Acting Captain Exam Flashcards
1
Q
According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; you are the Officer at a station where a member reports for duty 45 minutes past their scheduled hour. What are the correct actions you should take?
A
Allow the member to go on duty, then send an email to the appropriate Deputy Chief and Senior Officer that identifies, the name and employee number of the employee, the time the employee reported for duty, the reason provided by the
employee for his/her failure to report.
2
Q
According to Operational Policy 101.00 – Rules and Regulations; a member reports for duty more than ___ minutes past their scheduled hour will be considered to have “failed to report”.
A
30
3
Q
According to Operational Policy 109.00 – WSIB Reporting Obligations and Procedures; who is responsible to complete the injured/ill worker’s accident report?
A
The injured/ill worker’s Immediate Supervisor
4
Q
According to Operational Policy 111.00 - Shopping; a crew member asks if it would be permissible to go to a retail store to purchase a few items for their home, is this acceptable under the Policy?
A
No - personal shopping by on-duty personnel is prohibited for any reason other than food for that shift
5
Q
According to Operational Policy 114.00 – On-Duty Members – Critically Injured or Admitted to Hospital; The injured member’s immediate Supervisor at the time of the accident/injury is responsible for completing and submitting the “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” within ___ hours of the incident to the City of Hamilton Human Resources
A
24
6
Q
According to Operational Guideline 116.04 - Power Failures; the Company Officer shall assign personnel to the apparatus bay doors to disengage the automatic door opener and raise the door using manual means. This shall be done immediately to verify doors can be easily opened. Complications shall be immediately reported to the District Senior Officer/Area Commander and Communications. a) During mild weather/summer months Officers will _______?
A
All of the above:
Apparatus should be moved on the ramp area and parked in preparation for apparatus movement//Apparatus bay doors should be closed//Chain(s) shall be secured in the lock-up bracket (where applicable)
7
Q
According to Operational Guideline 122.00 – Tours of Fire Stations; which of the following is incorrect with regards to safety during tours:
A
Visitor’s will be allowed on the upper floors of fire stations, but must be supervised when in close proximity to pole holes
8
Q
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; a firefighter has posted something offensive in the workplace, who is responsible for ensuring offensive materials are not displayed in the workplace?
A
Officers
9
Q
According to Operational Policy 123.00 – Offensive Materials and Actions; Officers shall be responsible for the following:
A
All of the Above:
Personnel violating this policy are referred to the District Senior Officer//Offensive materials are removed, and offensive actions cease//Ensuring all crew members are familiar with this policy
10
Q
According to Operational Guideline 212.00 – Injured Worker Checklist – Career; which of the following is not an action for the immediate Supervisor to take?
A
If seeking medical attention, the immediate Supervisor shall provide the injured worker with the Functional Abilities Form before they leave the workplace
11
Q
According to Operational Guideline 214.00 – Heat and Cold Stress; which of the following criteria is not a cause to cancel Inspections and or outdoor training:
A
Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius
12
Q
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; who may request the Peer Support Team to attend for appropriate intervention?
A
Any individual involved
13
Q
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; a ___________ is a structured group discussion typically conducted with homogenous groups, ideally within 2-5 days post incident.
A
Debriefing
14
Q
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; a ___________ is typically a small group (<20; usually the crews involved) in a structured discussion regarding a critical incident, and is conducted shortly after the incident, ideally during the same shift, primarily as an educational process
A
Defusing
15
Q
According to Operational Policy 215.00 – Critical Incident Services and Hamilton Fire Department Peer Support; which of the following would be a critical incident and/or traumatic event causing an Occupational Stress Injury?
A
All of the above:
Serious injury or death of a civilian resulting from HFD operations//Death of a patient following extraordinary and prolonged expenditure of physical and emotional energy during rescue efforts//Events that seriously threaten a firefighter’s life
16
Q
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; which of the following reporting guidelines is incorrect?:
A
All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.
17
Q
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 - Incident Reporting; the Officer’s Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional details provided from the Officer’s __________ from the scene?
A
Notes
18
Q
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers observing Fire Code violations or concerns (not immediately dangerous to life and health) at a property attended by HFD shall report such to the ______________________ using the Incident Action Request.
A
Fire Prevention Bureau
19
Q
According to Operational Guideline 301.00 – Incident Reporting; Company Officers observing serious Fire Code violations (immediately dangerous to life and health) in a property attended by the HFD, that Officer shall notify the:
A
The Senior Officer for that District
20
Q
According to Operational Guideline 305.00 Submission of Lists/Damage Reports on FDM (#437); if an emergency situation requiring IMMEDIATE repair arises after 1700 hours and before 0800 hours or on holidays or weekends, contact the _______________________.
A
District Senior Officer
21
Q
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Response/Movements; you are the Officer where a member has lost the right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended, expired) – what steps shall you take?
A
Contact their Senior Officer in writing to advise; these members shall not drive any City vehicle or not of the class or endorsement for HFD apparatus. The member must present their renewed licence to their District Senior Officer. A copy of the employee’s written report of notification of loss of driving privileges as well as the renewed licence status must be forwarded to the Platoon Chief/Division Chief
22
Q
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Response/Movements; which of the following statements is incorrect when encountering a railroad crossing?
A
Apparatus may be driven around railroad crossing gates when responding to an emergency
23
Q
According to Operational Guideline 401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Response/Movements; which of the following statements is correct when backing up apparatus?
A
The Officer in charge of the apparatus will station members of the apparatus crew at the front and rear of the apparatus to provide guidance to the driver
24
Q
According to Operational Policy 401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Responses/Movements; Members losing their right to drive (revoked, lost, suspended, or allowed to expire) shall immediately report the relevant conditions in writing to:
A
Their Senior Officer
25
According to Operating Policy 0401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Responses/Movements; which of the following statements are correct?
All of the above:
Drivers of HFD apparatus will be subject to the discretionary orders and instructions of the Officer in charge of the apparatus at all times. Discretionary orders shall be defined as apparatus placement, direction of travel, or any order that may affect safety or on-scene operations.///The Officer in charge of any apparatus shall be responsible to ensure that the conditions of access are appropriate and sufficient to support the travel of designated apparatus///When apparatus are travelling outside their primary response district, the Officer in charge shall notify the Communications Centre
26
According to Operating Policy 0401.00 – Operating Apparatus – Responses/Movements; which of the following is correct when backing up apparatus?
When an apparatus is backing into any station that has electrically operated doors, the Officer in charge will be positioned close to the overhead doors in order to stop the apparatus if the door should start to descend. When the apparatus is leaving the station, it must be a minimum of two metres clear of the station door before closing it
27
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, which of the following statement(s) is correct?
Both B and C are correct:
Drivers are responsible for the inspection of HFD vehicles and reporting to the Company Officer any concerns or issues identified///Company Officers are responsible for ensuring that inspections are performed and properly reported as required
28
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, who is responsible for ensuring that inspections are performed and properly reported as required.
The Company Officer
29
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, who is responsible to ensure that all equipment on their apparatus has been accounted for before returning from an alarm?
The Officer and Driver
30
According to Operational Guideline 402.00 – Apparatus and Equipment – Inspection, Cleaning and Maintenance, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Both A and B are correct:
A Lost/Damage Report shall be completed by the Company Officer for vehicle deficiencies that cannot be corrected by personnel///All deficiencies or issues that should be shared with other Platoons should be logged on the apparatus white board in the Captain’s office and noted in the Station’s Apparatus Journal
31
According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus; which of the following statements is incorrect?
Apparatus equipped with water tanks and immobile during weather below freezing temperature and unable to engage the pump shall leave all inlets and outlet valve controls in the open position in order to prevent freezing
32
According to Operational Guideline 408.00 – Breakdown of Apparatus, which of the following statement(s) are/is correct?
All of the above:
If on the radio due to inaccessibility to a telephone, the Company Officer shall request the Communications Centre contact the respective District Chief to inform him/her as to the status and location of the apparatus////Company Officers in charge of apparatus unable to respond due to mechanical failure (while in the fire station or while responding to an emergency) shall notify the Communications Centre immediately in order to have an alternate apparatus dispatched////Company Officers shall be responsible for notifying their Senior Officer/Area Commander of a breakdown
33
According to Operational Guideline 409.00 – Aerial Apparatus – Inspection, Testing and Maintenance which of the following is correct when an Aerial device or Elevated Master Stream comes in contact with energized electrical wires?
Both A and C are correct:
— The operator and all personnel on the apparatus at the time the device struck the wires shall remain on the apparatus until the wires have been confirmed de- energized
— The Company Officer will notify the Incident Commander and the apparatus will be put out-of-service (10-7) immediately
34
According to Operational Guideline 413.00 – Spare Apparatus; you are the Company Officer at a Station receiving a spare vehicle. A crew member reports equipment missing, what steps shall you take to correct the missing equipment?
All of the above:
— The Company Officer at the station that that has received the apparatus shall contact the Company Officer that had previous charge of the apparatus and request that that individual initiate a search for the missing item(s)
— Complete Lost/Damage Report shall be prepared by the Company Officer who originally became aware of the missing equipment
— If the equipment cannot be located by the end of the shift, advise the on-coming officers shall
35
According to Operational Policy 414.00 - Collisions - Occurrence and Reporting; when Hamilton Police Service responds to the scene, the Company Officer shall obtain the investigating police officer’s name, badge number and _______________ for the report.
Police Incident Number
36
According to Operational Guideline 415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property; you are an Officer in a station where there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property; what action(s) are the responsibility of the Company Officer when there is suspected theft or vandalism of HFD property.
The Officer shall complete all necessary documentation and notify their Senior Officer of the occurrence
37
According to Operational Guideline 418.00 – Personal Protective Equipment; a crew member reports that they are missing their flash hood, what are the correct steps to provide a flash hood for your firefighter?
The Officer in charge will be responsible for the distribution of the spare firefighting hoods; the Company Officer and firefighter shall complete and sign the Spare Firefighting Hood Log; at the end of the shift the firefighter will turn in the spare hood to Company Officer and complete the area of the log sheet indicating when the hood was returned
38
According to Operational Guideline 421.00 – Hearing Protection; hearing protection shall be provided for and used by all members when exposed to noise in excess of ___ dBA caused by power tools or equipment, other than in situations where the use of such protective equipment would create an additional hazard to the user:
90
39
According to Operational Policy 423.00 - Equipment-General; a crew member is conducting routine maintenance to a piece of equipment and find damage that poses a safety risk to personnel. What steps should you take?
Remove it from service immediately; send to the Mechanical Division for repairs with a completed Loss/Damage Report accompanying
40
According to Operational Policy 423.00 - Equipment-General; once HFD equipment is discovered missing, the Officer shall conduct an exhaustive search for lost equipment including but not limited to:
Recent incidents/locations where equipment may have been left behind, including along the route taken to the alarm; spare apparatus; other apparatus that responded to the same call, etc.; only after conducting such a search the Officer shall submit the completed Loss/Damage Report with an explanation of
action taken to search for lost equipment filled out in the document; the Officer shall file a copy in the fire station to ensure that the other shifts are aware of the
missing item.
41
According to Operational Guideline 424.00 – Ladders; a firefighter notices physical changes of the ladder, indicating heat exposure and a crack. What are your appropriate actions?
Remove the ground ladder from service and send to the Mechanical Division
42
According to Operational Guideline 425.00 - Power Saws; when shall power saws be started and run briefly by career suppression personnel?
Saturdays
43
According to Operational Guideline 425.00 - Power Saws; in emergency situations, all personnel within ____ m of an operating power saw shall be wearing eye protection including fire helmet faceshield in the down position and protective goggles.
10 m
44
According to Operational Guideline 428.00 – Vehicle Radio Headsets; the radio headsets have arrange up to _____ metres.
450
45
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level involves deployment of sufficient resources and personnel to meet the objectives identified in the Incident Action Plan.
Tactical
46
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level refers to activities normally accomplished by individual crews.
Task
47
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; the ___________ Level involves the overall Command of the Incident
Strategic
48
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; during active Defensive Operations, ___________ ____________ becomes critical since firefighters should not enter the fire area.
Perimeter Control
49
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; no risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property.
True
50
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; there are three simple guidelines that define acceptable levels of risk, which statement(s) is correct?
All of the above:
— No risk to the safety of personnel shall be acceptable when there is no possibility to save lives or property.
— Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of personnel shall be limited to situations in which there is a potential to save endangered lives.
— Activities routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as inherent risks to the safety of members, and actions shall be taken to reduce or avoid those risks.
51
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; designating Command by using a unique and consistent identifier is proper practice.
Yes - this would normally be the street name where the incident is occurring (Main Street Command), if the incident has occurred at a large complex / building; the building's name may be utilized (City Hall Command)
52
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
Initiate, maintain and control the communication process
53
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
Assume and confirm Command and take an effective position
54
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; Sector Officers will be responsible for and in control of all assigned functions within their sector. Which of the following is not a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
Return companies to service and terminate command
55
According to Operational Guideline 501.00 – Incident Management System; using the 10-12 radio code on arrival of the unit assuming Command is proper practice.
No
56
According to Operational Guideline 502.00 Incident Roles and Responsibilities; which of the following is a responsibility of a Sector Officer?
Remain accountable at all times for the officers and personnel assigned to that sector
57
According to the Operational Guideline 503.00 – Safety Officer System; the initial company officer as the IC/ISO provides the beginning of the Incident Safety Officer System (ISOS) and ensures that _________ _________ is a priority upon arrival of the first unit and is maintained though standard transfer of Command and ISO responsibilities until the incident is stabilized or Command is terminated.
