Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 > Acronyms > Flashcards

Acronyms Flashcards

1
Q

FDE

A

Full-Disk Encryption - fully encrypts the hard drive on a computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TPM

A

Trusted Platform Module - used for boot integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SDN

A

Software-Defined Networking - virtualized networking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DMZ

A

Demilitarized Zone - used to segment a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CSR

A

Certificate Signing Request

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CN

A

Common Name for a certificate for a system - typically the Fully Qualified Domain Name for a server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FQDN

A

Fully Qualified Domain Name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RFID

A

Radio Frequency Identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CSO

A

Chief Security Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell -secure protocol used to connect to command-line shells, and can be used to tunnel other protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

RBAC

A

Role-based Access Control - based on user’s position in the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MAC

A

Mandatory Access Control - permissions granted by security classifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DAC

A

Discretionary Access Control - allows data owners to set permissions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ABAC

A

Attribute-based access control - considers various attributes such as location, time, computer, username, password, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SED

A

Self-encrypting drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

XSS

A

Cross-site Scripting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

UEM

A

Universal Endpoint Management - A universal endpoint management (UEM) tool can manage desktops, laptops, mobile devices, printers, and other devices. UEM tools often use applications deployed to mobile devices to configure and manage them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CASB

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IPS

A

Intrusion Prevention System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IDS

A

Intrusion Detection System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

NIPS

A

Network Intrusion Prevention System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

NIDS

A

Network Intrusion Detection System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

NTLM

A

New Technology LAN Manager - an older Windows authentication protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

DMZ

A

De-militarized zone - provides limited access to public-facing servers for outside users, but blocks outside users from accessing systems inside the LAN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

VPC

A

Virtual datacenter?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CCMP

A

Counter Mode Block Chaining Message Authentication (CBC-MAC) Protocol, is AES-based, used by WPA2 to encapsulate traffic. Is the minimum acceptable encryption used by WPA3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CYOD

A

Choose Your Own Device - allows users to choose a device that is corporate-owned and paid for. Choices may be limited to a set of devices, or users may be allowed to choose essentially any device depending on the organization’s deployment decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BYOD

A

Bring Your Own Device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

COPE

A

Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled - provides devices to users that they can then use for personal use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

VDI

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure - used as an access layer for any security model where specialized needs or security requirements may require access to remote desktop or application services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

WPS

A

Wi-fi Protected Setup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

SSO

A

Single Sign-On

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SAML

A

Security Assertion Markup Language - used by many identity providers to exchange authorization and authentication data with service providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

LDAP

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

SSID

A

Service Set Identifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

VLAN

A

Virtual local area network - most often used to segment the internal network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TPM

A

Trusted Platform Module - a secure cryptoprocessor used to provide a hardware root of trust for systems. They enable secure boot and boot attestation capabilities and include a random number generator, the ability to generate cryptographic keys for specific uses, and the ability to bind and seal data used for processes the TPM supports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

OTA

A

Over-the-air updates are used by cellular carriers as well as phone manufacturers to provide firmware updates and updated phone configuration data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

SAE

A

Simultaneous Authentication of Equals - used in WPA3 (wi-fi protocol) to improve on previous models - WPA3’s Personal mode replaces the pre-shared key mode found in WPA2 with simultaneous authentication of equals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

HIPS

A

host-based intrusion prevention system - can monitor network traffic to identify attacks, suspicious behavior, and known bad patterns using signatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

DLP

A

Data loss prevention - these tools allow sensitive data to be tagged and monitored so that if a user attempts to send it, they will be notified, administrators will be informed, and if necessary, the data can be protected using encryption or other protection methods before it is sent
-designed to protect data from being exposed or leaking from a network using a variety of techniques and technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

FTP

A

File Transfer Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

PSK

A

Pre-shared Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol - can provide information about the status and configuration of her network devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SRTP

A

Secure version of the Real-Time Transport Protocol, used primarily for voice over IP (VoIP) and multimedia streaming or broadcast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ABAC

A

Attribute-based access control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

UEFI

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

BIOS

A

Basic input/output system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

CHAP

A

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol - periodically has the client re-authenticate. This is transparent to the user but is done specifically to prevent session hijacking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

PAP

A

Password Authentication Protocol - actually quite old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

HSM

A

Hardware Security Module -provide many cryptographic functions, but they are not used for boot attestation (TPM). A physical device that safeguards and manages digital keys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

OAuth

A

Open Authorization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

TOTP

A

Time-based one-time passwords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

HOTP

A

HMAC (hash-based message authentication code)-based one-time passwords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

HMAC

A

Hash-based message authentication code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Xaas

A

Anything as a service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security - a reliable method of encrypting web traffic. It supports mutual authentication and is considered secure. Created in 1999 as the successor to SSL (secure sockets layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

