesis of
- Contralateral lower half of face
- Contralateral UL and LL
Contralateral sensory loss
Ataxia
Dysphasia
Hemispatial neglect

A

Middle cerebral artery

203
Q

SLE Treatment
Predominantly skin and joint disease

A

Tx: Hydroxychloroquine

204
Q

SLE Treatment
Mild Lupus Nephritis

A

Mycophenolate Mofetil

205
Q

SLE Treatment
Life-threatening lupus (eg cerebral involvement, severe lupus nephritis)

A

Cyclophosphamide

206
Q

Bone Disorders

207
Q

Bone Disorders

208
Q

Bone Disorders

209
Q

Bone Disorders

210
Q

Bone Disorders

211
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

212
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

213
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

214
Q

Drug Side-Effects [1]
Docetaxel

A

Renal Tubular Toxicity

215
Q

RAI Drug Mechanisms
Tocilizumab

216
Q

RAI Drug Mechanisms
Rituximab

217
Q

RAI Drug Mechanisms
Infliximab

A

Anti-TNFα

218
Q

Drug Mechanisms
Baclofen

A

GABA-B Agonist

219
Q

Auto-Antibodies [1]
Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration (PCD)

A

Anti-Purkinje Cell

220
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Urine Copper Excretion

A

Wilson’s Disease

221
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
24hr Urinary Catecholamines & Metanephrines

A

Phaeochromocytoma

222
Q

Spot Diagnosis

BGIT
Yellow papules at neck
Retinal angioid streaks

A

Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum
“Plucked chicken skin”

223
Q

Spot Diagnosis

High-arched palate
Skin elasticity
Hypermobile joints

A

Ehler-Danlos Syndrome

Autosomial dominant
Collagen Type V α1 Mutation

224
Q

Spot Diagnosis

High-arched palate
Lens dislocation
Aortic and mitral valve disease
Arachnodactyly

A

Marfan’s Syndrome

Autosomal dominant
FBN1 gene mutation

225
Q

Vit K-Dependent Clotting Factors [6]

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X
Protein C and S

226
Q

Clotting Disorders
Factor V Leiden

A

Activated Protein C resistance

Protein C usually cleaves Factor V, so when there is resistance then Factor V will accumulate and lead to increased risk of clotting

Autosomal dominant

227
Q

Clotting Disorders
Haemophilia A

A

Lack of Factor VIII
Predisposed to bleeding, especially into joints (haemarthrosis)
X-linked recessive

228
Q

Drug Side-Effects [2]
Pyrazinamide

A

Joint pains [Most common]
Hepatitis

229
Q

Drug Side-Effects [1]
Ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis

230
Q

Drug Side-Effects [2]
Isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy [Most common, countered with Pyridoxine]
Hepatitis

231
Q

Drug Side-Effects [3]
Rifampicin

A

Orange body fluids
Thrombocytopaenia
CYP450 Inducer

232
Q

Morphine Clearance

A

Cleared by kidneys, therefore avoid in renal impairment

Fentanyl, Buprenoprhine are safe to use in CKD

233
Q

Asthma Drug Mechanisms
Ipratropium

A

Short-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist (SAMA)

234
Q

Asthma Drug Mechanisms
Tiotropium

A

Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist (LAMA)

235
Q

Asthma Drug Mechanisms
Salbutamol

A

Short-Acting β2-Agonist (SABA)

236
Q

Asthma Drug Mechanisms
Salmeterol

A

Long-Acting β2-Agonist (LABA)

237
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

Bloody diarhoea
Abdominal pain
Daycare centre outbreaks

A

Shigella

Tx: Azithromycin

238
Q

Clotting Disorders
Haemophilia B

A

Lack of Factor IX
X-linked recessive

239
Q

Classic Investigations
Alcoholic Liver Disease

A

AST:ALT Ratio >2:1

240
Q

Felty Syndrome
[4 Features]

A

Hypersplenism
Neutropaenia
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
HLA-DRW4 Association