Firefighter Safety
58
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
Ensure that passport is delivered to their accountability location prior to entering the hot zone and retrieved upon exiting the hot zone
59
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
Obtain PARs for their crews, which is a confirmation that all members assigned to his/her crew are accounted for and have an adequate exit air supply
60
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following is a responsibility of the Company Officer?
Keep crew intact and maintain an awareness of the crews exit air supply
61
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when the Incident Commander assumes the responsibility of firefighter accountability, and when personnel responding to the incident scene other than on dispatched apparatus must report to the Incident Commander and ensure that their Accountability Tag is attached to the assigned Apparatus or Crew passport prior to proceeding with assignment:
Level 1 Crew Accountability
62
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; what level of accountability occurs when an entry control site will be established as determined by the Incident Commander and where accountability boards will be maintained to continuously record apparatus/crew assignments in the support sectors and which crews have entered the hazard zone through what entry control point(s).
Level 3 Accountability with Entry Control
63
According to Operational Guideline 504.00 – Accountability; which of the following statements regarding Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) is correct?
P.A.R. will be initiated any time there is a change in fire fighting tactics (i.e. interior attack to an exterior attack) or the need arises (i.e. missing personnel, building collapse, evacuation tones); Any individual may initiate P.A.R. through Command whenever they have cause for concern; By identifying the individual who is reported missing, it will ensure that if that person is working with another
crew or out of sight of the officer, the individual can answer up or will be accounted for by the other crew member(s)
64
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; which of the following statements is correct?
Incoming companies without predetermined assignments take up a staged position until they receive orders from Command. They can then be quickly deployed to areas where they may be needed; Staging unneeded apparatus and personnel until they are assigned a task or return to station if not required is critical in reducing the potential of freelancing on the fire ground
65
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; effective utilization of Staging procedures will:
Both A & B are correct:
— Prevent excessive apparatus congestion at the scene; Provides a resource pool from which Command may assign units and resources at his/her leisure
— Allow time for Command to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies; Place apparatus in an uncommitted location close to the immediate scene to facilitate more effective assignment by Command
66
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you are assigned as the Officer for Level 2 staging. The radio designation you should use is:
Level 2 Staging Sector
67
According to Operational Guideline 505.00 – Staging; you arrive on scene where Command has set-up a Level 2 Staging Area, you have been directed to Stage, Level 2, you should:
Report to the Level 2 Staging area, report their arrival in person to the Level 2 Staging Sector Officer, and then wait for an assignment
68
According to Operational Guideline 506.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT); you have been assigned to RIT at a high rise incident. Where will you stage?
One floor below the incident
69
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task. Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks:
Low on air
70
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; which of the following is correct for operations the entry team shall conduct?
Attach search line at entry, Provide air management trans-fill air / buddy breathing, Request additional equipment / personnel for extrication and relay rescue operations (as required)
71
According to Operational Guideline 507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities; RIT personnel should perform the following tasks, EXCEPT:
Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
72
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; you are the Officer for the Rapid Intervention Team. In order to complete your task and determine what tools / equipment will be required you and your crew must familiarize yourself with the following except:
Continuously monitor the safety of emergency operations and act as an extension of the Incident Commander’s eyes
73
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; as the Officer of the RIT, you have three benchmarks that need to be announced over the radio to the RIT Sector person, they are:
RIT Deployed, Firefighter Located, Firefighter Outside
74
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; whenever a MAYDAY or URGENT request is received, all communications on that frequency are to ______________.
Cease
75
According to Operational Guideline 508.00 – Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Equipment Requirements, Communications; which of the following would not be an example when to use an Urgent Radio Transmission?
A Missing firefighter
76
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; you are the first arriving Officer, which of the following statements regarding your Initial Assessment is correct?
Determine appropriate size and length of hose or other extinguishing appliance, Clearly identify the incident location by using the correct street address and/or a common descriptive name, Confirm the assumption and designation of Command, May proceed to rear of premises to check for signs of fire or fire spread
77
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; you are the first arriving Officer (IC1) to a confirmed fire. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
If suspected arson, follow arson investigation guidelines
78
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; considering the level of risk, the Incident Commander will choose the proper strategy to be used at the fire scene. The strategy can change with conditions or because certain benchmarks (i.e. Primary search complete) are obtained. The strategic mode will be based on the following except:
The ventilation profile and the ability to perform vertical ventilation
79
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; which of the following statements regarding the Incident Commander is correct?
All of the above:
— The initial Incident Commander will include the fire ground strategy in the on- scene report
— The Incident Commander is responsible for determining the appropriate fire ground strategy
— The Incident Commander shall ensure all required fire fighting activities are safely and efficiently performed by personnel
80
According to Operational Guideline 602.00 – Firefighting Operations – General; for defensive fires, the Incident Commander will have to:
All of the above:
— Ensure that the primary search (where possible) has been completed, that all saveable occupants are out of the hazard zone
— Identify cut-off points
— Protect any exposed occupancies from any fire extension
81
According to Operational Guideline 602.01 - Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams; which of the following situations are acceptable activities for a single apparatus response (with no additional crews on site)?
A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.
82
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; the stage of the fire becomes a critical factor that affects the rescue approach developed by Command. Which statement is correct regarding cases of fully involved buildings or sections of buildings, where immediate entry and primary search activities become impossible, and survival of occupants is improbable?
Command must initially report fully involved conditions and that he will not be ordering a primary search
83
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; Command must consider factors in developing a basic rescue size-up, the factors are:
All of the above:
— Affect the fire has on the victims
— Capability of the crews to enter the building, remove/protect victims and control fire
— Number, location and condition of victims
84
According to Operational Guideline 604.00 – Search & Rescue – Fire Ground; which of the following Search Safety Procedures is incorrect?
Structuring treatment of victims after removal is unnecessary. Multiple victims should be removed to any safe location for triage and treatment
85
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; what is the correct sequence for activating the Air Horn Evacuation Signal?
Three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, pause, three (3) second blast, five (5) second pause. Repeat two more times.
86
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which of the following statements is incorrect?
The tone shall be put over the air twice; each time shall be 10 second duration
87
According to Operational Guideline 606.00 – On Scene Emergency Evacuation; which of the following statements is incorrect?
Area in need of evacuation will be the interior
88
According to Operational Guideline 607.00 Salvage Operations; salvage objectives are:
Both B and C Are correct:
— Protect or remove contents
— Stop or reduce the source of damage
89
According to Operational Guideline 608.00 – Overhaul Operations; which statement is correct?
All of the above:
— Customer service is of the utmost importance to Hamilton Fire Department and therefore accommodation of the public is a priority. The state of a building and the way it is left by HFD personnel is often the measure of the performance of personnel despite an exemplary firefighting initiative
— Overhaul operations should be extensive but never reckless in the treatment of property
— Overhaul operations should be complimented by extensive salvage efforts to protect property and contents
90
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 - Cellulose Insulation; which of the following actions is not required during overhaul after a fire involving cellulose insulation:
Soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic
91
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; overhaul; in buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of ____ _____, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief
2 hours
92
According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; which of the following is not an identifiable characteristic of cellulose insulation?
Black/grey/charcoal coloured
93
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 608.01 – Cellulose Insulation; relying entirely on measurements of thermal imaging cameras, heat guns, and other mechanical devices to determine extinguishment is a best practice for cellulose insulation.
False
94
According to Operational Guideline 609.00 Valuables at the Scene; you are the Officer surrendering valuables to a Police Officer at the scene, you shall ensure that:
The transfer is witnessed by another HFD member, an itemized list is compiled of the items surrendered, obtain name/badge number of police officer is acquired
95
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 - Fire Watch; the “termination of a HFD fire watch shall be at the discretion of:
The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident
96
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; circumstances that may cause an Incident Commander to establish and maintain a fire watch can include:
A continuing fire risk, risk due to crowd size, and/or undue risk of public hazard
97
According to Operational Guideline 610.00 Fire Watch; who maintains command for the fire watch until such time as he/she surrenders that responsibility. This still applies after that Officer has cleared the incident.
The most Senior Officer acting as the Incident Commander.
98
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; ‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
Fire cause determination
99
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; ‘Firefighters are responsible to do the following’, except:
Notifying the Provincial Emergency Operations Centre (PEOC) Duty Officer
100
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; which of the following about ‘Collecting Evidence’ is correct:
Leave evidence where it is, untouched and undisturbed. The person(s) who locate the evidence should note the circumstances surrounding the discovery and include this information in a witness statement, evidence that must be removed shall be turned over to the Hamilton Police Service
101
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; Firefighters may be in the best position to determine the area of origin of the fire and establish fire cause because they:
May talk to witnesses on the scene while facts are still clear in the witnesses' minds
102
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
Both A and C are correct:
— What window or door the fire was observed through
— Height and construction of the building or buildings involved
103
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; during arrival at the fire scene Officers should note the following:
Both A and B are correct:
— Whether doors and windows are secure
— What means of entry and direction of fire travel there are
104
According to Operational Guideline 612.00 Fire Cause Determination and Arson; to establish the cause of a fire, find the point in the building where the fire started (i.e. the area of origin). Locate the __________ point of burning with the greatest amount of ___________.
Lower point of burning with the greatest amount of charring
105
According to Operational Guideline 0612.01 - Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal; who is responsible for requesting that the OFM respond?
Incident Commander
106
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire with a loss estimated at $400,000 in a clandestine drug operation, should the Fire Marshal be notified?
Yes
107
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; you are the Incident Commander at a structure fire, which of the following incidents does not meet the criteria for notifying the Ontario Fire Marshal?
Large loss fires, $400,000 and over or where the loss is significant to the community
108
According to Operational Guideline 612.01 – Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal – Investigation Services; part of the mandate of the OFM is to assist the local police in identifying a purposely-set fire and to support the local police in carrying out significant criminal investigations. The successful prosecution of a criminal charge by the police is dependent on the integrity and continuity of possession of the evidence found at the scene. It is therefore necessary that the ___________ of the _________ be maintained prior to the arrival of an OFM or police investigator.
Security of the scene
109
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the staging area for Hamilton Fire Department apparatus responding to a call on airport property is the:
Airport Fire Hall
110
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are the Officer responding to ‘alarm conditions’ in the Cargo Jet Building. Airport Fire is on scene and cancels you from the call. What are your actions?
Continue to the call
111
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; the “AIRPORT FIRE” talk group can be found on all Hamilton Fire Department mobile and portable radios in the channel __ position.
Channel 10
112
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; which of the following statements is correct when dispatched to an aircraft crash on airport property:
Respond to the automatic Control Access Gate B, Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and standby, Wait for escort to the crash scene
113
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; in the event that the Airport Emergency Response Services respond to an aircraft crash off the airport property, the distance limit for such a response is within a ______ mile radius of the airport.
Five mile
114
According to Response Guideline 612.00-SRG – Response to John C. Munro (Hamilton) International Airport; you are dispatched to a ‘Stand-By for Aircraft Emergency’, you shall:
Respond to the automatic Access Control Gate B (Salem Road), Proceed to the Staging Area (Fire Hall) and stand-by, Stand-by at the position until required and escorted to the scene, or until released by the airport authorities
115
According to Operational Guideline 614.00 - Assistance to Victims of Fires; whose responsibility is it to notify Communications in the event of fires or other emergencies which result in personal hardship (lack of accommodation, food, clothing, etc.)?
Incident Commander
116
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; when the Fire Department is preparing to terminate an incident where there is a possibility of structural collapse, the Incident Commander shall contact the _____ ________ to respond.
Building Department
117
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; on the completion of an incident (no sign of collapse), it is the responsibility of the Incident Commander to make the Responsible Party aware of the new inherent dangers that are identified by ________________ and any other areas that may be a threat for the assuming parties.
Either yellow or red tape
118
According to Operational Guideline 615.00 – Hazard Control Zones; you are the Incident Commander at a scene that requires establishing a Red Zone but tape cannot be initiated because of heat, smoke, and gases, etc. as the Incident Commander you shall:
Relay this information to Dispatch. Dispatch would make a short formal announcement to personnel at the scene describing the area and the reason for the establishment
119
According to Operational Guideline 616.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Report Information, the reporting officer shall endeavor to provide as much information as possible in the MVC section of the FDM report. Which of the following is considered to be of the highest priority?
Police occurrence/report number
120
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is correct for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise buildings:
Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).
121
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; the second arriving Engine/Pump at a High-rise incident shall:
Will be committed to obtaining a water supply and connecting to the Standpipe System of the high-rise
122
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not an “Immediate Priority” for the first arriving units.
Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.
123
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following statements is not correct regarding elevator procedures:
The responsible party/key holder for the building may operate elevator and provide access to locked apartments
124
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; a _________ _______ elevator is a Firefighters elevator that is not in it's own fire separated shaft (could be in a shaft with other elevators) and the elevator car will not automatically recall to the lobby level upon activation of an alarm, it must be automatically recalled with a key by an RP or FEO key
Yellow Hat
125
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; a _________ _______ elevator is a Firefighters elevator that is in its own fire separated shaft and the elevator car will automatically recall to the lobby level upon activation of an alarm. A smoke detector will be located outside of the elevator car on the recall level and if detects smoke, the car will recall to an alternate floor level
Red Hat
126
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire?
Reset the alarm system
127
According to Operational Guideline 618.00 – High-Rise Operations; which of the following is not a Tactical Objective in a high-rise fire?
Obtain the presence of the building engineer, superintendent or responsible party
128
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; a _______ __ Entrapment is based upon unreasonable entrapment time exceeding 45 minutes, and/or situations involving non-life threatening conditions with medical factors (i.e. requires medications) or where severe environmental conditions are involved (i.e. elevated temperatures in the car)
Level II
129
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; as the Company Officer you have determined that there is an immediate threat to life or extreme environment. This is a _______ __ Entrapment.