ECC

A

Elliptical-curve cryptography - faster than RSA-based cryptography because it can use a smaller key length to achieve levels of security similar to a longer RSA key (a 228-bit elliptical curve key is roughly equivalent to a 2,380-bit RSA key)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

SAN

A

Storage Area Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

RAID

A

Redundant Array of Independent Drives (disks). RAID 0, 1, 3, 5, 10

70
Q

IaaS

A

Infrastructure as a Service - provides the components of an entire network and systems infrastructure

71
Q

PaaS

A

Platform as a Service provides the framework and underlying tools to build applications and services
- In the platform-as-a-service (PaaS) model, the consumer has access to the infrastructure to create applications and host them

72
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service - the consumer has the ability to use applications provided by the cloud provider over the Internet. SaaS is a subscription service where software is licensed on a subscription basis

73
Q

RFC

A

Request for Comment - how Internet protocols are defined and documented

74
Q

PFS

A

Perfect Forward Secrecy - used to change keys used to encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that even if a compromise occurs, only a very small amount of data will be exposed

75
Q

DLL

A

Dynamic Linked Library

76
Q

DBA

A

Database Administrator

77
Q

CER

A

Crossover error rate - The crossover error rate (CER) is the point where the FAR (false acceptance rate) and the FRR (false rejection rate) cross over. CER provides a means of comparing biometric systems based on their efficiency, with a lower CER being more desirable

78
Q

FAR

A

False acceptance rate in a biometric system

79
Q

FRR

A

False rejection rate in a biometric system

80
Q

MSSR

A

Managed Security Service Provider - an outside company that handles security tasks. Some or even all security tasks can be outsourced, including intrusion detection and prevention (IDS/IPS) management, security information and event management (SIEM) integration, and other security controls

81
Q

UPS

A

Uninterruptible Power Supply

82
Q

MTR

A

Maximum Time to Restore

83
Q

API

A

Application Programming Interface

84
Q

OWASP

A

Open Web Application Security Project - the de-facto standard for web application security

85
Q

WAF

A

Web Application Firewall

86
Q

BIA

A

Business Impact Analysis

87
Q

DRP

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

88
Q

PDU

A

Power distribution Unit

89
Q

SED

A

Self-Encrypting Disk - automatic Full Disk Encryption

90
Q

SDK

A

Software development kit

91
Q

TOTP

A

Time-based One Time Password

92
Q

NIC

A

Network Interface Card

93
Q

RTOS

A

Realtime Operating System

94
Q

IaC

A

Infrastructure as Code - the process of managing and provisioning computer data centers through machine-readable definition files, rather than physical hardware configuration or interactive configuration tools

95
Q

API

A

Application programming interface

96
Q

CTR

A

Counter mode -makes a block cipher into a stream cipher by generating a keystream block using a non-repeating sequence to fill in the blocks. This allows data to be streamed instead of waiting for blocks to be ready to send

97
Q

SAN

A

Subject Alternate Name - SAN, or Subject Alternate Name, certificate allows multiple hostnames to be protected by the same certificate

98
Q

VIP

A

Virtual IP Address

99
Q

UEFI

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

100
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation - NAT gateways allow internal IP addresses to be hidden from the outside, preventing direct connections to systems behind them. This effectively firewalls inbound traffic unless the gateway is set to pass traffic to an internal host when a specific IP, port, and protocol is used

101
Q

Secure HTTP

102
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Management

103
Q

DLP

A

Data Loss Prevention

104
Q

HIPS

A

Host-based intrusion prevention system

105
Q

IdP

A

identity provider

106
Q

PEAP

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol - relies on server-side certificates and relies on tunneling to ensure communications security

107
Q

LEAP

A

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol - uses WEP keys for its encryption and is not recommended due to security issues

108
Q

EAP-TLS

A

EAP Transport Layer Security - requires certificates on both the client and server, consuming more management overhead

109
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions - provides the ability to validate DNS data and denial of existence and provides data integrity for DNS

110
Q

VDI

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

111
Q

PAM

A

Privileged Access Management (PAM) system

112
Q

EDR

A

Endpoint detection and response

113
Q

PEM

A

Privacy Enhanced Mail - the most common format issued by certificate authorities

114
Q

DER

A

Distinguished Encoding Rules - a binary form of the ASCII text PEM format

115
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol

116
Q

EV

A

Extended Validation certificates prove that the X.509 certificate has been issued to the correct legal entity. Additionally, only specific certificate authorities (CAs) can issue EV certificates

117
Q

NG SWG

A

Next-generation (NG) secure web gateways (SWG) add additional features beyond those found in cloud access security brokers and next generation firewalls. While features can vary, they may include web filtering, TLS decryption to allow traffic analysis and advanced threat protection, cloud access security broker (CASB) features, data loss prevention (DLP), and other advanced capabilities