241
Q

Number Needed To Treat (NNT) Equation

A

1 ÷ (Absolute Risk-Benefit)

eg if the new treatment has 3% fewer MACE events than the old t reatment, the NNT is 1 ÷ 0.03

242
Q

Stroke Activation Window

A

< 4.5 hours = Thrombolysis
4.5 - 6 hours = KIV Thrombolysis depending on cerebral blood flow imaging
> 6 hours = Aspirin 300mg

243
Q

Opioid Conversion
PO Codeine → PO Morphine

A

PO Codeine 100mg = PO Morphine 10mg

244
Q

STI Treatment
Syphilis

A

1st-Line: IM Penicillin 2.4 MU
If allergy: PO Azithromycin 2g ONCE

245
Q

STI Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Ulceration and skin destruction in genital region
No macular rash

A

Donovanosis
(Klebsiella granulomatis)

Tx: Macrolides or Quinolines x 3 weeks

246
Q

STI Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Unilateral inguinal or femoral lymphadenopathy
Signs of lymphatic obstruction

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

Tx: Azithromycin x 3 weeks

247
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Ataxia
Muscle rigidity
Tremor
Autonomic dysfunction
Poor response to Levodopa

A

Multisystem Atrophy (MSA)

248
Q

SBP Common Bacteria [3]

A

E.Coli [#1 Most Common]
Kleb Pneumoniae [#2]
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa [<10%, but will need Aminoglycoside cover]

249
Q

Opioid Conversion

PO Morphine → SC Morphine

A

Reduce by 50%
PO Morphine 160mg = SC Morphine 80mg

250
Q

Nephron Sites Of Action

251
Q

Nephron Sites Of Action

252
Q

Nephron Sites Of Action

253
Q

Nephron Sites Of Action

254
Q

X-Linked Recessive Conditions
“GRAB HDK”

A

G6PD Deficiency
Retintis Pigmentosa
Androgen Insentivity Syndrome
Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy

Haemophilia A & B
Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Kallman Syndrome

255
Q

X-Linked Dominant Conditions
“ARV”

A

Alport Syndrome
Rett Syndrome
Vit D-Resistant Rickets

256
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Multiple duodenal or proximal jejunal ulcers
MEN-1 conditions

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (Gastrinomas)

257
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Severe chronic watery diarrhoea
Flushing
Hypotension
Not infection-related

A

VIPoma (Pancreatic endocrine tumour)

258
Q

Antidote
Benzodiazepine Overdose

A

Flumazenil

259
Q

Antidote
Opiate Overdose

260
Q

Rash Diagnosis

Painful, erythematous, raised nodules on both shins

A

Erythema Nodosum

Associations: Sarcoidosis

261
Q

Rash Diagnosis

Yellowish-brown patches on shins, with prominant telangiectasia

A

Necobiosis Lipoidica

Associations: DM

262
Q

Rash Diagnosis

Erythematous nodule / pustule, growing progressively to become ulceration with adherent pus at the centre

A

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

Associations: IBD

263
Q

Antidote
Ethanol / Ethylene Glycol Overdose

A

Fomepizole

264
Q

Antidote
Tricycle Antidepressants (TCA) Overdose

A

Sodium Bicarbonate
(Not really an antidote, but proven to improve mortality)

265
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Gastric biopsy showing extensive lymphoid infiltration, with the formation of germinal centres within the lamina propria

A

Gastric MALToma, clasically from H.Pylori infection

266
Q

Classic Investigations
ADAMTS13

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

eg Shiga toxin-induced from E.Coli 0157 infection

267
Q

Rosacea Treatment

A

1st-Line: Topical Metronidazole
2nd-Line: Topical Brimodine [Good for flushing]
Severe Disease: PO Tetracycline or Doxycycline, PO Isotretinoin

