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CompTIA Multi-Cert Overview > Acronyms > Flashcards

Acronyms Flashcards

Practice & Memorize these for your Knowledge and Exam readiness. (Multi-Cert Focused)

1
Q

What is the firmware that initializes hardware on boot?

A+ Core 1

A

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System)

A+ Core 1

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2
Q

What is the battery called on the Motherboard (MoBo) that is responsible for booting the microchip that retains BIOS settings & keeps the internal clock ticking?

A+ Core 1

A

CMOS Battery - Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (the microchip power source usually a CR2032 type)

A+ Core 1

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3
Q

Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor

A+ Core 1

A

CMOS - This is a special type of memory chip made from Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor technology. It stores essential system settings like:

~Date and time
~Boot device order
~Hardware configuration details

A+ Core 1

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4
Q

What is the acronym and full hardware component description for a computer’s brain?

A+ Core 1

A

CPU - The Central Processing Unit

A+ Core 1

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5
Q

GUI

A

Graphical User Interface

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6
Q

What does POST stand for and what is it’s function?

A+ Core 1

A

Power-On Self-Test - This is one of the very first functions of a working computer that initializes hardware diagnostics on startup. / The POST is a diagnostic program implemented in the system firmware that checks the hardware to ensure the components required to boot the PC are present and functioning correctly.

A+ Core 1

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7
Q

Random Access Memory is also known as _ _ _? What is it’s functionality?

A+ Core 1

A

RAM - It is the volatile memory within a computer that is fed the code from programs running in real-time. RAM provides high-speed temporary data storage for the CPU.
* Unlike storage drives accessed sequentially (one bit after another), RAM allows random access.

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8
Q

What is the most common format of RAM modules for PCs?

A+ Core 1

A

UDIMMs - Unbuffered DIMMs that are simply designed where the memory chips directly connect to the data pins.

A+ Core 1

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9
Q

DIMMs

A

Dual-inline memory module(s). This is the general format for modern RAM modules, as opposed to older (legacy) formats of SIMMs, Single-inline memory modules.

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10
Q

SODIMM

A+ Core 1

A

Small outline dual-inline module - Typically used for laptops and small computers.

A+ Core 1

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11
Q

What is DDR SDRAM and what are the fundamental functions underlying this format of RAM? (DRAM + SDRAM)

A+ Core 1

A

Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory = Dynamic RAM + Synchronous RAM - Dynamic RAM stores each data bit as an electrical charge within a single-bit cell. A bit cell consists of a capacitor to hold a charge (the cell represents 1 if there is a charge and 0 if there is not) and a transistor to read the contents of the capacitor. // Synchronous DRAM (SDRAM) is so-called because its speed is synchronized to the motherboard system clock.

A+ Core 1

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12
Q

MT/s

A

Mega Transfers per second.

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13
Q

What is the meaning of UEFI & what are the differences between it and it’s predecessor? (BIOS)

A+ Core 1

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface - this modern bootup-firmware provides support for 64-bit CPU operation at boot, a full GUI and mouse operation at boot, networking functionality at boot, and better boot security.

A+ Core 1

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14
Q

What are HDDs and SSDs and what are the differences between them?

A

Hard Disk Drives and Solid State Drives are both non-volatile memory hardware modules that provide a PC its primary persistent storage medium. HDDs work via a spinning disk and physical/mechanical memory controller. SDDs utilize flash memory technology to serve as a persistent storage medium. Typically, SSDs perform better in most areas than HDDs, especially in terms of read and write speeds. They are also less susceptible to wear and tear & are more resistant to issues caused by electric discharge.

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15
Q

What is an IP and what is it’s function?

A+ Core 1

A

Internet Protocol - Provides packet addressing and routing within a network of networks. For data to travel from one IP network to another, an intermediate system must forward it.

A+ Core 1

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16
Q

Explain what DNS is and it’s function

A+ Core 1

A

Domain Name System - Converts and maps Fully Qualified domain names into IP addresses. Very critical resource management to the modern functionality of the world-wide-web (Internet) and utilized by most TCP/IP networks.

A+ Core 1

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17
Q

What does DHCP stand for and what does it do?

A+ Core 1

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol - Ensures that data is received via recieved Receipts & Acknowledgement functions. This protocol automatically resolves events of packet loss. It automates the configuration of IP addresses, subnet masks and other options.
* Requires a DHCP server.
* Functions with a dynamic pool of IP addresses that are “leased” and assigns IP addresses to devices in real-time.

A+ Core 1

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18
Q

Wi-Fi

A+

A

Wireless Fidelity

A+ Core 1

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19
Q

TCP/IP stands for what?

A+

A

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

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20
Q

HDMI

A+ Core 1

A

High-Definition Multimedia Interface

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21
Q

SCSI

A+ Core 1

A

Small Computer System Interface

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22
Q

ATX

A+ Core 1

A

Advanced Technology Extended - It is the standard physical format/design profile for desktop computers which is based on the size of the MoBo. The standardized dimension for ATX motherboards is 12” x 9.6”

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23
Q

What is an APU and what is a GPU? What are the differences between them?

A+

A

APU stands for Accelerated Processing Unit & GPU stands for Graphics Processing Unit. An APU is a CPU that has Graphics Processing microarchitecture integrated into it. This means that an APU has more capabilities for handling graphic rendering while simultaneously processing like a stand-alone CPU. The GPU is a separate piece of hardware from the CPU and is dedicated solely to rendering graphics.

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24
Q
  1. MHz & GHz
  2. What Functions and Devices are measured in these?

A+

A

Megahertz & Gigahertz!
* These are units used to measure clock speeds, which determine how quickly a component can process instructions.
* The primary components that are rated in GHz are Processing Units (CPUs, APUs & GPUs). A processors clock speed dictates how many instruction calculations it can execute per second.
* RAM memory speeds are often measured in MHz. Faster RAM clock speeds can improve system responsiveness, but the benefits are less dramatic compared to differing processor clock speeds.

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25
Q

NIC

A+

A

Network Interface Controller, aka Network Adapters

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26
Q
  1. What does SAS mean?
  2. What are the formats and funtions of this interface?

A+

A
  • Serial Attached SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)
  • High-performance Data Storage: SAS is primarily designed for enterprise servers, data centers, and high-performance workstations. It delivers fast, reliable, and scalable data storage access. / Connecting Storage Devices: SAS connects hard disk drives (HDDs), solid-state drives (SSDs), and even tape drives to a computer system using a serial point-to-point interface.
  • Formats of SAS utilize specialized connectors that are smaller & more versatile than older SCSI connectors types.
  • SFF-8482: Common for internal drives using a single connector for both data and power.
  • SFF-8484: Internal multi-lane connector, supporting multiple SAS lanes for higher bandwidth.
  • SFF-8644: External multi-lane connector used for connecting enclosures containing multiple drives.
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27
Q

RAID

A+

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks

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28
Q
  1. What is an AP in networking terms?
  2. What is it’s function?

A+

A
  • Access Point
  • An AP provides a link from a wired connection to a wireless connection within a network. (Usually a RJ-45 cable connection from a switch or other ethernet connecting device)
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29
Q

Regarding Audio Output Formats

What does S/PDIF mean?

A+

A

Sony and Phillips (audio) Digital Interface - The only digital audio output format.

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30
Q

Regarding Peripheral Display Technology

  1. What does LED and OLED mean?
  2. What is the difference?
  3. How do they work?
  4. What are the plus & minuses of each?

This will require multiple explanations in response. Paraphrasing is ok.

A+ Core 1

A
  • Light-Emitting Diode & Organic Light-Emitting Diode (display)
  • LED technology used for displaying the GUI/picture is strictly the backlight technology that shines through the LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) screen in front of it. Most common LED display devices contain a panel of tiny LEDs grouped together that emit their own individual light (typically in RGB format). The LCD portion is made of a layer of liquid crystal molecules that are sandwiched between two polarizing filters. The intensity of the LEDs are controlled in tandem with the changing orientation of liquid crystals when an electric field is applied between the polarized filters that allow only a specific orientation of light to pass through. The LED backlighting passes through the LCD that manipulates it to form the color and picture that the end user can see. An LED screen is basically a hybrid-LCD display device.
  • OLED displays on the other hand operate in a fundementally different way. Each pixel is formed at the root through layers: The substrate as a base material, an anode operating as a positive electrode, organic layers that are emissive and conductive, and a cathode operating as a negative electrode. As an electric current flows between the anode and cathode, the organic layers become excited and emit light photons as they return to their normal state. RGB subpixels are combined in varying intensity to produce a wide spectrum of colors.
  • Key differences: OLEDs produce their own light at the pixel level which cuts out the need for any backlighting. LEDs cannot completely turn off individual pixels like OLEDs can. This means that LCDs by nature have some light leakage, even when displaying black, leading to less intense contrast. This is one key difference of display quality; OLEDs can produce “true-black” by the nature of design. Because of an OLED screens ability for self-illumination, they are thinner and lighter than LED displays. This also has led to the design of flexible displays too. (Curved screens)
  • Advantages of LED-hybrid devices: Lower cost, (although this is quickly changing as manufacturing adapts) can have a longer lifespan than OLEDs and are less sucseptible to “burn-in” from being on for extended periods of time.
  • Advantages of OLED devices: Superior picture quality because of deep blacks, a wider spectrum of coloration and faster response times. They have the ability to be designed with flexible displays, they are lighter and thinner, and can be viewed from much wider angles due to polarized filters being unnecessary by design.

A+ Core 1

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31
Q

What is a MAC address and what is it’s function/purpose?

A+

A

A Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique 12-character alphanumeric identifier that identifies a device connected to a network. MAC addresses are also known as physical addresses and are associated with a device’s network adapter or network interface controller (NIC).

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32
Q

What is a TRS connector? (Usually on the front panel of a PC)

A+

A

Tip Ring Sleeve - the legacy name for audio ports aka 3.5mm jack/mini-plug.

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33
Q

SMT

(related to processing)

A+ Core 1

A

Simultaneous MultiThreading: the ability of a single physical processor to simultaneously dispatch instructions from more than one hardware thread context. Because there are two hardware threads per physical processor, additional instructions can run at the same time.

A+ Core 1

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34
Q

CMP

A

Chip level MicroProcessing

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35
Q

Regarding CPU form factors

  1. What is LGA and PGA?
  2. What is the difference?

Intel vs AMD

A
  • Land Grid Array & Pin Grid Array
  • Intel uses the LGA & AMD uses the PGA (predominantly).
  • All CPU sockets use a zero insertion force (ZIF) modality of install.
  • LGA = Pins on socket, CPU goes on a hinged plate and then secured via lever/mechanism
  • PGA = Pins on CPU module, inserted into socket, aligned via pin 1 (dictated by an arrow usually) and uses a lever to secure it into place without the need for pressure applied.
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36
Q

Concerning Internet Connectivity

What is DVB-S?

A

Digital Video Broadcast Satellite - It is a means of receiving internet.

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37
Q

NTFS

A

New Technology File System - Windows’ native file system. Established in the early 1990s.

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38
Q

Concerning Security in IT

What does the acronym CIA stand for?

A

Confidentiality
Integrity
Availability

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39
Q

Related to Security

What is PGP?

A

Pretty Good Privacy is an encryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP is used for signing, encrypting, and decrypting texts, e-mails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions.
* Most commonly used to increase the security of e-mail communications.

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40
Q

Security related

XSS

A

Cross-Site Scripting: When an attacker exploits an input validation vulnerability to inject code into a trusted website or app.

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41
Q

CIFS

File System Related

A
  • Common Internet File System
  • CIFS is a dialect or implementation of the SMB protocol.
    • While originally distinct, the terms are often used interchangeably due to historical reasons.
      Modern Windows file sharing relies on newer SMB versions that offer greater capabilities than the original CIFS implementation.
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42
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell

43
Q

What are two versions of secure FTP?

A

SFTP: File Transfer Protocol over Secure Shell (SSH)
FTPS: File Transfer Protocol with Transport Layer Security (TLS)

44
Q

What does HTML stand for?

The Language of the Internet

A

Hyper Text Markup Language

45
Q

File Protocol Related

What does IMAP mean?

A

Internet Mail Access Protocol

46
Q

What does RDP stand for?

A

Remote Desktop Protocol: a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft Corporation which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.
* RDP uses port 3389 over TCP

47
Q

More Protocol … but Special

What is SNMP and why is it more advanced than other protocols?

A
  1. Simple Network Management Protocol
  2. SNMP can be utilized by network admins to monitor communications and take actions only administrative users would.
48
Q

Concerning networking

What is ARP? What is it used for?

hint a protocol

A
  • Address Resolution Protocol
  • ARP relates to MAC addresses & IP addresses: Acts as a bridge between the network layer and the data link layer in the OSI model. (L3 - L2)
  • Essentially, it translates IP addresses (which devices use to identify each other on a network) into MAC addresses (the unique hardware addresses of network interface cards).
49
Q
  1. What does FQDN stand for?
  2. What is the anatomy of a FQDN?

hint not hardware, protocols but a concept

A
  • Fully QualifiedDomain Name
  • First (not actually part of a FQDN but relevant) is the prefix or protocol identifier which is normally https:// or http://
  • Second, is the Subdomain [aka 3rd level domain]
  • Next is the Domain Name which can be broken down further into the 2nd level domain and Top-level domain which is the last portion of the FQDN. Top-level = the .com or .org etcetera
50
Q

Security Appliance Related

  1. What is an IPS?
  2. What is an IDS?
  3. What is the difference between the two?

Security+

A
  • Intrusion Prevention System
  • Intrusion Detection System
  • An IDS detects suspicious activities that indicate malicious activities by monitoring network activity (NIDS) and/or system logs of Host Devices (HIDS). When it detects potential intrusion/threats, it generates alerts or logs for review by security personnel. It does not actively block or stop attacks. (Passive device)
  • Similar to an IDS, an IPS monitors network traffic and/or system logs for suspicious activity. However, it also takes immediate action to block or stop detected attacks. It can drop malicious packets, block traffic from specific IP addresses, or take other actions to prevent the attack from succeeding. (Active device)
51
Q

COOP

Security+

A

Continuation Of Operational Planning
* A plan outlining how an organization will continue essential functions during and after a disaster or disruption.
Example: Having backup systems in place, alternative work locations, and procedures for communicating with employees and customers during a disaster.

Security+

52
Q

CDNs

Security+

A

Content Delivery Network(s)
* Networks of geographically distributed servers that store and deliver content to users based on their location.
Example: A website using a CDN like Cloudflare to serve content to users from servers located closer to them, reducing latency and improving page load times.

Security+

53
Q

P2P

a network model

Security+

A

Peer-to-Peer
* A decentralized network model where individual computers (peer hosts) share resources directly with each other, without the need for a central server (because of its dispersed nature). Example: BitTorrent

54
Q

SDN

Security+

A

Software Defined Networking
* An approach to networking that separates the control plane (decision-making) from the data plane (packet forwarding). This allows for more flexible and automated network management.

Security+

55
Q

GRS

Security+

A

Geo Redundant Storage
* A storage replication strategy where data is copied to multiple geographically dispersed locations for disaster recovery and high availability. E.g. A company storing its data in data centers on both the east and west coasts of the United States to ensure business continuity in the event of a regional disaster.

56
Q

VPC

Cloud+/Security+

A

Virtual Private Cloud
* A private network segment within a public cloud environment that allows you to isolate your resources and control network traffic.

57
Q

IaC

Security+

A

Infrastructure as Code
* The practice of managing and provisioning IT infrastructure through machine-readable definition files (code) rather than manual processes. Example: Using Terraform or Ansible to automate the creation and configuration of virtual machines, networks, and other cloud resources.

58
Q

DevSecOps

Security+

A

A software development approach that integrates security practices into every phase of the development and operations lifecycle. It aims to build security into the software from the start rather than adding it as an afterthought.
* Example: Implementing automated security testing tools in a continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline to catch vulnerabilities early in the development process.

59
Q

ACL

Security+

A

Access Control List
* A set of rules that govern access to a resource (e.g., file, folder, network). ACLs typically define which users or processes are granted access and what actions they can perform (read, write, execute, etc.).

60
Q

DOM

A

Document Object Model
* A tree-like representation of an HTML or XML document. It allows programs (like JavaScript) to interact with and manipulate the structure, content, and style of a web page. Example: Using JavaScript to dynamically change the text color of a heading element on a web page by accessing the DOM.

61
Q

CASB

A

Cloud Access Security Broker
* A software tool or service that sits between an organization’s on-prem infrastructure and cloud applications they use. It enforces security policies, protects data, and provides visibility into cloud usage.

62
Q

SCAP

Security+

A

Secure Content Automation Protocol
* A set of standardized specifications for automating security vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation. Example: Using SCAP-compliant tools to scan a network for vulnerabilities, assess compliance with security benchmarks, and generate reports.

63
Q

CVE

Security+

A

Common Vulnerabilities & Exposures
* A publicly available list of information security vulnerabilities and exposures. Each CVE entry is assigned a unique identifier (e.g., CVE-2023-1234) and a description of the vulnerability. Security teams use CVE information to prioritize patching and assess risk.

64
Q

What is a CVSS?
How does it relate to a CVE?

Security+

A
  • Common Vulnerability Scoring System
  • The CVSS is used to analyze and communicate the threat levels of individual vulnerabilities discovered. (CVE)
  • An open framework for communicating the characteristics and severity of software vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score to vulnerabilities based on factors like exploitability, impact, and complexity. There are 3 versions so far, although V.1 is rarely used anymore.
65
Q

NVD

Security+

A

National Vulnerability Database
* A U.S. government repository of standards-based vulnerability management data. It includes information on security vulnerabilities, impact assessments, and remediation guidance.
* A security analyst might use the NVD to look up a specific vulnerability (identified by its CVE number) to find details on the software affected, potential impact, and available patches.

66
Q

What are ISACs

Security+

A

Information Sharing and Analysis Centers are non-profit organizations that gather and share threat information, vulnerabilities, and best practices within specific industry sectors (e.g., healthcare, finance, energy). Examples: The Financial Services Information Sharing and Analysis Center (FS-ISAC), Health sector (H-ISAC), the Multi State/local, tribal, and territorial (SLTT) governments in the U.S. is the MS-ISAC.

67
Q

NIST

Security+

A

National Institute of Standards & Technology
* A U.S. government agency that develops and promotes measurement, standards, and technology to enhance economic security and improve quality of life. NIST publishes the Cybersecurity Framework, a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risk. They also maintain the NVD.

68
Q

WEP

A

Wired Equivalent Privacy
* An older security protocol for Wi-Fi networks, now considered obsolete and insecure due to vulnerabilities.

69
Q

TPM

Security+

A

Trusted Platform Module
* A hardware chip on a computer’s motherboard that provides secure storage for cryptographic keys, encryption, and other security functions. Example:A TPM might be used to securely store BitLocker encryption keys for a Windows system’s hard drive.

70
Q

NAC

Security+

A

Network Access Control
* A security approach that restricts network access to only compliant and authorized devices, often based on factors like software updates, antivirus status, or user credentials.

71
Q

SED

(hardware module)

Security+

A

Self Encrypting Drive
* A storage device (hard drive or SSD) that automatically encrypts all data written to it, protecting the data in case of theft or loss.

72
Q

Explain and Example what is a CSRF

Attack/Vulnerability Related

Security+

A

Cross - Site Request Forgery
* What it is: An attack that tricks a user’s web browser into executing an unwanted action on a trusted site when the user is already authenticated. This happens without the user’s knowledge or consent.
* How it works: Attackers typically embed malicious code or links in websites or emails. When a victim clicks the link or loads the malicious content while logged into a vulnerable site, the attacker’s code is executed within the context of the victim’s session, potentially performing actions like changing account settings, transferring funds, or posting unauthorized messages.
* Example: A malicious link sent via email could trick a user into deleting their social media profile without their intention.

73
Q

Explain and Example what is an SQLi

Attack/Vulnerability Related

Security+

A

SQL injection
* What it is: An attack where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an application’s input fields, ultimately executed by the application’s database.
* How it works: Attackers exploit vulnerabilities in web applications that don’t properly sanitize user input. By injecting SQL code, they can manipulate database queries, potentially retrieving sensitive information, modifying or deleting data, or even gaining control over the database server.
* Example: An attacker could inject code into a login form to bypass authentication or access the entire contents of a database.

74
Q

Explain and Example what is TOCTOU

Attack/Vulnerability Related

Security+

A

Time-of-Check to Time-of-Use
* What it is: A type of race condition vulnerability where an attacker exploits the time between when a system checks a condition and when it uses the result of that check.
* How it works: The attacker modifies the system state during that brief window of time, leading to unintended consequences. This often involves file access or permissions, where the attacker might replace a harmless file with a malicious one after the system has checked its permissions but before it’s executed.
* Example: An attacker could replace a legitimate configuration file with a malicious one after the system has checked its permissions but before the application reads the file.

75
Q

What is a WAF?
How does it work?

Security+

A

Web Application Firewall
* This is a specific type of application firewall designed to protect web applications from various attacks. It acts as a shield between your web application and the internet, filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic to and from the application.
* It uses RBF (Rules Based Filtering): a set of pre-defined rules or signatures to identify and block known attack patterns, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), & cross-site request forgery (CSRF).
* When a WAF detects a potential attack, it can take several actions:
* Block: Drop the malicious request, preventing it from reaching the web application.
* Challenge: Present a challenge (e.g., CAPTCHA) to the user to verify they are not a bot.
* Log: Record the details of the attack for later analysis and investigation.
* Alert: Notify security personnel about the detected threat.

76
Q

XDR

Security+

A
  • eXtended Detection Response
  • A holistic approach to security that combines data and threat intelligence from multiple security tools (e.g., endpoint detection and response, network traffic analysis, email security) to provide a unified view of threats across an entire environment.

Security+

77
Q

HIDS/HIPS

Security+

A

Host-Based Intrusion Detection // Prevention System
* Definition: Software agents installed on individual systems (hosts) to monitor for suspicious activity or known attack patterns. HIDS detects intrusions, while HIPS can also take action to prevent or block them.
* HIDS/HIPS provide an additional layer of security at the endpoint level, complementing network-based security measures.

Security+

78
Q

UBA

Security+

A

User Behavior Analytics
* A cybersecurity process that analyzes user behavior patterns to identify anomalies that might indicate a security threat.
* UBA can detect insider threats, compromised accounts, and other suspicious activities by establishing a baseline of normal behavior and flagging deviations from it.

Security+

79
Q

UEBA

Security+

A

User & Entity Behavior Analytics
* An advanced form of UBA that extends the analysis beyond individual users to include entities like devices, applications, and networks.
* UEBA provides a broader view of potential threats by correlating user and entity behavior, offering more comprehensive insights into security risks.

Security+

80
Q

EDR

Security+

A

Endpoint Detection & Response
* A security solution that continuously monitors endpoints (laptops, desktops, servers, mobile devices) for suspicious activity, providing real-time visibility into security incidents and enabling rapid response.
* EDR goes beyond traditional antivirus by using behavioral analytics, machine learning, and threat intelligence to detect and respond to advanced threats like ransomware, fileless malware, and insider attacks.

Security+

81
Q

CSP

Cloud+

A

Cloud Service Provider
* Big 3 = AWS / Amazon 🥇 Azure / Microsoft 🥈GCP / Google
* Each have built large data centers around the world to provide cloud services to their customers. They generally offer the same basic capabilities, such as* storage, compute, and dedicated connections,* but there are some variations in their offerings.

82
Q

What is SSL?
Why is it defunct?

Relvant to All Courses

A

Secure Sockets Layer
The predecessor to TLS protocols. Used to encrypt HTTP web traffic.
* TLS is essentially an updated and more secure version of SSL. While you might still hear the term “SSL” used informally, in practice, most secure internet connections today rely on TLS. The transition from SSL to TLS was driven by the need for stronger security, improved performance, and adherence to modern standards.

83
Q

MTU

Network+/Cloud+

A

Maximum Transmission Unit
* Maximum size of a packet that a server/appliance can intake (by limitation or configuration). If a packet of data exceeds a given MTU, it’s payload must be re-transmitted in smaller chunks.

84
Q

MPLS

Cloud+

A

Multi Protocol Label Switching
* A highly efficient data-carrying mechanism that operates at a layer often referred to as “Layer 2.5” because it sits between Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model.
* Makes use of Routing by Label: routers within the MPLS network forward packets based on their simple labels, cutting down on the complexity of routing tables.

85
Q
A
86
Q

ESD

A+ Core 1

A

ElectroStatic Discharge

A+ Core 1

87
Q

EMI

A+ Core 1

A

ElectroMagnetic Interference

A+ Core 1

88
Q

HDMI cables are rated in how many categories?
* What is the primary difference of them?

A+ Core 1

A

High-Definition Multimedia Interface cables are rated as either Standard (Category 1) or High Speed (Cat. 2)
* Standard HDMI cables can support up to 5 Gbps (gigabits per second) with resolutions up to 1080i or 720p. High Speed HMDI cables can support up to 10.2 Gbps or higher with resolutions of 1080p, 4K, 8K and supports advanced features such as 3D, Deep Color & higher refresh rates.

A+ Core 1

89
Q

PSU

A+ Core 1

A

Power Supply Unit

A+ Core 1

90
Q

PCIe

Bonus Points*: What are the 4 mainstream form factors?

A+ Core 1

A

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express

| 1x | 4x | 8x | 16x |

A+ Core 1

91
Q

Regarding motherboard components, transfer rates are measured in GT/s where throughput rates are measured in GB/s. What do each stand for?

A+ Core 1

A
  • GigaTransfers per Second
  • GigaBytes per Second
  • GT/s measures the raw speed of signal transfers, while GB/s represents the actual usable data throughput after accounting for encoding overhead and other factors.

A+ Core 1

92
Q
  1. What is ATA?
  2. what was it called in the past?
  3. What is it’s successor?

A+ Core 1

A
  • Advanced Technology Attachment: A standard interface for connecting storage devices to a computer’s MoBo [a 40-pin ribbon cable is most common for ATA connections]
  • Known previously as Integrated Drive Electronics
  • SATAor Serial ATA is the successor as a connection type due to it’s faster data transfer rates, smaller and more flexible form factors, and hot-swapping capabilities. SATA connections support only one device.

A+ Core 1

93
Q
  1. Breakdown APIPA and it’s definition.
  2. What address range does APIPA utilize? (IPv4)

A+ / Network+

A
  • Automatic Private IP Addressing
  • A built in feature of Windows operating systems that automatically assigns an IP address to a device when it cannot obtain one from a DHCP server.
  • IPv4 range: 169.254.0.1 → 169.254.255.254

A+ / Network+

94
Q

IANA

General Useful Knowledge

A

The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority is a department of ICANN (the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) that is responsible for:
○ Allocating blocks of IP addresses to Regional Internet Registries (RIRs).
○ Managing the root zone of the Domain Name System along with maintaining the top-level domain database (.com, .org, .net, country codes, etc.)
○ Assigns and Maintains unique identifiers for various internet protocols and parameters. (such as Port numbers and IP version rules)

95
Q

AAA

A+ Core 1

A

Authentication Authorization & Accounting

A+ Core 1

96
Q

What is the shorthand for the System Logging Protocol?

Bonus Review: What about it’s port # ?

A

Syslog
* Utilizes a Text-based format.
* Used for Event logging and security information management.
* Port 514 over UDP

97
Q

VDI

A+ / Network+

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
* Refers to using VMs as a means of provisioning corporate desktops.

A+ / Network+

98
Q

What is the IEEE

(organization)

A+ Core 1 (and basic IT knowledge/history)

A

The Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers

99
Q

What does the acronym ACPI denote?

Core 1

A

Advanced Configuration Power Interface

100
Q

What does APK stand for?

A

Android PacKage

101
Q

What is the MMC? What is it used for?

A+ Core 2 / Windows Related

A

MMC = Microsoft Management Console is a powerful tool that provides a unified interface for accessing and configuring different administrative tools, called snap-ins.
* Some core Functions of the MMC
Centralized management: Manage multiple system components from one console.
Customization: Create custom consoles and organize snap-ins.
Remote management: Manage remote computers.
Task automation: Automate tasks using scripting.
Security: Ensure authorized access.
Integration: Integrate with other tools (e.g., Active Directory).

102
Q

What is a CAB file?

Windows Related

A

It stands for Windows Cabinet file which is a common archive file format used by Microsoft. It contains the compressed version of different files, folders, and even other cabinet files. Microsoft employs CAB files to distribute Windows updates, drivers, and UWP app updates.

103
Q

What does RMM denote?

A+ Core 2 / Network+

A

Remote Monitoring & Management
* RMM software makes an IT administrator’s job more manageable by allowing administrators to have remote access to devices, utilize patch management software, manage anti-virus protection, and configure various network device setups.

104
Q

**

  1. What does the acronym GFS mean?
  2. Explain it’s schema for device backups.

A+ Core 2

A
  • Grandfather-Father-Son
  • Uses 3 or more backup cycles such as monthly, weekly, and daily.
  • The Grandfather is typically a full backup that is updated the least often; monthly updates for example. The Father stage is often a full backup that is updated more frequently (weekly/bi-weekly). Finally, the Son cycle is typically an incremental or differential backup done daily.

CompTIA Multi-Cert Overview (7 decks)

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