Level III
130
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; no rescue attempt shall be made by HFD personnel if any of the following situations occur(s):
All of the above:
— Elevator brake is not set prior to or upon performing a mainline disconnect.
— Upon checking that the power is disconnected it is found that one or more power phases (legs) are not disconnected.
— Upon entering the machine room, the elevator is found to be moving
131
According to Operational Guideline 618.01 – Elevator (Disabled) Responses; completion of Standard Incident Report in HFD – FDM RMS which should include the following information except:
Type of elevator installation
132
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; Incident Command is responsible to ensure all sources of energy are neutralized, that is, have achieved a ______ ______ ______ as soon as possible where there may be cause of injury or harm and to ensure a lockout takes place.
Zero Energy State
133
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; a positive means (e.g., a lock) that secures an energy-isolating device in a position that prevents the inadvertent re-energizing of a machine, piece of equipment or process is known as - __________________.
Lockout Device
134
According to Operational Policy 618.02 – Lockout/Tagout; an approved, durable label that is made of non-conductive material, which provides information about the purpose of locking the equipment out, and particulars such as whose lock it is and the date and time of the lockout is known as __________________.
Tag-out
135
According to Operational Guideline 619.00 – Emergency Voice Alarm Communication (EVAC) Systems; which of the following reasons would prompt an announcement through the EVAC?
All of the Above:
— To update building occupants at regular intervals with relevant information
— To inform building occupants that Hamilton Fire Department apparatus and personnel are at scene and investigating the situation
— To advise occupants of the incident status
136
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
Interstitial and void spaces
137
According to Operational Guideline 620.00 - Fire Fighting Operations in Underground Facilities; you are in Command of a fire in an underground facility. To control fires in underground areas, you should be familiar with many factors and considerations. Which of the following is not a factor to control at a fire in an underground facility?
Establishing a floor warden
138
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall ensure the following actions take place:
The Incident Commander shall have a crew conduct a thorough check the building for the source of the alarm activation before attempting to have the alarm reset by the owner; after an adequate check of the building and if there is no evidence of fire, then instruct the Building Supervisory Staff to reset the fire alarm system; Check the annunciator panel to see that it is in normal operating status (no alarm or trouble indicated) before leaving scene
139
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; if there are no Building Supervisory Staff at the scene, the Incident Commander shall:
Not silence or reset the alarm system, complete a Form #327 that reflects the status of the alarm system (i.e. out of service) and leave it with a responsible occupant, if possible; advise occupants that the alarms will ring until Building Supervisory Staff can be contacted and that they should be alert for signs of fire until the alarm system has been restored (i.e. reset).
140
According to Operational Guideline 621.00 – Fire Alarm Systems; at a private residence with the alarm sounding and no answer at the door, the Incident Commander shall:
Ensure that the exterior perimeter of the building has been checked for signs of smoke or fire; Command shall not authorize any activity that may cause damage to the building without clear indications that a fire condition exists within the structure; if entry to a residence is forced police shall be summoned
141
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; full Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) and Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) shall be donned and activated before entering or operating at any confirmed or suspected natural gas / methane / atmosphere where air monitoring equipment indicates oxygen (O2) readings are ___% or less, or when observations and information received upon arrival indicates the presence of natural gas / methane.
20%
142
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; the Incident Commander shall ensure that:
One 65 mm hose lines are deployed and charged once personnel are brought forward
143
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a residence. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
1.7 kPa
144
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at an Industrial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
Up to 450 kPa
145
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are responding to a gas leak at a commercial occupancy. What pressure should you expect in the service line?
1.7 – 140 kPa
146
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; for Rescue and Evacuation of Persons – personnel shall immediately evacuate the building of all persons and the outdoor area of all civilians and unnecessary emergency response personnel and apparatus for ____ m in all directions. For large natural gas / methane leaks or fires, distances up to _____ m downwind should be considered.
100m and 800m
147
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a gas leak at a strip mall, a paramedic rapid response unit and a police vehicle are directly in front of the business and customers are entering adjoining stores. Your action should be:
Have the paramedic unit and police vehicle removed 100 m away in all directions and evacuate the customers and businesses 100 m in all directions
148
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; which statement is incorrect about prevention of Natural Gas Fires/Explosions (indoor or Outdoor)?
Personnel shall control all sources of potential ignition of escaping natural gas by placing the fire apparatus downwind
149
According to Operational Guideline 623.00 – Natural Gas / Methane / LPG (Liquified Petroleum Gas) Incidents; you are the Incident Commander at a Natural Gas Fire, which of the following statements is correct?
HFD personnel shall not extinguish a natural gas fire unless the natural gas flow or leak can be stopped by closing natural gas supply valves before or immediately after extinguishment of the fire
150
According to Operational Guideline 627.00 – Flooding Conditions; which of the following is correct for flooding conditions:
If the building is flooded, best practice is to disconnect power from outside prior to entry
151
According to Operational Guideline 627.00 – Flooding Conditions; which of the following is correct for flooding conditions:
First aid, even for minor scratches and burns, is extremely important when exposure to waters potentially contaminated with human, animal or toxic waste exists
152
According to Operational Guideline 629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue; If Hamilton Beach Rescue is requested by Incident Command for any Open Water rescue call, The Hamilton Beach Rescue Unit operational channel will be patched into our operational TAC for the alarm and the Incident Commander will have the ability to directly communicate with personnel from Hamilton Beach Rescue. Which of the Primary contacts along with their radio aliases at Hamilton Beach Rescue are NOT used?
Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4
153
According to Operational Guideline 630.00 – Responses to Bomb Threats; apparatus shall report to a location at least ____ m away from the location and establish a staging area.
150
154
According to Operational Policy 631.00 - Use of Equipment Not Provided by Hamilton Fire; you are the Officer at an incident where the problem is on the roof of a commercial building. There is a fixed steel safety ladder with a cage attached to the side of the building to gain access, is this acceptable to use?
No, the crew shall only use equipment that they brought with them to accomplish their task, including a ladder from the apparatus when one is required
155
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; the Immediate Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm.
1200 ppm
156
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Indents; crews at incidents involving suspected faulty appliances and equipment; HFD personnel shall advise the owner/occupant of the suspected source then:
a) Shut off the appliance,
b) Shut off the fuel source to the appliance and
c) Issue a form #_______ regarding the service termination.
327
157
According to Operational Guideline 632.00 - Carbon Monoxide Incidents; mandatory use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO readings are in excess of ______ ppm.
25 ppm
158
According to Operational Guideline - 632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents; crews on scene at incidents where readings are 9 ppm or less shall inform the residents that elevated levels were not detected, discuss the findings and actions you have taken (if any) and complete Form _____and_____.
328 and 329
159
According to Operational Guideline 633.00 - Violent Situations; what is the “10 Code” to be used for “IMMEDIATE” Police assistance where the safety of personnel may be jeopardized if verbal discretion is not used?
10 — 78
160
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
Both B and C are correct:
— The unit doing the canceling must be on scene (10-12)
— If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
161
According to Operational Guideline 634.00 – Career Responses into Volunteer Districts; Single Truck Response – which of the following statements is correct?
Both A and C are correct:
— If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, they will not cancel the volunteer apparatus
— If a Career unit arrives on scene and determines that the call will be of a prolonged nature, the volunteer apparatus will continue and assume Command of the Incident, releasing the Career unit to return to quarters
162
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; which of the following statements regarding Hydro Electric Emergencies is incorrect?
HFD personnel may pull any hydro meter to disconnect the power supply to a structure
163
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when wires are down, the Incident Commander shall establish a safe zone of at least ____ m (____ ft.) away from wires and anything wires may be touching.
10 m, 33 ft.
164
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; if dispatched to a substation fire, you should secure the area; to keep on-lookers back at least ____ m, ____ ft. for an explosion risk.
100 m, 330 ft.
165
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; substation control buildings require special consideration when fighting fires. The nature of the equipment installed within the station, its high value and susceptibility to damage from many extinguishing agents requires careful consideration in agent selection. Preference must be given to ___________ ___________.
Carbon Dioxide
166
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, personnel shall assess the situation from at least _____ metres (____ ft.) back.
10 m, 33 ft.
167
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; when responding to a padmount transformer and/or switching kiosks damaged in an accident, which of the following statements is correct?
Personnel approaching a vehicle with occupants still inside shall keep their feet close together (to minimize the step potential); don't approach closer than 10 metres (33 ft.) to the vehicle; tell occupants of the vehicle to “Stay in the vehicle, we are contacting the electrical utility. Do not exit the vehicle until they have said it is safe to do so.”
168
According to Operational Guideline 635.00 – Hydro Electric Emergencies; you are responding to a vault explosion, what are your first three actions?
Assess the situation from at least 10 metres, (33 ft.); determine the safe zone, secure the area, and keep the public at least 15 metres (50 ft.) back; request that Communications contact Hydro, ask for assistance and give the location of the service access involved
169
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; the Ontario Ministry of Labour is required to be notified for any one of the following except:
The worker invokes their right to refuse
170
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. What is your responsibility?
Check with Police to confirm that they will be making the MOL notification. This should be noted in the Incident Report on FDM along with the police officer’s particulars
171
According to Operational Guideline 637.00 – Ministry of Labour Notification; you are the Incident Commander on scene where a worker was critically injured on the job site. You only wish to ensure that the MOL is notified (and immediate response is not an issue) then the responsibility for making the call to the Ministry of Labour falls upon:
The Officer of the responding unit
172
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a fire incident at a movie theatre in the lobby area, based on this response, should you request Public Health Services?
Yes
173
According to Operational Guideline 638.00 - Notification of Public Health Services; you are the Incident Commander at a Lodging Home where there has been a long power outage impacting refrigeration units. Based on this response, should you request Public Health Services?
Yes
174
According to Operational Guideline 640.00 - Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires; which of the following is incorrect regarding the atmospheric levels where you can operate without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present?
10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)
175
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning signs stating?
"Caution -- Radioactive Material."
176
According to Operational Guideline 645.00 - Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University; there are ______ areas on campus where entry must not be made until Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas?
4
177
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor vehicle Collisions – Extrications, which of the following is the correct order of operations for the first arriving company/crew:
Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).
178
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following actions shall not be initiated by the first arriving company?
Develop a plan for the freeing of entrapped occupants, based on identified priorities
179
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following actions shall not be initiated by the first arriving company?
Ensure that backup equipment and personnel necessary for the operations are positioned adjacent to the controlled area (consider setting up an equipment staging area on a tarp)
180
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements regarding extrications is incorrect?
An “action circle” that extends 10 metres around the vehicle(s) should be established
181
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements is incorrect?
Rescuers should enter a vehicle to begin assessment of a patient or commence extrication operations before stabilization of the vehicle is complete
182
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements about Hybrid Electric and Electric Vehicle Safety is incorrect?
Firefighters do not need to be aware where the high voltage cable runs when lifting or stabilizing Hybrid/Electric and Electric vehicles
183
According to Operational Guideline 650.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Extrications; which of the following statements about Hybrid Electric and Electric Vehicle Safety is incorrect?
It is safe to disconnect or handle the high voltage cable that is color-coded orange as long as it is not cut
184
According to Operational Guideline 651.00 – Vehicle Accidents – Traffic Control and Scene Safety; personnel at the scene of highway incident operations fire personnel should do the following except:
Only cross high-speed traffic lanes on foot if wearing reflective clothing and apparatus emergency lights are displayed
185
According to Operational Guideline 651.00; Vehicle Accidents – Traffic Control and Scene Safety; it is recommended that a buffer area be established between the incident scene and emergency apparatus. The suggested buffer area is ___ m for every 10km/h of posted roadway:
4.0
186
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; the Building Construction Section responds to such matters as:
Fire damaged/vacant buildings, and/or an unsafe condition of a building
187
According to Operational Guideline 654.00 – Notification of the Building Services Division; which of the following circumstances is incorrect when determining if the Building Services Division Inspector is required:
Only structures which have been struck by motor vehicles or other objects
188
According to Operational Policy 655.00 – Operation of Aerial Ladders in High Winds; when sustained wind speeds reach _____ km/h all HFD aerial ladders will not be used.
80 km/h
189
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; EMS is first on scene but has not made patient contact, HFD personnel shall:
Accompany the EMS crew to the patient’s side to ensure the patient’s condition can be optimally treated by the EMS crew alone
190
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; which of the following is information that the Company Officer shall obtain and then document in the Narrative of the Incident Report (FDM)?
Patient's medical history, Date of birth, Age, Address, and the unique DNR serial number
191
According to Operational Guideline 701.00 – Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Responses; you are asked by paramedics to assign a firefighter to drive an ambulance so that the two paramedics can work together to perform life saving care. As the Company Officer how would handle this request?
You cannot allow this request as Hamilton Fire Department personnel, excluding Mechanical Division personnel, shall not, for any reason, drive any Hamilton
192
According to Operational Guideline 701.01 – Oxygen Resuscitation Kit; a crew member reports to you that the oxygen cylinder level is at 30 percent (30%) capacity and asks if it should be replaced. Your answer should be:
No, a cylinder that is at twenty-five percent (25%) of full capacity or lower should be replaced with a full cylinder
193
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; the Officer shall:
Ensure an “Exposure Report Form” and an “Employee Incident/Accident Report Form” are completed
194
According to Operational Guideline 703.00 – Designated Medical Officer’s Notification; a “Report of Accidental Injury and Occupational Disease” shall be completed. These forms shall be forwarded to the ________ _________ before the end of duty on that particular shift.
Platoon Chief
195
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; which of the following is correct when observations or information suggests to responders that foul play might be the cause?
Firefighters shall move as few things as possible, remembering where the item was and where it was moved
196
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; Company Officers shall accurately document as much detail as possible when completing the Incident Report (on FDM). Which of the following is not information that would be included in the report?
The last oral intake eight (8), hours prior
197
According to Operational Guideline 705.00 – Patients with Vital Signs Absent; Police shall always be requested when?
Both B and C are correct:
— To take over at a scene where a VSA patient has been transported and; where a minor is present and there is no adult left to care for the child
— A patient is pronounced or obviously dead
198
According to Operational Guideline 706.00 – Physician on Scene at Medical Calls; you are the Officer where an on-scene physician offers assistance and indicates they want to assume responsibility for patient care, you shall ensure:
That the Physician is a Medical Doctor licensed to practice medicine in the Province of Ontario; That identification is produced to verify the physician’s status; That the physician is willing to assume responsibility for this patient
199
According to Operational Guideline 707.00 – Hazardous Drugs; In the event that a responder is accidentally exposed to a cyto-toxic drug or cyto-toxic waste, the following actions shall be taken except:
A “Report of Accidental Injury or Occupational Disease” Form (WSIB) is unnecessary as the firefighter will be attending the nearest hospital for treatment
200
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 – Hazardous Materials - First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a consideration when responding to hazardous materials incidents (from upwind, upgrade), HFD personnel should be attentive to safety precautions in accordance with the following?
The first unit must commit itself to a dangerous situation
201
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a basic action principle that first-in apparatus should follow:
Only enter an effected area to rescue nonviable victims. This should only be attempted with full PPE, decontamination immediately available and back-up rescuers in place
202
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; which of the following is not a basic action principle that first-in apparatus should follow:
Provide access to area/building owner/Responsible Party
203
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when responding to hazardous materials incidents, HFD personnel should be attentive to safety precautions in accordance with the following:
Approach cautiously (from upwind), Secure the scene, Identify the hazards, Assess the situation
204
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when securing the scene, the Officer should consider:
Without entering the immediate hazard area, isolate the area and assure the safety of people and the environment, keep people away from the scene and outside the safety perimeter; allow enough room to move and remove HFD equipment, and establish and enforce control zones
205
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when identifying the hazards, which of the following should not be considered by the first arriving Officer?
Immediately contact CANUTEC at 1-888-CANUTEC for direction for possible risks
206
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when assessing the situation, the Officer should consider:
Is there a fire, a spill or a leak, what are the weather conditions, what is the terrain like, who/what is at risk: people, the environment or property
207
According to Operational Guideline 801.00 Hazardous Materials Incidents – First Arriving Apparatus; when assessing deciding site entry, the Officer should consider:
Conduct risk/benefit analysis; any efforts made to rescue persons, protect the environment or property shall be weighed against the possibility rescuers become part of the problem; and enter the area only when wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)
208
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; HFD uses standard alarm settings, which of the following settings is not correct?
25 ppm (low) & 40 ppm (high) for carbon monoxide (CO)
209
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; prior to operation, detectors should be warmed up for ______ (__) to _____ (__) minutes in fresh, clean air.
Three (3) to five (5) minutes
210
T/F: According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; air monitoring results taken (including a “zero” reading) shall be announced via radio to the Incident Commander and HFD Communications Centre
True
211
According to Operational Guideline 806.00 - Air Monitoring; which of the following is correct regarding detector maintenance?
Detectors shall be subjected to a functional bump test daily, and a full calibration on a monthly basis
212
According to Operational Guideline 807.00 - Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management; section 9.01 states which of the following?
Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported
213
According to Operational Guideline 809.00 - Responses Involving Railways; the safety of the crew aboard a derailed train carrying Hazardous Materials shall be the primary responsibility of?
On scene firefighting personnel
214
According to Operational Guideline 809.00 - Responses Involving Railways; what is the minimum number of personnel required to keep a watch during incidents that may require Firefighters working in the danger zone near railway tracks?
2 Personnel
215
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; entry into a clan lab is high risk and shall only be made to conduct a ______ rescue of human life. Under fire conditions with no life hazard, prevent extension and exposure damage but do not enter the hazard area.
Known
216
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; the Incident Commander should consider ___________ __________ of attack as appropriate to protect personnel from unknown chemical exposure, explosion and rapid fire advance.
A Defensive Mode
217
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
Both A & B are correct:
— Makeshift ventilation pipes, vacuum tubes and plastic or rubber tubing
— Metal drums and boxes with labels removed or spray painted over
218
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a clandestine drug laboratory and potentially change your strategy?
Chemical containers, particularly those that are not properly labelled
219
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following is not considered a hazard associated with clan labs?
Inside storage of propane tanks and makeshift connections to domestic natural gas supply
220
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; which of the following statements regarding Clandestine Drug Laboratories is incorrect?
Electric switches, vacuum pumps, chemical containers, glassware, or anything that is plugged into an electrical receptacle shall be unplugged
221
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; HFD shall provide support to Police personnel on scene. Which of the following is not a support action HFD shall provide?
Investigate and seize Clandestine Drug Laboratory equipment
222
According to Operational Guideline 810.00 Clandestine Drug Laboratories; you are first- in and still in Command at a Clandestine Drug Laboratory, rescue of persons or fire suppression are non existent, HFD personnel shall immediately leave the clan lab area and stand-by at the safe evacuation distance of _____ m - _____ m
50m–100m
223
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy?
Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
224
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; you are the first arriving Officer at an incident. Which of the following clues would lead you to suspect a marijuana grow operation and potentially change your strategy?
Both A & B are correct:
— Bright interior lights left on all day and night
— Condensation forms on the windows due to high humidity levels inside
225
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; of the following is not considered a hazard associated with marijuana grow operation?
Unknown and hazardous chemicals that may be present such as radioactive materials
226
According to Operational Guideline 811.00 Marijuana Grow Operations; which of the following statements regarding marijuana grow operations is incorrect?
Opening or moving doors, windows, refrigerator doors, chemical containers or furniture may be a triggering mechanism for an explosive device or chemical reaction that may be lethal
227
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; H2S is a colorless gas with notable odor of (rotten egg/sewer gas) detectable at low levels [measured in parts per million (ppm] Although pungent at first, it quickly deadens the sense of smell between the range of ________ ppm.
150 — 250 ppm
228
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; what additional agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or equipment?
EMS and Hospital
229
According to Operational Guideline 812.00 - Chemical Suicides; locations of such acts may occur in but not limited to the following areas except where vapors have the ability to disperse?
Open areas
230
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; a confined space is any space that has the following characteristics:
All of the Above:
— Has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
— Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant
— Is large enough and so configured that a person can enter and perform assigned
work
231
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; which of the following is not a characteristic of a confined space?
An excavation made below the surface of the ground where the depth is greater than the width
232
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the following except:
Approach the area from the ends if possible
233
According to Operational Guideline 852.00 Confined Space Rescue – Operational Response; you are first-in and shall determine the severity and extent of the confined space rescue emergency. Should a confined space rescue exist, the officer shall do the following except:
Place ground pads around the work area
234
According to Operational Policy 903.00 - Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP); a follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have expired since its issuance by Operations.
24
235
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence?
To provide a set of minimum requirements for fire safety within and around existing buildings and facilities for emergency response
236
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an objective of a standardized reporting system for fire occurrence is provide uniform data at the municipal and provincial level that aims to:
All of the above:
— Make the full extent of the fire and emergency problem known
— Reveal facts that require action
— Develop and administer codes and standards; and for fire prevention and fire protection research
237
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; an ___________ is an incident that results in a fire department emergency response.
Occurrence
238
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a fire or explosion occurrence is defined as any instance of destructive and uncontrolled burning, including explosion of combustible solids, liquids, or gases.
True
239
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following shall not be used as a ‘No Loss Outdoor Fire’:
All of the above:
— For any fire where there was property loss, injury or death
— For any fire where there was fire spread resulting in an exposure fire
— For any fire where the fire department suspects that the fire was intentionally ignited or a result of children playing
240
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; the Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (FIPPA) provides the public with the right of access to information that is collected by public institutions. However, this does not include data that is collected by fire departments.
False
241
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no injury, no fatality – but is suspected vandalism. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
01 Fire or Explosion
242
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at an outdoor trash fire – with no loss, no exposure fire – caused by improperly discarded ignited material. The type of occurrence should be reported as:
03 Outdoor fire/explosion
243
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when a fire in a garage attached to a residence spreads to the residence, or a fire in a vehicle parked within a structure that spreads to the structure are not considered ‘exposure fires’ because:
Both B and C are correct
— The structure fire is not an exposure fire as the vehicle is viewed as the structure contents. The area of origin is the garage.
— The fire originates in a vehicle in the attached garage, it is a structure fire, with the first ignited object being the vehicle
244
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a rupture of a steam boiler due to internal pressure in the boiler. This incident is considered to be:
11 Over pressure Rupture
245
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when responding to a medical call if a specific action is undertaken (i.e.) 701 Oxygen Administered, report the action instead of the condition.
True
246
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; where an illegal operation is encountered, regardless of the nature of the initial call it shall be coded:
921 Illegal grow operation (no fire) or 922 Illegal drug operation (no fire)
247
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following incidents would not be considered a rescue:
People evacuated from an occurrence area for precautionary measures
248
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is incorrect regarding Application of Agent or Decision to Defer?
Report the time using the 24 hour clock, record an estimate of the hour (0-23), minute (0-59), and second (0-59)
249
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; when would a Fire Under Control be reported?
When the fire will not make further progress, no further resources will be required for fire attack, the fire is sufficiently surrounded and quenched that it no longer threatens further spread or destruction of additional property
250
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; you are the Officer at a call where a person smoking has fallen asleep which results in a couch fire. The code for fire ‘possible cause’ that should be used is:
Code 44 Unattended
251
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements is correct when determining the estimated dollar loss.
The estimated dollar loss is the cost of actual damage to property and property contents, including open area losses
252
T/F: According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; a multi vehicle collision fire shall be considered an exposure fire. Total exposures should be the number of vehicles, and exposure reports are required for each additional vehicle.
False
253
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following is not considered a fire injury?
A person injured by fire/explosion which results from an accidental vehicle collision (burns, asphyxia)
254
According to the OFM’s Standard Incident and Injury Reporting Manual; which of the following statements regarding civilian fire deaths is correct?
Includes a person who is known to have committed suicide by fire or explosion
255
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; once the first in apparatus provides their initial radio report and assumes command, knowing that the senior officers and C73, C74 will report directly to the scene, how should the remaining dispatched firefighting apparatus respond?
The next two trucks respond directly to the scene
256
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a timely and efficient means of air replacement and rehydration of companies assigned to a Sector or Division is known as ____________.
Recycling
257
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a formal assignment where members decontaminate prior to entry and are medically evaluated before being rehydrated and replenished is known as _________________.
Rehabilitation
258
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _______ _________ involves using either the deck gun mounted on top of the engine, a 2 1⁄2-inch handline, or a ground monitor to attack a fire.
Blitz Attack
259
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; a _____ ______ is an application of water from an exterior hoseline (not a master stream device) as a straight stream to the ceiling above a fire.
Quick Hit
260
According to the 2023 HFD IMS, Staging and Transitional Attacks presentation; which of the following statements about quick hits is incorrect?
A quick hit essentially is an offensive attack in which we are sending all our water at once onto the seat of the fire
261
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; which of the following statements about report writing is incorrect?
Notes with statements or words that refer to derogatory language, contain sarcasm, or opinions are acceptable
262
According to the 2023 Captain Preparation Introduction presentation; you are writing your report after an alarm, what should be included in your report summary?
Include your size up in summary, detail your actions, indicate probable cause
263
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are a number of reasons to complete a 360 of the building prior to entry. Which of the following statements contain correct reasons for completing a 360?
View the fire’s size, location, and extent, identify life safety / rescue requirements, determine safest, most appropriate attack position
264
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the primary reason to complete a 360 on residential occupancies is to identify:
Immediate life safety issues
265
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; there are times where you may not be able to complete a 360 of a structure. Which of the following are reasons to not complete a 360.
Both A and C are Correct
— Immediate Life Safety Need – Rescue of the Alpha, Bravo, Delta side
— Wires down
266
T/F: According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; if you are unable to complete a 360, Command must report that the 360 is incomplete, and assign another unit to complete the 360.
True
267
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; as an Incident Commander you must listen critically to ‘conditions’ of CAN reports as they may provide you with a red flag.
A working fire in a concealed space, high heat encountered, limited or no visibility
268
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; ________ ________ is defined as: moving from an assigned work location to a different geographic work location or exiting the structure to recycle or rehabilitation.
Status Change
269
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command?
Accountability
270
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
Deployment
271
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?
Both B and C are correct:
— Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning
— Organization
272
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which of the following are central command’s tactical priorities?
All of the above:
— Conserve property and the environment during and after operations
— Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives
— Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers
273
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report?
All of the above
— Clear Alarm – Announce your arrival on scene
— Building Area Description
— Problem Description
274
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report?
All of the above:
— Resource Determination
— Building Area Description
— Assumption & Naming of Command
275
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is correct?
All of the above:
— When a 200' (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL
— When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 75% of the fire area/occupancy – it is MEDIUM
— When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE
276
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is incorrect?
When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE
277
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following:
All of the above:
— Any immediate life safety/rescue issues
— Number of storeys from the Charlie side
— Basement type and conditions (if known)
278
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; assigning units to Operating Positions/Functions in the Hazard Zone using the “Assignment Model”. This means the Incident Commander should assign fireground jobs by providing ________, __________, and __________ to the crew company officer.
Task, Location, Objective
279
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Conditions?
All of the above:
— Where you are
— Smoke conditions
— Fuel loads
280
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Condition?
Search progress
281
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be an Action?
Interior layout
282
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Need?
Heat conditions
283
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; which is the correct way to label this example below?
Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv)
284
T/F: According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; Command is not officially transferred until the Officer assuming command reports it over the radio, and it is confirmed by Dispatch.
TRUE
285
According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command.
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
— Size-up and verify that all operating positions match the current incident conditions
— Transmit that you have arrived on scene
— Contact IC#1 and verify the position and function of all hazard zone resources and get a CAN report
286
According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; what is the purpose of performing a Command Transfer?
Both A and C are correct:
— To ensure that IC#2 knows where all crews are, and what they are doing in case of an emergency on the fireground
— Every Command Transfer starts with a Size-Up by IC#2, The Senior Officer recognizes that crews are working towards achieving the Tactical Priorities, and that the Standard Actions are or should be creating Standard Outcomes
287
According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; ________ _______ is a transmission for red flag information only to the Incident Commander, the Order Model can be interrupted when important tactical information that will require adjustments to the current IAP or strategy must be required.
Priority Traffic
288
According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; you are the Officer on L1 and have found a victim during your search your transmissions should be:
L1 to Command with Priority Traffic .... Go Ahead. L1 has located a victim on the main floor. We are bringing them to the front door alpha side. Primary search is incomplete. We’ll need EMS support
289
According to the 2023 Command Transfers and Routine Radio Reports presentation; you are the Officer on L1 who was directed to check the status of the roof of a structure. The roof is flat. You recognize that the roof is unstable with heavy dead loads. You believe that it will eventually collapse. Your transmission should be:
L1 to Command with Priority Traffic .... Go Ahead. L1 has made the roof, we have a flat roof that is unstable with heavy dead loads
290
According to the 2023 Emergency Radio Traffic and MAYDAYS presentation; the best way to run a MAYDAY incident is to operate in a manner that prevents them from occurring. Which of the following practices can reinforce operating in a manner that can prevent a MAYDAY from occurring?
All of the above:
— Performing 360s (with a TIC) whenever possible
— Putting water on the fire as quickly and as safely as possible
— Following all SOPs
291
According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; the Incident Commander must always match Standard Conditions to Standard Actions for a ___________ ____________.
Standard Outcome
292
According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. There are factors that are fixed (meaning you have no control over them) and others that are variable (which you can control). What are the three fixed factors?
Building, Occupancy, Arrangement
293
According to the 2022 Blue Card Module 1 Intro presentation; in most situations the first arriving company officer will work in operate in which organizational levels?
All of the above:
— Strategic
— Tactical
— Task
294
According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?
Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources
295
According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?
Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency
296
According to the 2022 Incident Communications presentation; during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up, there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?
Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making
297
According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which procedure is not part of Step 1 in the process?
Carefully remove PPE and place into a clear plastic bag
298
According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; which of the following statements is incorrect?
During Step 1 – use a 45 mm hose with a straight stream and reduced flow to remove large debris
299
According to Training Bulletin #286: Post Incident Decontamination Procedures; what is the proper procedure when you are closing up the clear plastic bag?
Close the bag around the gear by rolling up the sides, being careful not to trap air inside, write name on tag, twist the bag closed, attach name tag and seal with a zip tie, transport gear in a side compartment not in the cab
300
According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of LifeTM Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’?
Both A and C are correct:
— A visual inspection shall be performed during every shift
— Never store the tool under pressure
301
According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of LifeTM Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is correct about ‘Cutter Inspections’?
When storing the tool, close the cutter blades with the tips slightly overlapping
302
According to Training Bulletin 308 – Hurst Jaws of LifeTM Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is true regarding Hurst Jaws of LifeTM Edraulic tools?
The responsibility for explosion prevention or for ruling out work with an Edraulic device lies with the operator of the device or with the person responsible at the place of use
303
According to Training Bulletin 309 – Hurst Jaws of LifeTM – Edraulic Inspections; which of the following is not an inspection procedure for a cutter after use?
Wipe the pistons off with a clean micro fibre towel prior to retracting them
304
According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, what statement regarding Xylazine is incorrect?
Side effects of Xylazine include elevated respirations, tachycardia and hypertension
305
According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, True/False: Fentanyl test strips can detect xylazine.
False
306
According to Training Bulletin 309 – Drug Alert: Xylazine, what statement regarding Xylazine is incorrect?
All of the above:
— Street names include: Tranq or Zombie
— Side effects of Xylazine include tiredness or faintness, respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension, hyperglycemia and miosis
— Xylazine causes central nervous system depressant effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia and anesthesia
307
According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the Exterior; which of the following statements about a Blitz Attack is incorrect?
Typically, a fog pattern should be utilized rather than a straight stream
308
According to Training Bulletin 311 - Transitional Attacks – Offensive Strategies from the Exterior; which of the following statements about a Quick Hit is incorrect?
A quick hit should use a fog pattern, pointed at a flat angle through the window
309
According to Training Bulletin 014 – Positive Pressure Ventilation; you are ventilating using a garage door, which tactic should you use?
Open the door part way and use two fans to seal the doorway with cones of air
310
According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form; which of the following statements is incorrect?
DNR Confirmation Forms have a specified expiry date, Company Officer shall ensure that the date has not expired
311
According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form; when would firefighters not accept a Form as valid?
When the DNR Confirmation Form is incomplete
312
T/F: According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form; if any family member revokes a DNR Confirmation Form, firefighters must initiate CPR.
False
313
T/F: According to Training Bulletin 135 - Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Confirmation Form; if there is confusion about who the SDM (substitute decision maker) is, and one/or more people present at the time is demanding that CPR be initiated on the patient, CPR shall be performed.
True
314
According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):
4 inches (102 mm)
315
According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse:
Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone
316
The HFDNET Training Index document “Thermal Imaging Camera – General Use and Operation 2017 identifies two modes of operation. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the two modes of operation:
High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)
317
According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include:
Always loop the hose in front of the monitor
318
Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction:
Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.
319
According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone?
150ft x 150ft
320
According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, which of the following is NOT a symptom of anaphylaxis.
Increased blood pressure
321
According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, what is the correct Medical Directive for the Hamilton Fire Department?
Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart
322
According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, there are recommendations that should be followed for the safe storage of Epinephrine, which of the following is one of these recommendations?
Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy
323
According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, if you encounter a patient who you suspect has overdosed on opioids, and who is Vital Signs Absent, what is your course of action?
Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions
324
According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, the following are true about Narcan with the exception of:
Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, GHB or alcohol).
325
According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, the correct treatment for an open chest wound is:
A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated
326
According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, what life-threatening condition can poor treatment for open chest wounds lead to?
Tension Pneumothorax
327
According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, Newborns are defined as being less than 24 hours old. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for newborns?
3 compressions to 1 ventilation
328
According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, if you have a newborn patient (less than 24 hours old), whose heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, what is your course of action?
Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1
329
According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces.
5
330
According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)?
Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.
331
According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario?
TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)
332
According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, which of these are typically found on an Aerial Ladder Load Limit Chart?
All of the above:
— Ladder Angle
— Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on the Ladder’s angle of elevation
— Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on whether the aerial water tower is flowing water or not. (Wet or Dry)
333
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: At 212 degrees F/100 Degrees C, water expands approximately how many times its’ original volume as it changes to steam?
1700
334
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 45mm nozzle?
350 kpa / 570 LPM
335
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the friction loss for 15M of the 45mm hose? / 65mm hose?
45mm–120kpa/65mm–45kpa
336
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the minimum residual pressure that should be maintained on the intake gauge when being supplied by a pressurized source?
140 kpa
337
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the pressure required at the eductor for the purpose of creating Foam.
1400 kpa
338
ccording to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what engine RPM should you be at for the purpose of Priming the Pump?
1000
339
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump?
Clappered Siamese Manifold
340
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, at what pressure should the drafting pump initially set the discharge pressure to the attack/fire or relay pump?
500 kpa
341
According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump?
3
342
According to Training Bulletin #259 – Hypothermia Packaging – Patient Wrap, which of the following is NOT a component of the patient wrap a.k.a. the “Thermal Burrito”?
Thermal Exposure Suit
343
According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire?
Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
344
According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire?
Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay
345
According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke?
Time of day
346
According to Training Bulletin #257 – CMC Throwline Bag Set, how long are the rope in the rescue throw bags HFD uses for ice water/shore-based water rescue?
75 feet
347
According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for ________ % of residential fires in 1994?
70 %
348
According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute to an attic fire?
Platform construction
349
According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room?
Bathroom
350
According to Memo 2018-AP-157 Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, the Workplace Safety and Insurance Board (WSIB) Claims – Reporting an Injury, information sheet for, HFD Career Staff, explains the process and checklist for submitting such claims. Part of the checklist states;
The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.
351
According to the In-Service Commercial Inspection Program – 2023, Questions and Answers; after how many re-inspections (with incomplete requirements) will action be taken by Fire Prevention?
3
352
According to the In-Service Commercial Inspection Program – 2023, Questions and Answers; you are an Officer performing an In-Service Inspection and you found no infractions, you shall leave a ___________ for the owner/RP:
Pamphlet (only)
353
According to the In-Service Commercial Inspection Program – 2023, Questions and Answers; you are the Officer performing an In-Service Inspection where a corrective action was taken during the inspection (i.e. exit door unlocked, blocked exit cleared) do you still need to fill out a F.S.I.R.?
No – A F.S.I.R. is not required to be issued if the violation was corrected at the time of inspection. It should be recorded within the FDM Notes that the violation existed and was corrected while in attendance for future reference
354
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; which following statement is incorrect about Inspections and Re-inspections?
Re-inspections will be tracked and recorded in the FDM Commercial Property Inspections. This process will include three re-inspections which will be conducted 45 days apart
355
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; the yearly maintenance requirement for fire extinguishers is:
All extinguisher types subjected to maintenance inspection
356
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; the monthly maintenance requirement for fire extinguishers is:
Visual Inspection
357
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; which of the following statements is incorrect regarding what crews will check for commercial cooking:
Crews will check fixed system manual station is not accessible or within 6’ off the floor
358
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; as the Officer inspecting commercial cooking equipment you notice that there is no exhaust protection systems, what are your next steps?
Terminate the inspection, leave no forms, enter an Incident Action Request (IAR) into the RMS for the Fire Prevention Division to follow up on
359
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; a crew member asks what they should be looking for relating to commercial cooking equipment and protection systems, what should you tell them?
All of the above:
— Grease (combustible deposits) accumulation on the filters, hood or surrounding area
— A fire extinguisher with a ‘K’ class rating provided in the kitchen area
— 6-month inspection (as per NFPA 96) has been done. Last inspection date will be found on a certificate or on the tag affixed to the remote activation station or system cylinder
360
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; you are in a doctor’s office that exceeds a maximum floor area of 200 m2, and a maximum travel distance of 25 m. Does the office require a secondary means of egress?
Yes, that is the correct criteria for this occupancy
361
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; you are in a doctor’s office that has a maximum floor area of 150 m2, and a maximum travel distance of 15 m. Does the office require a secondary means of egress?
No, there is no need for a secondary means of egress for this occupancy
362
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; all premises which are occupied as a Group A (Assembly) with a capacity of over __ persons and all premises licenced under the A.G.C.O. are required to post a capacity card which is issued by our Department.
60
363
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; which of the following is correct if a building is found to be vacant and open to trespass?
Both B) and C) are correct
— The Officer is to complete a Vacant Building Notification Sheet and fax a copy of this sheet to Municipal Law Enforcement, providing details of the unsecured condition
— A second copy of this notification sheet is to be faxed to the Fire Prevention Division
364
According to the July 2023 In-Service Commercial Inspection Program Manual; the Hamilton Fire Department recognizes that building owners may, in certain situations, require additional security measures on exit doors to prevent break-ins during times when the building is not occupied. During your inspection you notice two security devices (a slide bolt and a security bar) has been installed on the exit door. Is this acceptable?
No, there shall be one security device allowed on the exit door
365
According to 2023-AP-446 – In-Service Commercial Inspection Program, the purpose of the In-Service Commercial Inspections are necessary a number of reasons, which of the following reasons is incorrect?
They are necessary to complete under the City By-Law Division’s operator renewal schedule
366
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a building is determined to be a ‘high risk’ vacant building, the following action must be taken:
The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 indicating that the building is ‘high risk’ and email the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form
367
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a secured building is found to be unsecured, the following procedure is to be initiated:
The Officer will complete the Vacant Notification Sheet – 2022 and send the form via e-mail to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form
368
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); if during a monitoring inspection a building is found vacant, unsecured and is not recorded on the current monitoring list or as a result of a fire becomes vacant, the following action is to be taken:
The Officer is to fill out a Vacant Building Notification Sheet – 2022 and e-mail the form to all departments using the ‘Submit Form’ button on the bottom of the form to initiate the vacant building monitoring program
369
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); when should suppression crews check the FDM Vacant Property Inspection Kiosk for their respective station?
The start of each shift
370
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following statements regarding Vacant Building Inspection Protocol is incorrect?
Caution is to be exercised when using an exterior fire escape to determine access. Using the exterior fire escape shall be the main method utilized for inspections
371
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following statements regarding Vacant Building Inspection Protocol is incorrect?
Unsecured buildings are to always be secured at the first and second-floor / basement level
372
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); who will attend a scene after hours when the conditions of a building are unsafe as provided in the Building Code Act?
Building Inspector
373
According to the Vacant Building Procedure (August 2022); which of the following examples would not deem the building to have unsafe conditions under the Building Code?
Open windows and unlocked doors that would provide access to the building
374
The Product ID number for LPG is:
1075
375
The Product ID number for Ethyl Methyl Ketone is:
1193
376
The Product ID number for Cobalt Naphthenates, Powder is:
2001
377
The Guide Number for Crotonic Acid, liquid is:
153
378
The Guide Number for Crotonic Acid, liquid is:
124
379
The Guide Number for Radioactive Material, excepted package, articles is:
161
380
What product has an ID Number of 2200?
Propadiene, Stabilized
381
The Guide Number for the placard is:
134
382
The Guide Number for this placard is:
125
383
The Guide Number for this placard is:
122
384
A patient has been in contact with a product displaying the above placard. What first aid measure should be NOT be taken?
In case of burns, immediately cool affected skin for as long as possible with cold water
385
Which of the following health hazard(s) are correct for this product?
Both A & B are correct:
— May produce corrosive solutions with contact with water
— Inhalation or contact with vapors, substance or decomposition may cause severe injury or death
386
The rail car above is a:
Pressure Tank Car
387
The rail car above is a:
Non-Pressure Tank Car
388
The trailer above is a:
Flammable Liquid Trailer
389
The trailer above is a:
Dry Bulk Cargo Trailer
390
The trailer above is a:
Corrosive Liquid Trailer
391
The trailer above is a:
Liquified Compressed Gas Trailer
392
According to the ERG 2020 User’s Guide, recommended safety distances for ‘initial isolation’ and ‘protective action distances’ for a large spill is based on a release of _____ litres (_____ US gallons) or more.
208 L, 55 US Gallons
393
If 8000L propane tank is on fire, what is the minimum evacuation distance in meters?
661 m
394
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Large Package or from many Small Packages” of **Tetranitromethane ID 1510 (Guide 143)?**
0.4 km or (0.3 mi)
395
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of **Methyl Chloroformate ID 1238 (Guide 155)?**
0.2 km or (0.2 mi)
396
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Day from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of **Bromine ID 1744 (Guide 154)?**
0.8 km or (0.5 mi)
397
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Night from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of **Methyl Mercaptan ID 1064 (Guide 117)?**
0.3 km or (0.2 mi)
398
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” for a Spill during the Night from a “Small Package or Small Leak from a Large Package” of **Trichlorosilane ID 1295 (Guide 139) (spilled in water)?**
0.1 km or (0.1 mi)
399
According to the 2020 ERG Book, what is the recommended Safety Distances form Table -1 “First Isolate in All Direction” for a Spill from a “Large Package or From Many Small Packages” of **Liquified Gas, Poisonous, Oxidizing, n.o.s. (Inhalation Hazard Zone C) ID 3307 (Guide 124)?**
150 m or (500 ft)
400
According to the 2020 ERG Book, Table 2 “Water Reactive Materials Which Produce Toxic Gases” from a Spill of **(Aluminum Phosphide ID 1397 (Guide 139)** when Mixed with Water, Produces what type of Toxic-By-Inhalation (TIH) Gas?
PH3 (Phosphine)
401
According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards?
Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)
402
According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Health and Environmental Hazards?
Respiratory sensitizer, mutagen, carcinogen, aspiration hazard
403
According to the 2020 ERG Book, the following GHS pictogram indicates the following Physical Hazards?
Explosive, self-reactive, organic peroxide
404
According to the FPPA, which of the following is not found in the definition of ‘fire protection services’?
Remediation of hazardous materials whether they be biological, chemical, radiological, and/or physical and that have the potential to cause harm to humans, animals, or the environment
405
According to the FPPA, Part 2, (1) and (2), which of the following is not a municipal responsibility or a method of provided services?
In discharging its responsibilities, a municipality shall appoint a fire prevention bureau for code enforcement
406
According to the FPPA, a fire chief is the person who is ultimately responsible to the ________ of a municipality that appointed him or her for the delivery of fire protection services.
Council
407
According to the FPPA, Part III, 9 (2), which of the following is not a duty of the Fire Marshal?
To establish a program in the municipality which must include public education with respect to fire safety and certain components of fire prevention
408
According to the FPPA, Part V, 13 (1) A firefighter or such other person as may be authorized by the fire chief, the Fire Marshal or an assistant to the Fire Marshal may, without a warrant, enter lands or premises that are:
Both A & B are correct:
— Adjacent to the lands or premises on which a fire or emergency has occurred or is occurring, for the purposes of fighting the fire or of providing rescue or emergency services
— Adjacent to the lands or premises on which there is a serious threat to the health and safety of any person or the quality of the natural environment, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat
409
According to the FPPA, Part 5, Powers of entry, upon entering on land or premises, the Fire Marshal or a fire chief may do the following except:
Establish and maintain a mutual aid plan under which the fire departments that serve the designated area agree to assist each other in the event of an emergency
410
According to the FPPA Part V, Section 15 (1) Immediate threat to life, if the Fire Marshal, an assistant to the Fire Marshal or a fire chief has reasonable grounds to believe that a risk of fire poses an immediate threat to life, he or she may, without a warrant, enter on any land or premises and, for the purpose of removing or reducing the threat, may do the following except:
Make major repairs to existing fire safety systems
411
The Fire Protection and Prevention Act gives an assistant to the Fire Marshal the right to enter a property:
All of the above:
— Without a warrant
— To inspect the land and premise
— For the purposes of assessing fire safety
412
The following are designated as Inspectors in the Fire Protection and Prevention Act:
All of the above:
— The Fire Marshal
— A Fire Chief
— An assistant to the Fire Marshal
413
Under the FPPA, a municipality may pass by-laws as it determines necessary to:
Regulate fire prevention
414
The fine structure for a Corporation contravening the Fire Protection and Prevention Act is:
A maximum fine less than or equal to $500,000 for the first offence and not more than $1,500,000 for a subsequent offence.
415
The maximum fine for an individual contravening the Ontario Fire Code is:
$50,000 for the first offence
416
Under the FPPA every municipality must:
Establish a public education fire safety program including various fire prevention components
417
The FPPA specifies that the Ontario Fire Code applies to the unoccupied parts of a building that is under construction within the meanings of the Building Code Act if:
There has been no substantial work related to the construction of the building for at least six months
418
Under the FPPA, the power to enter and inspect land and premises:
Can be exercised at all reasonable times
419
According to the Fire Code, unless otherwise specified, the __________ is responsible for carrying out the provisions of this Code.
Owner
420
According to the Fire Code, a _________ ___ fire means a fire involving combustible cooking media such as vegetable oils, animal oils and animal fats
Class K
421
According to the Fire Code, a _________ ___ fire means a fire involving a combustible metal
Class D
422
According to the Fire Code, a _________ ___ fire means a fire involving combustible materials such as wood, cloth and paper
Class A
423
According to the Fire Code, _______ __________ means a construction assembly that acts as a barrier against the spread of fire and may or may not have a fire-resistance rating or a fire-protection rating.
Fire Separation
424
According to the Fire Code, _______ __________ means a draft-tight barrier within or between construction assemblies that acts to retard the passage of smoke and flame.
Fire Stop
425
According to the Fire Code, Subsection 2.8.2. Fire Safety Plans which of the following is incorrect. A fire safety plan shall provide for the emergency procedures to be followed in case of fire, including:
Exhaust and fire protection systems required under Article 2.6.1.12. shall be maintained in accordance with NFPA 96, “Standard for Ventilation Control and Fire Protection of Commercial Cooking Operations”
426
According to the Fire Code, Section 2.10, Day Care Centres, specifically 2.10.2. Combustible Materials; combustible artwork and teaching materials that are attached to walls shall not exceed _____% of the area of the walls.
20 %
427
According to the Fire Code, Section 2.13, Installing of Smoke Alarms, 2.13.1.2., despite the definition of owner in Article 1.4.1.2. in the case of a rental suite, only the __________ shall be considered to be the owner for the purposes of applying Article 1.2.1.1.
Landlord
428
According to the Fire Code, Section 2.13, Installing of Smoke Alarms, 2.13.2.1. (1) which of the following is incorrect regarding the installation of smoke alarms?
A smoke alarm shall be installed adjacent to a fuel fired appliance
429
According to the Fire Code, Part 3 Outdoor and Indoor Storage, Section 3.2.1. Outdoor Storage of Tires, individual storage piles of tires or shredded tires in a storage yard shall not be more than ____m in height and _____m2 in area.
3m in height and 100m2 in area
430
According to the Fire Code, Part 3 Outdoor and Indoor Storage, Section 3.3.2.10 (2), Pallet Storage, Indoor storage of combustible pallets is permitted in a building that is not sprinklered, provided the height of storage of combustible pallets is not more than ____ m.
1.2 m
431
According to the Fire Code, Part IV Flammable Liquids and Combustible Liquids, Subsection 4.2.4 Assembly and Residential Occupancies, no more than ____ L of flammable liquids and combustible liquids, of which not more than 10L may be Class I liquids, may be stored in a dwelling unit, and no more than ____ L of flammable liquids and combustible liquids, of which not more than 30 L may be Class I liquids, shall be stored in a garage or shed attached to a dwelling unit.
30L, 50L
432
According to the Fire Code, Section 5.6 Compressed Gas Cylinders, Subsection 5.6.2. Storage, which of the following is incorrect: Cylinders of flammable compressed gas which are heavier than air may be stored in rooms if they are stored:
The cylinders may be located in the basement or other areas below grade
433
According to the Fire Code, Part 6 Fire Protection Equipment, portable extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 18 kg shall be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than ____ m above the floor when the extinguisher is not equipped with wheels.
1.1 m
434
According to the Fire Code, Part 6 Fire Protection Equipment, 6.2.6.9. (3); Extinguishers for Flammable and Combustible Liquids, the distanced travelled to reach a portable extinguisher shall not exceed _____ m.
15 m
435
According to the Fire Code, Part 6 Fire Protection Equipment, Examination 6.2.7.2., portable extinguishers shall be ________ monthly.
Inspected
436
According to the Fire Code, Part 6, Section 6.3 Alarm and Voice Communication Systems for Life Safety, interconnected smoke alarms; where installed, each manual pull station shall be tested to ensure activation of the interconnected smoke alarms on a/an _________ basis.
Annual
437
According to the Fire Code, Part 6, Section 6.4 Standpipe and Hose Systems; hose stations shall be inspected ___________ to ensure that the hose is in proper position and that all of the equipment is in place and in operable condition.
Monthly
438
According to the Fire Code, Part 6 Fire Protection Equipment, Section 6.6 Water Supplies for Fire Protection; the water level in the fire pump reservoir shall be checked __________:
Weekly
439
According to the Fire Code, Part 6 Fire Protection Equipment, Section 6.7 Emergency Power Systems, the amount of fuel stored and connected to the emergency power system shall be sufficient to operate the engine for at least ____ hours.
2
440
According to the Fire Code, Part 9 Retrofit, access to exits; number and location; where the occupant load of a room exceeds 60 persons, at least _____ egress doorway(s) shall be provided.
Two
441
According to the Fire Code, Section 9.6, Buildings Higher than 6 Storeys in Building Height with Residential Occupancies, fire separations between occupancies; fire separations having a fire-resistance rating of not less than ____ _____ shall be provided between residential occupancies and other major occupancies.
1 hour
442
According to the Fire Code, Section 9.6, Buildings Higher than 6 Storeys in Building Height with Residential Occupancies, hydrants shall be located within ____ metres of the building face on which the principle entrance is located.
90
443
According to the Fire Code, Section 9.6, Buildings Higher than 6 Storeys in Building Height with Residential Occupancies, Subsection 9.9.5. Suppression; In buildings that are greater than ___ ______ in building height, a standpipe and hose system shall be installed in conformance with Subsection 3.2.9. of the 1994 Building Code.
3 Storeys
444
What is the permitted size for a “standard open air burning” outdoor fire under the City of Hamilton Open Air Burning By-law Open Air Burning permit?
2m x 2m 1m high
445
According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; who can enforce the Open Air Burning By-law?
All of the above:
— The Fire Chief
— The Chief Fire Prevention Officer
— An Assistant to the Fire Marshal
446
According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the required clearance that must be maintained between outdoor fireplaces and combustible materials?
3m
447
According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the required clearance between a “standard open air burning” size pile and combustibles/structures?
30m
448
According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; in a standard open air burn pile, vegetation must be cleared for what distance around the burning material?
2m
449
According to Open Air Burning By-Law No. 02-283; what is the maximum size permitted for a recreational campfire?
0.6m in diameter
450
According to the Fireworks By-Law; which of the following is **incorrect?** Family Fireworks sold in stores must:
Be located immediately adjacent to any flammable/combustible liquids offered for sale by the store
451
According to the Fireworks By-Law; which of the following persons are **not** authorized to enforce the Fireworks By-law (02-285)?
A firefighter
452
According to the Fireworks By-Law; locations where Family Fireworks are sold must be:
Posted with signs designating the area as a no smoking area
453
According to the Fireworks By-Law; what is the minimum distance from buildings that display fireworks are permitted to be set off?
10m
454
According to the Fireworks By-Law; who is authorized to enforce the Fireworks By-law?
All of the above:
— Every By-Law Enforcement Officer for the City of Hamilton
— Ever Police Constable
— Each member of Hamilton Emergency Services designated as an Assistant to the Fire Marshal
455
According to the Fire Route By-Law; the maximum fine for contravening any provision of the Fire Routes By-law (01-217) is:
$5,000, exclusive of costs
456
According to the Fire Route By-Law; the definition of prohibited “park” or “parking" under the Fire Route By-law (01-217) allows the following:
For the purpose of and while actually engaged in loading or unloading merchandise or passengers
457
According to the Fire Route By-Law; what vehicles may park in a fire route?
Only vehicles designated as authorized emergency vehicles and vehicles owned or operated by or on behalf of the City of Hamilton while by-law enforcement services are being carried out by the driver or occupant
458
As required by the Occupational Health and Safety Act, the physical condition of the workplace is required to be inspected by a Health and Safety representative:
Monthly
459
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, which of the following duties is **not** a duty of a supervisor?
To ensure that equipment and protective devices provided by the employer are maintained in good condition
460
Under Part V – “Right to Refuse or to Stop Work Where Health and Safety in Danger”, within the Occupational Health & Safety Act, until the investigation is completed, the worker _________________________ .
Shall remain at a safe place that is as near as reasonably possible to his or her work station
461
A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, Section 5 “The Rights of Workers” gives basic rights to workers, they are:
The Right to Participate, the Right to know, the Right to Refuse Work, the Right to stop Work
462
A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Workplace Violence and Workplace Harassment” states the following are **key requirements of the Act** with respect to workplace violence and workplace harassment:
Policies, Programs, Information and Instruction, Assessment of Risks, Results of an Assessment or Reassessment, Domestic Violence, General Duties and Application to Workplace Violence, and Work Refusal
463
A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, defines a Workplace as:
Any place in or near to where a worker works. A workplace could be a building, a mine a construction site, an open field a road, a forest or even a beach
464
A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Enforcement” states that if a person is critically injured or killed at a workplace, no person can alter the scene where the injury occurred in any way without the permission of an Inspector. This does not **apply** if it is necessary to disturb the scene in order to:
Save a life or relive human suffering, maintain an essential public utility service or public transportation system or prevent unnecessary damage to equipment or other property
465
A Guide to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, “Enforcement” states: The employer must post copies of both the notice of compliance and the original order in a place where they are most likely to be seen by workers for a period of:
14 days
466
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, under Duties of Employers and other person and specifically in Section 28(1)(b) a worker must:
Use or wear any equipment, protective devices or clothing required by the employer
467
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is not a duty of the Employer?
Work in compliance with the provisions of this Act and the regulations
468
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a Duty of a Supervisor?
Works in the manner and with the protective devices, measures and procedures required by this Act and the regulations
469
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Supervisor?
The equipment, materials and protective devices as prescribed are provided
470
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Supervisor?
Acquaint a worker or a person in authority over a worker with any hazard in the work and in the handling, storage, use, disposal and transport of any article, device, equipment or a biological, chemical or physical agent
471
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is a not Duty of a Worker?
Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of a worker
472
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, which of the following is incorrect, 28 (2) ‘No worker shall’?
Provide information, instruction and supervision to a worker to protect the health or safety of the worker
473
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, to protect a worker from workplace harassment, an employer shall ensure that the following are implemented except for:
The health and safety of workers employed by employers referred to in clause (b) is protected
474
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, if an employer becomes aware, or ought reasonably to be aware, that domestic violence that would likely expose a worker or to physical injury may occur in the workplace, the employer shall,
Take every precaution reasonable in the circumstances for the protection of the worker
475
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, in Part III.0.1 Violence and Harassment which is not a responsibility of an employer?
State the opinion of the Director as to the likelihood of the danger to the health of a worker, and the Director’s reasons in respect thereof, including the matters or causes which give rise to his or her opinion
476
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, upon refusing to work or do particular work, the worker shall promptly report the circumstances of the refusal to the worker’s employer or supervisor who shall forthwith investigate the report in the presence of the worker and, if there is such, in the presence of one of the following, except:
The Ministry of Labour inspector who shall issue orders to the employer
477
According to the Occupational Health and Safety Act, a worker may refuse to work or do particular work where he or she has reason to believe that,
All of the above:
— The physical condition of the workplace or the part thereof in which he or she works or is to work is likely to endanger himself or herself
— Any equipment, machine, device or thing he or she is to use or operate or the physical condition of the workplace or the part thereof in which he or she works or is to work is in contravention of this Act or the regulations and such contravention is likely to endanger himself, herself or another worker
— Workplace violence is likely to endanger himself or herself
478
According to the OHSA for reprisals, discipline and dismissal, no employer or person acting on behalf of an employer shall:
All of the above:
— Impose any penalty upon a worker
— Intimidate or coerce a worker
— Dismiss or threaten to dismiss a worker
479
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for:
Saving life or relieving human suffering
480
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for:
Maintaining an essential public utility service or a public transportation system
481
According to the Occupational Health & Safety Act, where a person is killed or is critically injured at a workplace, no person shall interfere with, disturb, destroy, alter or carry away any wreckage, article or thing at the scene of or connected with the occurrence until permission so to do has been given by an inspector except for:
Preventing unnecessary damage to equipment or other property
482
According to OHSA, Obstruction of Committee, which of the following is correct? No person shall knowingly
All of the above:
— Hinder or interfere with a worker selected by a trade union or trade unions or a worker selected by the workers to represent them in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act
— Furnish a committee, a committee member or a health and safety representative with false information in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act
— Hinder or interfere with a committee, a committee member or a health and safety representative in the exercise of a power or performance of a duty under this Act
483
The City of Hamilton Code of Conduct for Employees Schedule A: Conflict of Interest identifies Public Duty as a role of all city staff and the following would be a contravention of that public duty:
Providing critical comment on a City matter on social media as a representative of the Hamilton Fire Department
484
n the City of Hamilton Code of Conduct for Employees Schedule A: Conflict of Interest, if an employee has a conflict of interest they must notify their:
Immediate supervisor in writing
485
According to the Corporate Human Resources Policy – Code of Conduct for Employees Policy (Policy HR-01-09), it states that “employees are required to report all conflicts of interest that may come to their attention to the:
Director, Manager, or Supervisor
486
In accordance with the City of Hamilton, Code of Conduct for Employees Policy (Policy Hr – 01-09) Directors, Managers, Supervisors and Elected Officials must:
Ensure that employees review and sign off on the Code of Conduct annually
487
The vision of the 2016 – 2025 City of Hamilton Strategic Plan is:
To be the best place to raise a child and age successfully
488
The City of Hamilton Corporate Culture Pillars are comprised of five pillars two of which are:
Sensational Service and Courageous Change
489
The City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy applies to all employees except:
None of the above
490
Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy, Management is responsible to ensure that a workplace is free of Harassment and Discrimination by undertaking the following action:
When notified about a harassment or discrimination issue immediately contact a City of Hamilton Human Rights Specialist
491
Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy managers play a significant role in addressing potential issues of harassment. Which of the following is not the role of management under the policy?
Use discretion if an issue is raised by not taking immediate action but documenting the alleged incident for future action/reference
492
Under the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy workers have an important role to ensure that their work environment is free from harassment and discrimination. Which of the following actions are not the responsibility of the workers under the policy?
To address any harassing or discriminatory actions against a fellow worker by intervening on their behalf in a situation
493
According to the Harassment and Discrimination policy; harassment and discrimination can occur under which one of the following prohibitive grounds under the Ontario Human Rights Code:
All of the above
— Race
— Ethnic origin
— Creed (religion)
494
Which of the following behaviours is not deemed to be an example of Harassing or Discriminatory behaviours that fall under the City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy?
All of the above:
— Written or verbal abuse or threats
— Vandalism of personal property
— Storing of information that contravenes Federal Law on your work computer
495
Which of the following is not deemed an inappropriate sexual harassment behaviour that would fall under the City’s Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy?
Racial or ethnic slur
496
Under the Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues forming part of the City of Hamilton Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy which of the following actions is not an encouraged action for a worker to attempt before a formal complaint is filed:
Ask for a transfer from their current job to avoid further harassment
497
In accordance with the City of Hamilton Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues, an employee who has a complaint alleging violation of either the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy or the Personal (Workplace) Harassment Prevention Policy is encouraged to attempt the following before a formal complaint is filed:
Seek advice from a Union representative (where applicable)
498
In accordance with the City of Hamilton Procedure for Resolving Harassment & Discrimination Issues, a complaint alleging violation of either the Harassment and Discrimination Prevention Policy or the Personal (Workplace) Harassment Prevention Policy can be resolved through and informal resolution utilizing which of the following methods:
All of the above:
— Education/Trainingforemployees
— Changing work responsibilities between the aggrieved parties
— Involving the Manager/Supervisor to develop a management plan to ensure a respectful and supportive workplace
499
Under the Personal Harassment Prevention Policy, the City of Hamilton is responsible for:
Both A & B:
— Providing a workplace free from all forms of harassment
— Creating an environment that encourages the reporting of all incidents of personal harassments.
500
Under the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy, which behaviour is not an offending behaviour and not deemed a harassing behaviour:
None of the above
501
In accordance with the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy (Policy HR-62-13); any employee who is found to have violated this policy may be disciplined according to the severity of the actions, up to and including:
Termination with cause and without termination pay/severance
502
In accordance with the City of Hamilton Personal (Workplace) Harassment Policy (Policy HR 62-13) the following behavior or comment is not deemed to constitute harassment under the policy:
A performance related issue as part of a work related performance appraisal.
503
According to the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure; where an incident of workplace violence has occurred, it is to be investigated:
By the Manager or Supervisor
504
According to the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure; the City of Hamilton Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure the following is/are roles and or responsibilities of management:
All of the above:
—Advise workers of any actual or potential hazards related to workplace violence
— Co-operate fully in any investigation of a workplace violence incident
— Develop emergency response protocols for summoning immediate assistance in situations of possible Workplace violence
505
Under the Violence in the Workplace Prevention Procedure, employees are required to:
Immediately report all incidents of workplace violence to Supervisors or Human Resources
506
According to the City of Hamilton Communication Policy - Media Relations; staff cannot participate in social media on behalf of the City of Hamilton unless they have received authorization from:
Department Communications Officer/Public Affairs Coordinator
507
According to the City of Hamilton Communication Policy - Media Relations; Appendix 2 Social Media Use, the purpose and rationale in establishing a Social Media Use Policy is to:
Limit the liability of employees and the corporation
508
According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; use and the after-effects of alcohol and illicit drugs, or side effects of the use of medication, could impair employee performance or could compromise health and safety. Symptoms of impaired behaviour could include:
All of the above:
— Uncharacteristic or abnormal behaviour (e.g. euphoria, frequent or rapid mood swings, excitement, confusion, irritability, aggressiveness, remoteness)
— Smell of alcohol or drugs (on breath, or clothing, or in the air surrounding the employee)
— Diminished performance (e.g. sporadic work pace, neglect of duty, increase in mistakes, difficulty communicating or recalling instructions)
509
According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; warning signs of **possible** Substance Use Disorder could include:
Both A) and C) are correct:
— Disheveled or inconsistent appearance (e.g. always wearing long sleeves on very hot days, possibly intended to cover track marks on the arms)
— Frequent but unspecified medical complaints
510
According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; there are steps to take if you suspect an employee is impaired. Supervisors are required to exercise good judgement and to seek out advice from the Human Resources Division when required. The steps to be taken if you suspect that an employee is impaired will depend on the behaviour exhibited or the circumstance surrounding the suspicion. Which of the following is not a step a supervisor should take with a suspected impaired employee?
If it is necessary to remove the employee from the workplace, the employee shall drive themselves home
511
According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; you suspect that the employee is impaired. The employee is not in need of immediate medical care, you do not need to call 911, what are the next steps you should take?
If there is a reasonable cause to suspect that an employee holding a safety-sensitive position is impaired by alcohol or drug use (including medications), the employee must be immediately removed from duty; if possible, a second supervisor or manager should be a witness to the behaviours or circumstances which led the supervisor to suspect that the employee is impaired; remove the
employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for the behaviours or circumstances
512
According to the Corporate ‘Substance Use Policy for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; which of the following principles for substance use for safety-sensitive positions is correct?
All of the above:
— Supervisors need to recognize situations where an employee appears to be under the influence of a substance or who may have an alcohol or drug dependency and need to take all appropriate actions
— The City of Hamilton will follow all applicable health and safety, human rights and privacy legislation
— All employees in safety-sensitive positions understand that they must report and remain fit for duty at all times
513
According to the Corporate ‘Substance Use Policy for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; which of the following is not a responsibility of a supervisor?
Be aware that they will be either removed from duty or removed from the safety-sensitive position, and accommodated through other duties as possible, if there are concerns related t alcohol, cannabis, illicit drugs, or medication that might hinder their job performance or compromise health and safety
514
Under the City of Hamilton Substance Policy it is the expectation that employees:
All of the above:
— Must not report for duty while impaired by alcohol or illicit drugs
— Must not engage in unauthorized consumption of alcohol while on duty or in the workplace
— Must use medications responsibly ensuring their ability to perform work safely, competently or efficiently is not impaired
515
Under the City of Hamilton Substance Policy managers and supervisors are responsible for the following:
All of the above:
— Communicate with employees about the need to maintain a workplace that is free from substance abuse
— Identify and address any situation where an employee appears to be impaired/unfit to work that could impact their ability to perform their job safely
— Prohibit without exception the operation of a motor vehicle by an employee who appears impaired/unfit for work
516
According to the City of Hamilton Substance Use Procedure the following impairment behaviors would give rise to reasonable cause to believe that an employee is impaired/unfit for duty and may be unable to perform their job safely, competently and efficiently:
All of the above:
— Slurred speech
— Glassyeyes
— Smell of alcohol or drugs on breath or clothing or in the air surrounding the employee
517
According to the Substance Use Procedure, Steps - If It Is Suspected That An Employee Is Impaired /Unfit for Duty, a supervisor may undertake the following actions for an employee believed to be impaired/unfit for duty:
All of the above:
— Remove the employee to a private and safe location and seek an explanation for their behavior
— Seek the opinion of a second supervisor where possible to confirm your observation
— If there is reasonable cause to believe that an employee is impaired/unfit for duty, the employee must be removed immediately from the workplace
518
According to the Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; which of the following is not deemed “Authorized Users” of Computer and Network Services?
Cleaning staff with card access to City buildings
519
Under the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; the City has the right to monitor:
Both b) & c)
— All internet sites visited byan authorized city user
— All personal emails marked ‘private’
520
Under the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy, it is allowable to bring a flash drive from home and connect to a City computer provided:
You virus scan before using the device
521
According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; the following use(s) appropriate:
All of the above:
— Using the internet to conduct research on textile flammability
— Sending minutes of the OMFPOA chapter meeting
— Participating in work related mailing lists or forums
522
Under the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy, utilizing the following software during lunch time is acceptable:
None of the above
523
According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy the following is/are not considered a violation of the Policy:
None of the above
524
According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; when are users required to log off their computer?
When leaving the workplace for any extended period
525
According to the City of Hamilton Computer and Technology Acceptable Use Policy; which of the following is considered prohibited email/internet use?
Participating in internet chat groups that are not job related
526
According to Corporate Procedure ‘Substance Use for Safety-Sensitive Positions’; should the employee decline transportation and attempts to operate a vehicle, the manager will alert the ____________.
Police
527
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, Solar (PV) Modules (Panels) can include:
All of the above:
— Modules integrated into shingles
— A stand alone system
— Flat roof with ballasted or attached installation
528
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is incorrect with regards to an AC Disconnect?
The alternating current (AC) disconnect is a switch that is used to shut off power from the building to the combiner box
529
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, an _____________ is a device that is used to convert the direct current (DC) being generated by the solar panels into alternating current (AC)
Inverter
530
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is correct regarding battery banks?
All of the above
— Battery backup systems are not permitted for directly connected facilities
— Battery banks are present and located in systems that are NOT tied back into the grid
— Multiple battery banks can be found in closets, basements, crawl spaces, sheds and other unsuspected or unmarked locations
531
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is true regarding Photovoltaic Systems?
All of the above:
— Solar panels cannot be shut off
— There is always an electrical shock hazard
— Damage to panels from firefighting tools may result in both electrical and fire hazards
532
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is incorrect regarding Photovoltaic Systems?
A single solar panel does not produce enough electricity to kill a person
533
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, UL experiments found that with a 10 degree fog patter, the nozzle could be used as close as ___ feet (__ meters) on systems energized up to 1000 volts DC.
5 feet (1.5 meters)
534
According to the ‘Solar Electricity Safety Handbook for Firefighters’, which of the following is not a Tactical Consideration for a Photovoltaic System incident?
An incident in the night is not as dangerous as the light from the moon cannot produce dangerous levels of electricity
535
According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; the compartment surrounding the burning fuel plays an important role in fire development, impacting available ventilation, access to additional fuel, and heat losses and gains. Compartment fire development depends upon whether the fire is fuel-limited or ventilation-limited. What definition is correct regarding fuel-limited fires.
When sufficient oxygen is available for flaming combustion. The fuel’s characteristics, such as heat release rate (HRR) and configuration, control the fire’s development
536
According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; the compartment surrounding the burning fuel plays an important role in fire development, impacting available ventilation, access to additional fuel, and heat losses and gains. Compartment fire development depends upon whether the fire is fuel-limited or ventilation-limited. What definition is correct regarding ventilation-limited fires.
Fires that have access to all of the fuel needed to maintain combustion, yet the fire does not have access to enough oxygen to continue to burn and spread
537
According to IFSTA’s Structural Firefighting: Initial Response Strategy and Tactics; fires develop through four stages, they are:
Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, and Decay
538
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, products of combustion travel upward toward the top of a building. If fire does not generate enough heat to cause the smoke to rise to the top of the building, the temperature of the smoke will eventually equal that of the surrounding air. When this equalization of temperature occurs, the smoke loses its buoyancy, ceases to rise, and forms layers of smoke within the building. This is known as:
Stratification
539
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the natural vertical movement of heat and smoke (convection) in tall structures is known as _______________. This occurs because of differences in the density of the air inside and outside of these buildings (due to temperature differences inside and outside the structure). The greater the difference between the inside and outside temperature and the greater the building height, the greater the effect will be.
Stack effect
540
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, when heat, smoke, and other products of combustion rise until they encounter a horizontal obstruction, they will spread laterally until they encounter a vertical obstruction, then bank downward. This is known as __________________.
Ceiling jets, or mushrooming
541
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the construction of high-rise apartment buildings helps protect adjoining apartments and common halls, but provides an extremely hot environment for firefighters. Fires in tightly sealed high- rise compartments may become ventilation controlled and flash over when a window fails or when firefighters open a door to make entry to a fire room. This is known as ______________.
Heat intensity and compartmentation
542
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters must remember that steel structural members elongate when heated. A 50-foot (15 m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches (____ mm) when heated to a room temperature of about 1,000°F (538° C).
4 inches, 100 mm
543
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind driven fires is incorrect?
If windows in the fire area are intact, firefighters on attack lines do not need to maintain coordination with those tasked with ventilation from the floor above the fire or adjacent compartmented areas
544
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in a report published in 2009 by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), a number of full-scale experiments were conducted in a seven- story building in New York City. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Controlling doors is not effective way to interrupt the flow path in a building
545
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, standpipe systems are divided into three classes based on NFPA 14, Standard for the Installation of Standpipes and Hose Systems. Which of the three classes are designed only for fire department personnel or other trained personnel?
Class I
546
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, there are many problems to contend with during the evacuation of a high-rise building. Which of the following cause significant problems with evacuation?
All of the above:
— Locking exit doors
— Counterflow
— Stairway exit capacity
547
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, in other special high-rise occupancies, a person’s ability to evacuate may be hindered by age or medical condition. In hospital and nursing facilities, ___________________ procedures are generally used for patients who are nonambulatory.
Shelter in place
548
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the primary responsibility of the first-arriving company is to locate and identify the emergency and determine its scope. The first arriving fire unit must address the following except:
Utilize the Voice Communication System to update residents
549
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, firefighters have been injured or even killed as a result of misuse of elevators during a fire. Which of the following is not a safety consideration for using elevators at a high-rise call?
Only consider using elevators if the fire is above the 3rd floor
550
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following about wind-driven fires in high-rises is correct?
Wind-driven fire conditions are unique to the top floors of high-rise buildings
551
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, which of the following is correct about breaking glass at a high-rise fire?
All of the above:
— Breaking glass in high rise buildings can be a danger to firefighters inside the structure as well as firefighters and bystanders at ground level
— Glass falling from a high-rise may land approximately 200 feet (66m) from the base of the building
— After the window is broken, the area in front of the window (not the opening itself) should be blocked with a desk or chair to prevent firefighters from approaching the dangerous opening
552
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the situational report given periodically as needed throughout the incident to update Incident Command is known as a __________ report.
C.A.N. – Conditions, Actions, and Needs
553
According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, use of plain English in radio communications transmissions. No 10-codes or agency specific codes are used when using this language:
Clear text
554
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, smoke leaving the structure has four key attributes, they are:
Volume, Velocity, Density and Colour
555
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: yellowish-gray smoke emitting from cracks and seams with bowing black-stained windows along with sucking and puffing from the cracks and seams would indicate a:
Backdraft
556
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile event warning signs that include: smoke that is being trapped in a separate space above the fire, signs of growing fire and signs of smoke starting to pressurize would indicate a:
Smoke explosion
557
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, hostile warning event signs that include: turbulent smoke flow that has filled a compartment, vent-point ignition and a rapid change in smoke volume and velocity (getting worse in seconds) would indicate a:
Flashover
558
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ____________ occurs when smoke reaches sustaining temperatures that are above the fire point of prevalent gases. The gases can suddenly ignite when touched by an additional spark or flame. Fire spread changes from flame contact across content surfaces to fire spread through the smoke. This hostile event is known as a:
Flame-over
559
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, ___________ occurs when oxygen is introduced into a closed, pressurized space where fire products are above their ignition temperature. This hostile event is known as a:
Backdraft
560
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, _____________ occurs when air is introduced to a ventilation-limited fire. It can include smoke flame-over in flow paths and flashover of individual rooms that are heat saturated. This hostile event is known as:
Explosive growth phase
561
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, occurs when radiant heat reflected within a room or space. All surfaces reach their ignition temperature at virtually the same time due to rapid heat buildup in the space. This hostile event is known as:
Flashover
562
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect?
Faster smoke is further from the seat of the fire
563
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect?
Smoke cannot be used to help find the location of the fire in a building
564
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are on- scene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you?
— Warning sign of impending collapse in lightweight wood buildings
565
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, you are on- scene and notice brown smoke emanating from the structure. What does this indicate to you?
Usually a sign that a contents fire is transitioning into a structure fire
566
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, which of the following about smoke characteristics is incorrect?
Turbulent smoke that fills a compartment is a warning sign of a smoke explosion
567
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, determining whether a fire is a ‘contents’ or ‘structure’ fire is imperative. Which of the following fires would not be considered a content fire that could become ‘structural’?
A mattress fire in a bedroom
568
According to Jones & Bartlett’s Fire Department Incident Safety Officer, when establishing a collapse zone, the rule is to create a zone that is ____ to _____ times the height of the structure.
1.5 to 3 times the height of the structure
569
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit. It is the force that causes the flow of electricity, and it is measured in volts. Can be compared to waterpressure.
Voltage
570
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the difference in electrical potential between two points in a circuit. It is the force that causes the flow of electricity, and it is measured in volts. Can be compared to waterpressure.
Resistance
571
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is the process of mechanically connecting isolated wires and equipment to the earth, with sufficient capacity to carry any fault current and to ensure the wires and equipmentremain at the same potential (same voltage) as the earth (ground).
Grounding
572
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, ________ is a flow of electrical charge. It can be compared to the rate of flow of water in a pipe. Current is typically measures in amperes (or amps).
Current
573
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, overloading of electrical conductors and motors accounts for the majority fires caused by ___________. There is a danger when the amount of electrical current exceedsthe capacity conductors and equipment are designed to carry.
Overheating
574
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, related electricity on the ground to a rippling water in a pool is attempting to explain the effect known as “ ______ gradient”. It is also referred to as “ground gradient”
Potential
575
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the further apart that “X” and “Y” are, the greater the electrical contact hazard. This effect isreferred to as “______________ potential”
Step
576
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, in a manner similar to step potential, electricity would flow through your body if you were to pkace your hand on an energized source, while your feet were at some distance apart from thesource. The electricity would flow through the hand, arm, chest, abdomen, leg and foot to the ground. The difference in voltage (potential difference) in this case is referred to as “ ______ potential”
Touch
577
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, any victim of electrical shock should be assessed for the following effects of the body except for:
Permanent blindness from the sheer brilliance of the flash called “dazzle”
578
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, portable Generators should be of the ________ _________ type.
Bonded neutral
579
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, mounted power inverters and generators must be to the vehicle frame and all supplycircuits from the generator must be protected by ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI)
Bonded
580
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following equipment may create an arcing situation where there is open energized equipment?
All of the above:
— Stretchers
— Oxygen/Trauma Bags
— Portable radios
581
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, hich of the following is correct, a single wooden pole transmission line will range in voltage from:
69,000 – 115,000 V
582
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, an easy to remember rule for working around live high voltage transmission lines is to keep at least ___ metres (___ft.) away.
6 metres, 20 ft.
583
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, bystanders should be back at least ____ metres (____ ft.)
10 metres (33 ft.)
584
10 metres (33 ft.)
All of the above:
— Instruct the driver to “Stay in the vehicle....” Until the electrical utility personnel arrive
— Continually monitor the safe zone, secure the area and keep people away
— A vehicle’s tires may smoke or explode from heating up, but do not advise leaving the vehicle except in the event of fire
585
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, keep bystanders and non-emergency persons at least ____ metres (_____ ft.) from a vehicle tire pyrolysis incident.
100 metres (330 ft.)
586
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, a standard precautionary approach to fighting wood pole fires includes the following except:
Use a straight stream at 550 kpa (80 psi) at the nozzle
587
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, what action for fighting a fire on power line equipment is incorrect:
Use foam on live electrical equipment. Foam is not a good electrical conductor
588
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, an underground live power line is damaged by digging machinery. Which of the following is incorrect?
Determine the safe zone (15 metres, 49 ft.), secure the area, inform other emergency responders and keep people back
589
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, _____ _____ are metal conduits that are used within substations to carry the electricity from transformers to other devices inside the substation.
Bus Bars
590
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you have responded to a call with an injured person who has entered a substation. What action would you not do?
Cut the fence to gain patient access
591
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the minimum recommended distance for Fire Fighting inside Electrical Substations Switchyards is ____ m, ____ ft.
10 metres, 33 ft.
592
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, the majority of fires in substations involve combustible insulating oil used in transformers, circuit breakers, and capacitors. This insulating oil has a minimum flash point of 145 C (293 F) and will generate temperatures in excess of ______°C, (_______°F)
1000°C, (1850°F)
593
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, you are responding to a fire at a substation or switchyard and you suspect PCBs in the fire, which of the following actions should you not do?
Provide ‘stay-in-place’ direction for people located in path of the smoke plume
594
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, when rescuers or fire fighters are working from an aerial device, it is essential to maintain the limits of approach of ____ metres, (___ ft.) from the power line
3 metres, 10 ft.
595
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following Hazards in electrical vaults is in correct:
No risk of Explosion
596
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, access for emergency responders can be difficult. Which of the following is correct, emergency responders should never attempt to remove anyone from inside a vault unless:
Both A & B are correct
— They are certain that the power is off
— The victim is not in contact with an electrical power source
597
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not a fire hazard in illegal ‘Grow Ops’?
Improper use of Lithium-ion batteries
598
According to the Electrical Safety Handbook, which of the following is not an entanglement hazards in illegal ‘Grow Ops’?
Use of undersized extension cords
599
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600
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:
Bravo-Charlie corner
601
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:
Alpha-Bravo corner
602
According to the 2023 Initial Radio Reports, Follow-Up Reports, and CAN Reports presentation; you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:
Alpha-Delta corner