268
Q

Opioid Conversion

PO Morphine PRN Dose Calculation

A

1/6 of total daily dose, usually Q2-4H

ie if total daily dose is 90mg, PRN dose should be 15mg Q2-4H

269
Q

Statistics
Tukey’s Range Test

A

Used to determine if the mean of different populations are statistically different

Example: Comparing baseline smoking rates of different ethnic groups

270
Q

Antidotes
Serotonin Syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

271
Q

Gene Mutations [1]
Focal Segmental Glomerulonephritis (FSGS)

A

APOL1 [West Africans]

272
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) Type I

A

Hypokalaemia, metabolic acidosis
Distal tubule fails to form acidic urine
Associated with autoimmune conditions

273
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) Type II

A

Hypokolaemia, metabolic acidosis
Proximal tubule fails to reabsorb bicarbonate
Associated with Fanconi Syndrome

274
Q

Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) Type IV

A

Hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis
Aldosterone resistance from intrinsic renal damage
Associated with drugs eg ACE/ARB

275
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hypotension
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia

A

Hypocortisolism

eg Adrenal Insufficiency such as Addison’s Disease

276
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Medial malleolus ulcer surrounded by haemosiderin and varicose eczema

A

Venous ulcer

277
Q

HLA Associations [2]
HLA-B52

A

Takayasu’s Arteritis
Ulcerative Colitis
(Only in Asian populations)

278
Q

Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) Pathophysiology

A

Renal tubule necrosis after a period of hypotension eg severe sepsis, myocardial infarction, acute blood loss

279
Q

Cat Scratch Fever
Bacteria & Treatment

A

Bartonella Henselae

Mild: Supportive treatment as mostly self-limiting illness

Severe: Azithromycin, Ciprofloxacin or Bactrim

280
Q

Associated Viruses [2]
Cervical Cancer

A

HPV-16
HPV-18

281
Q

Associated Viruses [1]
Cold Sores

282
Q

Associated Viruses [1]
Genital Herpes

283
Q

Associated Viruses [2]
Genital Warts

A

HPV-6
HPV-11

284
Q

Statistics
Fisher’s Exact Test

A

Used to analyze contigency tables

eg Within boys and girls, how many like Snickers and how many don’t?

285
Q

Spirometry

A

Obstructive Picture
+ Reduced DLCO = Emphysema
+ Normal DLCO = Asthma / COPD
Reversibility = Asthma rather than COPD

286
Q

Spirometry

A

Restrictive Picture
+ Reduced DLCO = Lung Parenchyma
+ Normal DLCO = Neuromuscular

287
Q

Joint XR Findings

Linear cartilage calcification
aka chondrocalcinosis

A

Pseudogout

288
Q

Joint XR Findings

Joint space narrowing
Osteophyte formation

A

Osteoarthritis

289
Q

Headache Types & Treatment

Unilateral headache
Preceding aurea eg nausea, change in sense of smell

A

Migraine

Acute Tx: Triptans
Prophylaxis: TCAs

290
Q

Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Japanese
Vasculitis of aortic branches eg coronary arteries, carotid arteries

A

Takayasu’s Arteritis
Associated with HLA-B52

Tx: High-dose corticosteroids

291
Q

LTOT Criteria for COPD [5]

A
  1. PaO2 < 7.3
  2. PaO2 < 8.0 + One of the below
    A. Secondary polycythaemia
    B. Peripheral oedema
    C. Pulmonary hypertension
292
Q

Food Poisoning Pathogen & Treatment

Undercooked pork
Subacute presentation
Mild non-bloody diarrhoea
Right iliac fossa pain

A

Yersinia Enterocolitica

Tx: Aminoglycosides

293
Q

Complement Deficiencies

C5 Deficiency [1]

A

Increased risk of gram-negative bacteriaal infection

294
Q

Complement Deficiencies

C2 Deficiency [2]

A

Increased risk of Haemophilus Influenzae infection

Increased risk of autoimmune conditions eg lupus

295
Q

Complement Deficiencies

C4 Deficiency [4]

A

Increased risk of autoimmune conditions, namely
- Henloch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
- T1DM
- Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
- Glomerulonephritis

296
Q

Complement Deficiencies

C1 Deficiency [2]

A

Increased risk of
- C1q: SLE, GN
- C1r: SLE

297
Q

Heart Sounds

Ejection systolic murmur (ESM)
Loudest at right 2nd intercostal space
Radiates to carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

298
Q

Heart Sounds

Narrow splitting of S2

A

Severe pulmonary hypertension

299
Q

Heart Sounds

Pan-systolic murmur (PSM)
Does not intensify with inspiration

A

Mitral regurgitation

300
Q

Heart Sounds

Reverse splitting of S2

A

Occurs because of delayed aortic valve closure, usually due to delayed electrical activation of LV

eg
Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
Hypertensive heart disease

301
Q

Heart Sounds

Wide splitting of S2

A

Occurs because of either
1. Delayed pulmonary valve closure (eg RBBB)
2. Early aortic valve closure (eg VSD)

302
Q

Classic Investigations [1]
Serum 1-3 β-D-Glucan

A

Fungal Infection
Classically PCP Pneumonia

303
Q

Associated Conditions [1]
HER2 Gene Mutation

A

Breast Cancer
HER2+ = Suscetible to Trastuzumab

304
Q

Gout Drug Mechanisms
Allopurinol

A

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor
Purine Analogue

305
Q

Gout Drug Mechanisms
Febuxostat

A

Xanthine Oxidase Inhibitor
Non-Purine Analogue

306
Q

Gout Drug Mechanisms
Colchicine

A

Tubulin Polymerase Inhibitor

307
Q

Gout Drug Mechanisms
Benzbromarone

A

URAT1 Inhibitor

308
Q

Carney Syndrome
[4 Features]

A

Naevi
Ephelides (freckles)
Myxoid neurofibromas
Cardiac LAA myxomas

309
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Multiple joint dislocations
Learning difficulties
Marfanoid habitus
Downward lens dislocation

A

Homocystinuria
(Crystathionine β-synthase deficiency)

310
Q

Antibiotic Mechanisms
Tetracyclines

A

Inhibit 30S ribosomal subunit

311
Q

Antibiotic Mechanisms
Trimethoprim

A

Inhibit dihydrofolate reduction

312
Q

Antibiotic Mechanisms
Penicillins

A

Inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis, thus disrupting bacterial cell wall

313
Q

Nephrotic Syndromes

A

General Treatment
1st-Line: Steroids
2nd: Cyclophosphamide

314
Q

Nephrotic Syndromes

A

General Treatment
1st-Line: Steroids
2nd: Cyclophosphamide

315
Q

Nephrotic Syndromes

A

General Treatment
1st-Line: Steroids
2nd: Cyclophosphamide

316
Q

Nephrotic Syndromes

A

General Treatment
1st-Line: Steroids
2nd: Cyclophosphamide

317
Q

Nephritic Syndromes

318
Q

Nephritic Syndromes

319
Q

Nephritic Syndromes

320
Q

Nephritic Syndromes

321
Q

Heart Sounds

Early diastolic murmur [2]

A

Aortic regurgitation
Pulmonary regurgitation

322
Q

Heart Sounds

Mid-diastolic murmur [3]

A

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid stenosis
Atrial myxoma

323
Q

Heart Sounds

Late systolic murmur [1]
Loudest at apex

A

Mitral valve prolapse

324
Q

Heart Sounds

Pan-systolic murmur (PSM)
Intensifies with inspiration

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

325
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hyperandrogenism (Essentially, becoming a brutish man)
Elevated Testosterone
LH-FSH Ratio > 2

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

326
Q

Recurrent laryngeal nerve is near which other structure?