118
Q

OCSP

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol

119
Q

CRL

A

Certificate Revocation List

120
Q

OCSP

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol

121
Q

RA

A

registration authority - receives requests for new certificates as well as renewal requests for existing certificates

122
Q

SRTP

A

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol - used primarily for Voice over IP (VoIP) and multimedia streaming or broadcast. does not fully protect packets, leaving RTP headers exposed, potentially exposing information that might provide attackers with information about the data being transferred

123
Q

AH

A

Authentication Header, protocol from IPSec - IPSec’s Authentication Header (AH) protocol does not provide data confidentiality because it secures only the header, not the payload. That means that AH can provide integrity and replay protection but leaves the rest of the data at risk

124
Q

COOP

A

Continuity of Operations Planning

125
Q

FEMA

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency

126
Q

SIP

A

Session Initiation Protocol

127
Q

CAM

A

Content-Addressable Memory - The Content-Addressable Memory (CAM) tables on switches contain a list of all the devices they have talked to and will give Naomi the best chance of identifying the devices on the network

128
Q

SLA

A

Service level agreement - defines the level of service the customer expects from the service provider. The level of service definitions should be specific and measurable in each area

129
Q

MOU

A

memorandum of understanding - a legal document that describes a mutual agreement between parties

130
Q

ISA

A

interconnection security agreement - an agreement that specifies the technical and security requirements of the interconnection security requirements of the interconnection between organizations.

131
Q

BPA

A

business partnership agreement - a legal agreement between partners. It establishes the terms, conditions, and expectations of the relationship between the partners

132
Q

DPO

A

Data protection officer - required by the GDPR. They oversee the organization’s data protection strategy and implementation, and make sure that the organization complies with the GDPR

133
Q

GDPR

A

General Data Protection Regulation - a standard for data privacy and security in the European Union (EU)

134
Q

SPOF

A

Single Point of Failure

135
Q

RTO

A

Recovery time objectives

136
Q

RPO

A

Recovery point objective - specifies the allowable data loss. It is the amount of time that can pass during an interruption before the quantity of data lost during that period surpasses business continuity planning’s maximum acceptable threshold

137
Q

MTBF

A

mean time between failures - the rating on a device or component that predicts the expected time between failures.

138
Q

MTTR

A

Mean time to repair - the average time it takes for a failed device or component to be repaired or replaced

139
Q

ARO

A

annual rate of occurrence - is the ratio of an estimated possibility that a threat will take place within a one-year time frame.

140
Q

AUP

A

acceptable use policy - describes the limits and guidelines for users to make use of an organization’s physical and intellectual resources. This includes allowing or limiting the use of personal email during work hours.

141
Q

BIA

A

Business Impact Analysis - helps to identify critical systems by determining which systems will create the largest impact if they are not available.

142
Q

CIS

A

The Center for Internet Security - benchmarks provide recommendations for how to secure an operating system, application, or other covered technology

143
Q

PCI-DSS

A

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard - a security standard that is mandated by credit card vendors. The Payment Card Industry Security Standards Council is responsible for updates and changes to the standard

144
Q

COPPA

A

Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act - a U.S. federal law

145
Q

NDA

A

Nondisclosure agreements - are signed by an employee at the time of hiring, and they impose a contractual obligation on employees to maintain the confidentiality of information. Disclosure of information can lead to legal ramifications and penalties. NDAs cannot ensure a decrease in security breaches

146
Q

SSAE

A

Standard for Attestation Engagements

147
Q

MSA

A

master services agreement - establishes a business relationship under which additional work orders or other documentation describe the actual work that is done

148
Q

TCP

A

Transmission Control Protocol - connection based protocol, slower but more reliable than UDP

149
Q

UDP

A

User Datagram Protocol - connectionless protocol, faster than TCP, less reliable

150
Q

IMAP4

A

Internet Message Access Protocol version 4

151
Q

POP3

A

Post Office Protocol version 3

152
Q

HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

153
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol over SSL/TLS

154
Q

SSL

A

Secure Sockets Layer

155
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security

156
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name System

157
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions

158
Q

SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

159
Q

RC4

A

Rivest Cipher version 4

160
Q

WEP

A

Wired Equivalent Privacy

161
Q

WPA

A

Wi-fi Protected Access

162
Q

WPA2

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2

163
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

164
Q

CCMP

A

Counter Mode/CBC-MAC Protocol - uses a 128-bit key, 128-bit block size, 48-bit initialization vectors

165
Q

WPA3

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access Version 3

166
Q

WPS

A

Wi-Fi Protected Setup

167
Q

EAP

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol

168
Q

EAP-TLS

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol Transport Layer Security

169
Q

EAP-TTLS

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol Tunneled Transport Layer Security

170
Q

PEAP

A

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol

171
Q

LEAP

A

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol

172
Q

EAP-FAST

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol - Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions