Acronyms Flashcards
What does SAMPLE stand for?
Signs and Symptoms,
Allergies,
Medications,
Past Medical history,
Last oral intake,
Events leading up to injury/illness.
What is The Golden Hour (The golden period), and what is the ideal amount of time?
The time of injury to definitive care. Aim to stabilize, package and begin transport within 10 mins (Platinum 10)
Define ventilation
Physical act of moving air in and out of the lungs
Define oxygenation
Process of loading oxygen molecules into hemoglobin molecules in the blood stream. Required for internal respiration to take place.
Is it possible to have ventilation without oxygenation? If so, how?
Ventilation without oxygenation can take place when oxygen levels are depleted in environment.
What’s the abbreviation AVPU mean?
Awake and Alert?
Responsive to VERBAL stimuli?
Responsive to PAIN?
Unresponsive?
What are the questions you would use with AVPU?
Person,
Place,
Time,
Event.
LOC
Level of conciousness
ABCs
Airway,
Breathing,
Circulation.
MOI
“Mechanism of injury”, used for trauma. (I.E. What did this to them?)
NOI
Nature of illness. MEDICAL
MCI
Multiple casualty incident
Rapid extrication should only be used…
If all options were considered and its urgent.
If patient is trauma how to open airway?
Modified Jaw thrust. If cannot preform do head tilt chin lift.
IPASO
Inspect chest (Rate, depth, quality),
Palpate,
Ausciltate (Listen),
Seal or Stabilize,
Oxygenate.
1 obstruction of airways?
The tongue
What is Stroke Volume?
The volume that the left ventricle pushes out with one beat
What is Cardiac Output?
The amount of blood moved in one minute
How is Cardiac output calculated?
Stroke Volume x Heart rate
What does the I in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
INSPECT - Look for adequate breathing and specify that you look for equal chest expansion, observe the breath for rate and quality. Look at the thorax and neck for: deviated trachea, chest wounds and wall motion
What does the P in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
PALPATE- Feel around the neck and chest wall for crepitation or flail segments; palpate for equal chest wall expansion and for equal chest wall movement.
What does the A in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
AUSCULTATE - Listen to at least 4 breath sounds for the presence of breath sounds and any adventitious noises
What does the first S in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
SEAL - If the presence of chest wounds, sucking chest wounds cover with occlusive dressing or commercial chest seal.
What does the second S in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
STABLIZE - If there is a penetration from the chest (i.e. knife, pencil, foreign object) stable the object in place. DO NOT REMOVE!
What does the O in IPASSO stand for, and how should it be performed?
OXYGEN - Administer oxygen. Begin positive pressure ventilation if breathing is inadequate (less than 10 breaths per minute or any rate with poor ventilations) or unequal chest expansion/flail chest. Oxygen via non-rebreather at 15|pm as needed
What is the maximum time allowed to suction before stopping (on test?)
15 seconds
DCAP-BTLS, when is it used, and what does it stand for?
Used in Secondary assessment.
Deformities,
Contusions,
Abrasions,
Punctures,
Burns,
Tenderness,
Lacerations,
Swelling.
PEARRL is what?
Pupils Equal And Round, Reactive to Light.
What are ataxic respirations, and when might they occur?
Irregular or unidentifiable patterns. May follow severe head injuries.
What are Kussmaul respirations, and what circumstances might they be commonly found?
Deep rapid respirations. Common in patients w/ metabolic acidosis.
Define minute volume
The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs in 1 minute.
What is the formula to calculate Minute Volume?
Respiratory rate x Tidal Volume
What is Dead Space?
Portion of the respiratory system that has no alveoli and therefore little or no exchange of gas between air and blood occurs.
What is Tidal Volume, and what is the general Tidal Volume in an adult?
The amount of air that is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath, generally 500mL in an adult.
What does the O in OPQRSTI stand for?
Onset: “What were you doing when it started?”
What does the P in OPQRSTI stand for?
Provacation: “What makes it better or worse?”
What does the Q in OPQRSTI stand for?
Quality: “What does it feel like?” (stabbing, crushing, etc.)
What does the R in OPQRSTI stand for?
Radiation: “Does it radiate anywhere?”
What does the S in OPQRSTI stand for?
Severity: “Scale of 1 to 10 pain.”
What does the T in OPQRSTI stand for?
Time: “When did this start?”
What does the I in OPQRSTI stand for?
Interventions: “What did you do before we got here to treat this? Did you take anything?”
What do you do after going through OPQRSTI in a cardiac/respiratory patient?
Reassess Lung sounds. Check for ankle edema. Check for JVD Jugular venous distension, Determine quality of pulse in arms, reassess CTC.
What does CTC stand for?
Color temp Condition
First 6 steps in any medical/trauma assessment.
- BSI.
- Scene size up.
- Mechanism of Injury/Illness.
- How many patients?
- Do i need additional resources?
- Consider spinal immobilization.
First 4 things to do in your PRIMARY assessment?
- General impression of patient (Verbalized)
- Check for AVPU and orientation
- Obtain Chief Complaint
- ABCDs
What is Neurogenic shock?
Damaged cervical spine, which causes widespread blood vessel dilation
Obstructive shock
Mechanical obstruction for the cardiac muscle causing a decrease in cardiac output.
1. Tension Pneumothorax
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Pulmonary embolism
What does ROSC stand for?
Return of spontaneous circulation (when resuscitation is successful)
How many cycles of CPR before delivering an AED shock to a child or infant?
5 cycles of CPR. (Placed on anterior and posterior)
When to use Jaw thrust maneuver?
Suspected spinal or neck injury.
Breaths for BLS on a pediatric patient?
1 breath every 2-3 seconds at a rate of 20-30 Breaths per min for infant or children below puberty
What is Meningitis?
Inflammation of meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord. Signs and symptoms include fever, headache, stiff neck, altered mental status.
What is Meningococcal Meningitis, and what precautions should you take when dealing with a patient that has it?
One form of meningitis that’s HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS. Inflammation of the meningeal coverings of the brain and spinal cord. May present with flu-like symptoms. GLOVES AND MASK
What is Tuberculosis, and what precautions should you take when dealing with a patient that has it?
Chronic disease that usually strikes the lungs. Particles from respiratory tuberulosis can be ACTIVE FOR DECADES IF NOT IN DIRECT SUNLIGHT KYYYY. N95 or HEPA masks required for stopping droplet nuclei
What is Whooping Cough, what is it also know as, and who does it affect most commonly?
Also known as pertussis, air borne disease caused by bacteria, mostly affects children younger than 6 yrs old. WHOOP sound and fever associated with this
What is MRSA (Aka Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus)? What is a common way that it’s transmitted?
Bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to many antibiotics. WASH YOUR HANDS!!!!!. Most commonly transmitted from unwashed hands. Transmitted thru breaks in skin.
What’s the normal rates of breathing for adults, for children, and for infants?
Adults: 12-20 breaths per min
Child: 15-30 Breaths per min
Infant: 30-60 Breaths per min
What is Hypoxic drive?
It’s frequently found in which patients?
What should you be cautious about when dealing with said patients?
Frequently found in end stage COPD (Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) where the body operates on a different system to control breathing. Taking into consideration lowered oxygen levels to then make you breathe instead of high carbon dioxide because COPD makes expelling carbon dioxide hard :( Use caution when applying high levels of Oxygen to people with COPD for extended times, it may lower the drive to breathe for them. NEVER With-hold oxygen therapy from someone who needs it tho
Croup: Caused by what?
What is it secondary to?
Typically seen in which patients?
Hallmark signs?
What does it respond well to?
Caused by inflammation and swelling of the pharnyx, larnyx and trachea. Usually secondary to an acute viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. Typically seen in children between 6 MO of age and 3 years. Easily passed between children. Seasonal outbreaks of this peaks in late fall and during winter. Hallmark signs include stridor and a seal-bark cough. Also comes with a cold, cough, and low grade fever. Responds well to administration of humidified oxygen.
Epiglottitis: What is it?
Most common cause?
Most commonly seen in which patients?
What can a patient presenting with Epiglottitis NOT do?
What should you not do with a patient presenting with Epiglottitis?
What should you administer?
Life threatening. Inflammation / disease of the epiglottis. Bacterial infection is most common cause. Most commonly seen in infants and children but can be seen in adults. Airway is at risk for children and infants. Sore throat, high fever, will normally find children in tripod position and they CANNOT swallow. Will probably be drooling. DO NOT PUT ANYTHING IN THEIR MOUTH. Apply oxygen and do not do anything to cause the child to cry.
RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus): What is it?
Common cause of illness in who?
What serious illnesses can it lead to?
Ways it can be transmitted?
What can be administered?
What signs should you look for, and in which kind of patients suspected with RSV?
Common cause of illness in children. Causes infection in lungs, breathing passages and can lead to other serious illnesses such as pneumonia and bronchiolitis, as well as serious heart and lung problems in premature infants and in children who have depressed immune systems. HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS. Can be spread via droplets when patient coughs or sneezes. Can also survive on surfaces. including hands and clothing. Humidified oxygen is helpful for those suffering from this. Look for signs of dehydration in children with suspected RSV.
The Impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during the active compression-decompression CPR by?
Limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
If this patient recently traveled outside of the country, what (five) questions would you ask him?
Where did you recently travel?
Did you receive any vaccinations before your trip?
Were you exposed to any infectious diseases?
Is there anyone else in your travel party who is sick?
What was your source of drinking water?
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as?
A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