A

Bifurcation of the inferior thyroid artery

327
Q

Gene Mutations [1]
Autosomal Recessive Adenomatous Polyposis

A

MUTYH Gene Mutation

328
Q

Common Pneumonia Pathogens

Pet birds
Splenomegaly

A

Chlamydia Psittaci

1st-Line Tx: Doxycyline
2nd-Line Tx: Azithromycin

329
Q

Coagulation Panel

A

Haemophilia A: Factor VIII Deficiency
Haemophilia B: Factor IX Deficiency
Both are X-linked recessive diseases

Factor VIII and IX are both part of Intrinsic Pathway, which is evaluated using APTT
Deficiency of the factors will lead to prolonged APTT

330
Q

Coagulation Panel

A

Vit K is required for Factors II, VII, IX, X to work

Factors II and VII are part of Extrinsic Pathway (assessed by PT)

Factors IX and X are part of Intrinsic Pathway (assessed by APTT)

331
Q

Coagulation Panel

A

In DIC, thrombocytopaenia is the main problem. Clotting factors are largely stable.

332
Q

Coagulation Panel

A

von Willebrand Factor (vWF) binds to Factor VIII to prevents its clearance

Therefore reduced vWF usually leads to reduced Factor VIII, predisposing to bleeding

However its effect on APTT is variable, meaning although Factor VIII is affected, it does not always prolong APTT

333
Q

Classic XR Findings

Broncho-arterial ratio > 1.5
Lack of bronchial tapering
Bronchi visualized close to pleural surface

A

Bronchiectasis

334
Q

Classic Investigations
Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)

A

Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia (AIHA)

If the cells agglutinate, then the test is positive and the haemolysis is related to anti-RBC antibodies

335
Q

Classic Investigations
Cryohaemolysis & Eosin-5’-Maleimide Binding Test

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

336
Q

Headache Types & Treatment

Bilateral
Band going around the head

A

Tension Headache

337
Q

Classic Imaging Findings

HIV+
MRI Brain: Ring-enhancing lesions

A

Cerebral Toxoplasmosis
Tx: Bactrim

338
Q

Classic Imaging Findings

HIV+
MRI Brain: T2W white matter enhancement

A

CMV Encephalitis

339
Q

Classic Imaging Findings

HIV+
MRI Brain: Ventricular enlargement, dense enhancement of choroid plexus

A

Cryptococcal Meningitis

340
Q

Classic Imaging Findings

HIV+
MRI Brain: Temporal lobe enhancement

A

HSV Encephalitis

341
Q

Classic Imaging Findings

HIV+
MRI Brain: Multiple periventricular and subcortical lesions
- Hypointense on T1W
- Hypertensive on T2W

A

JC virus infection (PMFL)

342
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Anaemia
Night sweats
Hypercalcaemia
Back pain
Normal ALP

A

Multiple Myeloma

343
Q

Anti-Psychotic Agent in Parkinson’s Disease

A

Lorazepam (BZD)

Avoid Haloperidol / Risperidone as these are Dopamine antagonists and will worsen Parkinsonism

344
Q

Stroke Features

Contralateral hemiplegia
Ipsilateral CN III palsy

A

Posterior cerebral artery
(Weber’s Syndrome)

345
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
High renin
High aldosterone
Low urinary Calcium excretion
Normotension

A

Gitelman’s Syndrome
Defect in proximal convoluted tubule (like Thiazide)
SLC12A3 Gene Mutation

346
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
High renin
High aldosterone
Normal-high urinary Calcium
Normotension

A

Bartter’s Syndrome
Defect in ascending loop of Henle (like Lasix)
SLC12A1 Gene Mutation

347
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Low renin
Low aldosterone
Hypertension

A

Liddle’s Syndrome
Defect in collecting tubule (like MRA eg Spironolactone)
SCNN1B Gene Mutation

348
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis
Low renin
High aldosterone
Hypertension

A

Hyporeninaemic hyperaldosteronism

349
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Gradually-worsening weakness
Mixed UMN and LMN signs
- UMN: Hyper-tonia
- LMN: Hypo-reflexia

A

Motor Neurone Disease

350
Q

Gout Drug Mechanism
Rasburicase

A

Recombinant Urate Oxidase

351
Q

Falciparum Malaria Treatment

A

Artesunate
No need Primaquine as Falciparum does not have liver hypnozoites

352
Q

Non-Falciparum Malaria Treatment

A

Artemether-Lumefantrine
+ Primaquine for liver hyponozoites

353
Q

STI Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Painless ulcer on glans penis

A

Syphilis (Treponema Pallidum)

354
Q

Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

East African
Pancytopaenia
Splenomegaly
Amastigotes on BMAT

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis
Tx: Miltefosine

355
Q

Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Slow growing
Pearlescent papule
Telangiectatic vessels
Sun-exposed area of face

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)

1st-Line Tx: Surgery
2nd-Line: RT or Topical Immunotherapy

356
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Rapidly growing
Flat erythematous scaling lesion
Non-healing skin ulcer
No telangiectasia

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

357
Q

Heart Sounds

Systolic murmur
Loudest at left sternal edge

A

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

358
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Pheochromocytoma
Retinal haemangioblastoma
Renal carcinoma

A

von Hippel-Lindau Disease

359
Q

Risk factors for successful suicide [5]

A

Lives alone
Unemployment
Chronic debilitating physical health problems
Alcohol and drug dependence
Active mental illness

360
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Splenomegaly
Marked rise in blast cells
Neutropaenia
Thrombocytopaenia
Rapid progression

A

Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)

361
Q

Staghorn Calculi

A

Magnesium ammonium phosphate composition
Common in Proteus or Klebsiella infections

362
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Young woman
Pupil reacts slowly to light
Brisk accommodation reflex
Slow to relax once constricted

A

Holmes-Adie Pupil

363
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Tonically small pupil
React poorly to light
Brisk accommodation reflex

A

Argyll-Robertson Pupil

364
Q

Heart Sounds

Ejection systolic murmur
Loudest at left upper edge of sternum

A

Pulmonary Stenosis

365
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Benign ovarian tumour
Ascites
Pleural effusion

A

Meig Syndrome

366
Q

Homonymous Quadrantopias
Contralateral “PITS”

A

Parietal Lobe = Inferior Quadrantopia
Temporal Lobe = Superior Quadrantopia

Injury to the lobe causes contralateral visual loss

367
Q

Binge drinking effect on DM glucose control

A

Alcohol leads to more blood flow to endocrine portion of pancreas, stimulating more insulin secretion hence risk of hypoglycaemia

368
Q

Spot Diagnosis

Chronic venous leg ulcer
New nodule at margin - Ulcerated lesion with necrotic centre

A

Malignant transformation of venous ulcer into squamous cell carcinoma

369
Q

STI Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

Fishy smelling
White vaginal discharge
No vaginal irritation
Not related to sexual intercourse

A

Bacterial vaginosis - Gardnerella Vaginalis

Tx: PO or Topical Metronidazole, or Topical Clindamycin

370
Q

Spot Diagnosis

AKI
Maculopapular rash
Recent beta-lactam use
Fever with eosinophilia

A

Acute Interstitial Nephritis (AIN)

371
Q

STI Spot Diagnosis & Treatment

African
1-2 painful ulcers
Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

Chancroid
Tx: PO Azithromycin + IV Ceftriaxone

372
Q

CSF Interpretation

373
Q

CSF Interpretation

374
Q

CSF Interpretation

375
Q

CSF Interpretation

376
Q

Visual Field Defects

377
Q

Visual Field Defects

378
Q

Visual Field Defects

379
Q

Visual Field Defects

380
Q

Upper Limb Dermatomes

381
Q

Upper Limb Dermatomes

382
Q

Upper Limb Dermatomes

383
Q

Upper Limb Dermatomes

384
Q

Upper Limb Dermatomes

385
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

386
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

387
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

388
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

389
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

390
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

391
Q

Lower Limb Dermatomes

MRCP High Yield (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions