Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My Network+ N10-008 Deck > Acronym > Flashcards

Acronym Flashcards

1
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List: Rules that control network access based on IP addresses or other criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

APIPA

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing: Automatically assigns IP addresses in the 169.254.x.x range when no DHCP server is available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol: Resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses for communication on a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol: Exterior gateway protocol used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CIDR

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing: IP addressing scheme that replaces classful addressing with variable-length subnet masks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CSMA/CD

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection: Ethernet protocol that detects and handles collisions in shared media networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CSMA/CA

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance: Protocol used in wireless networks to avoid collisions by waiting for a clear channel before transmitting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol: Assigns IP addresses and related configuration information to network devices automatically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name System: Resolves human-readable domain names to IP addresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EIGRP

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol: Cisco-proprietary distance-vector routing protocol that supports multiple network layer protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FTP

A

File Transfer Protocol: Protocol used to transfer files over a TCP/IP network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol: Protocol used for transmitting web content over the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure: Encrypted version of HTTP that uses SSL/TLS for secure data transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ICMP

A

Internet Control Message Protocol: Network layer protocol used to send error messages and operational information about IP networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IGP

A

Interior Gateway Protocol: Routing protocol that operates within an autonomous system, such as OSPF or RIP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IP

A

Internet Protocol: Network layer protocol responsible for addressing and routing packets across networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ISP

A

Internet Service Provider: Company that provides internet access to customers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LAN

A

Local Area Network: Network that connects devices in a limited geographical area, such as a home or office.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MAC

A

Media Access Control: Unique hardware address assigned to network interfaces for communication on a physical network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MPLS

A

Multi-Protocol Label Switching: High-performance networking technique that directs data between nodes based on short path labels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MTU

A

Maximum Transmission Unit: Largest size of a data packet that can be transmitted over a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation: Translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for communication over the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First: Link-state routing protocol that uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the shortest path to each network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PoE

A

Power over Ethernet: Standard that allows Ethernet cables to deliver both data and power to devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

POP

A

Post Office Protocol: Protocol used to retrieve emails from a mail server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

QoS

A

Quality of Service: Techniques used to manage network resources and prioritize traffic to improve performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

RIP

A

Routing Information Protocol: Distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its metric.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

RSTP

A

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol: Improvement over STP that provides faster convergence and better performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol: Protocol used to send email between mail servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol: Protocol used to monitor and manage network devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell: Encrypted protocol used for secure remote login and other network services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

STP

A

Spanning Tree Protocol: Layer 2 protocol that prevents network loops by creating a loop-free logical topology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TCP

A

Transmission Control Protocol: Connection-oriented transport layer protocol that provides reliable data transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TFTP

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol: Simplified version of FTP that uses UDP for file transfers without authentication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security: Cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network, often used with HTTPS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

UDP

A

User Datagram Protocol: Connectionless transport layer protocol that provides faster but less reliable data transmission than TCP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

VLAN

A

Virtual Local Area Network: Logical grouping of network devices that allows them to communicate as if they were on the same physical network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private Network: Encrypted connection over a public network that provides secure communication between remote devices and networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

WAN

A

Wide Area Network: Network that connects devices over large geographical distances, often using leased lines or public networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

WAP

A

Wireless Access Point: Device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

WPA

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access: Security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for Wi-Fi networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

WPA2

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access 2: Improved version of WPA that uses stronger encryption and authentication methods.

43
Q

AAA

A

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting: Framework for controlling user access and managing network resources.

44
Q

AES

A

Advanced Encryption Standard: Symmetric encryption algorithm used for secure data transmission.

45
Q

AP

A

Access Point: A networking device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network.

46
Q

BSSID

A

Basic Service Set Identifier: A unique identifier assigned to a wireless access point.

47
Q

CDP

A

Cisco Discovery Protocol: Cisco proprietary protocol that discovers neighboring Cisco devices and shares information about them.

48
Q

CLI

A

Command Line Interface: Text-based interface used for configuring and managing network devices.

49
Q

CRC

A

Cyclic Redundancy Check: Error detection mechanism used to ensure data integrity during transmission.

50
Q

DFS

A

Dynamic Frequency Selection: Feature that allows wireless devices to automatically switch channels to avoid interference.

51
Q

DMZ

A

Demilitarized Zone: A network segment that sits between an organization’s internal network and the internet, providing a buffer zone for public-facing services.

52
Q

DoS

A

Denial of Service: An attack that overwhelms a network or system, making it unavailable to users.

53
Q

DSCP

A

Differentiated Services Code Point: A field in IP headers used for QoS traffic classification and prioritization.

54
Q

FQDN

A

Fully Qualified Domain Name: A complete domain name that specifies the exact location of a resource within the DNS hierarchy.

55
Q

GRE

A

Generic Routing Encapsulation: A tunneling protocol that can encapsulate a variety of network layer protocols inside virtual point-to-point links.

56
Q

IDS

A

Intrusion Detection System: A security system that monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts administrators.

57
Q

IPS

A

Intrusion Prevention System: A security system that actively blocks malicious traffic in addition to monitoring and alerting.

58
Q

LACP

A

Link Aggregation Control Protocol: A protocol used to bundle multiple physical links into a single logical link for increased bandwidth and redundancy.

59
Q

LLDP

A

Link Layer Discovery Protocol: A vendor-neutral protocol that discovers neighboring devices and shares information about them, similar to CDP.

60
Q

MACsec

A

MAC Security: A security protocol that provides encryption and authentication at the data link layer.

61
Q

MIMO

A

Multiple Input Multiple Output: A wireless technology that uses multiple antennas to transmit and receive data, increasing capacity and performance.

62
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control: A security approach that enforces policies on devices attempting to access a network.

63
Q

NAPT

A

Network Address Port Translation: A type of NAT that translates both IP addresses and port numbers, allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address.

64
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol: A protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers and network devices over a network.

65
Q

PAP

A

Password Authentication Protocol: A simple authentication protocol that sends plaintext passwords over the network.

66
Q

PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure: A framework for managing digital certificates and public key encryption.

67
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service: A protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access.

68
Q

RTT

A

Round-Trip Time: The time it takes for a packet to travel from the sender to the receiver and back.

69
Q

SaaS

A

Software as a Service: A cloud computing model that provides software applications over the internet on a subscription basis.

70
Q

SDN

A

Software-Defined Networking: An approach to networking that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized management and automation.

71
Q

SFP

A

Small Form-factor Pluggable: A compact, hot-swappable transceiver used in network devices for connecting to various types of media, such as fiber or copper.

72
Q

SLA

A

Service Level Agreement: A contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the level of service to be provided, including performance metrics and remedies for non-compliance.

73
Q

SMB

A

Server Message Block: A network file sharing protocol that allows applications to read and write to files and request services from server programs on a network.

74
Q

SSO

A

Single Sign-On: An authentication process that allows a user to access multiple services with a single set of login credentials.

75
Q

STS

A

Spanning Tree State: The operational state of a network device’s ports when using Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent loops in a network.

76
Q

TACACS+

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus: A security protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access, similar to RADIUS but more extensible and secure.

77
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Management: A network security appliance that combines multiple security functions, such as firewall, antivirus, intrusion prevention, and content filtering, into a single device.

78
Q

VLSM

A

Variable Length Subnet Mask: A technique that allows subnets to have different subnet masks, making more efficient use of IP address space.

79
Q

VoIP

A

Voice over Internet Protocol: A technology that allows voice calls to be made over IP networks, such as the internet, instead of traditional phone lines.

80
Q

IaaS

A

Infrastructure as a Service: A cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as virtual machines, storage, and networking.

81
Q

PaaS

A

Platform as a Service: A cloud computing model that provides a platform for developers to build, deploy, and manage applications without worrying about the underlying infrastructure.

82
Q

IGMP

A

Internet Group Management Protocol: A network-layer protocol used by hosts and adjacent routers to establish multicast group memberships.

83
Q

QoE

A

Quality of Experience: A measure of the overall performance of a service from the user’s perspective, taking into account factors such as reliability, usability, and response time.

84
Q

RAID

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks: A data storage technology that combines multiple disk drives to improve performance, reliability, or both.

85
Q

RPO

A

Recovery Point Objective: A metric that defines the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated in a disaster recovery scenario.

86
Q

RTO

A

Recovery Time Objective: A metric that defines the maximum amount of time it takes to restore a system after a disaster or outage.

87
Q

SIP

A

Session Initiation Protocol: A signaling protocol used to establish, modify, and terminate multimedia sessions, such as voice and video calls, over IP networks.

88
Q

SONET

A

Synchronous Optical Networking: A standard for high-speed, fiber-optic communication that uses a synchronous, time-division multiplexing scheme.

89
Q

SOHO

A

Small Office/Home Office: A term used to describe small businesses or remote workers operating from a home office.

90
Q

URI

A

Uniform Resource Identifier: A string of characters that identifies a name or resource on the internet, such as a URL or URN.

91
Q

URL

A

Uniform Resource Locator: A specific type of URI that provides the location of a resource on the internet and the protocol used to access it.

92
Q

URN

A

Uniform Resource Name: A specific type of URI that provides a unique and persistent identifier for a resource without specifying its location.

93
Q

VRRP

A

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol: A protocol that allows multiple routers to work together to provide redundancy and load balancing for a network.

94
Q

ZTNA

A

Zero Trust Network Access: A security model that requires strict verification and validation of every device, user, and application before granting access to network resources.

95
Q

ICMP

A

Internet Control Message Protocol: A network-layer protocol used to send error messages and operational information, such as echo requests and replies (ping).

96
Q

HSRP

A

Hot Standby Router Protocol: A Cisco proprietary protocol that allows multiple routers to work together to provide redundancy and load balancing for a network, similar to VRRP.

97
Q

OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First: A link-state, interior gateway routing protocol that uses a shortest-path-first algorithm to determine the best path for data transmission.

98
Q

MPLS

A

Multiprotocol Label Switching: A protocol-agnostic switching technique that improves network performance by directing data from one node to the next based on short path labels.

99
Q

DNSSEC

A

Domain Name System Security Extensions: A suite of extensions that adds security to the DNS protocol by providing origin authentication and data integrity.

100
Q

MAN

A

Metropolitan Area Network: A network that spans a city or campus. MANs are larger than LANs but smaller than WANs. It is often used to connect a number of LANs together to form a larger network.

101
Q

PAN

A

Personal Area Network: A network designed for personal or small workspace communication, often within a range of ten meters, such as within a home or office. Bluetooth is a common technology used in PANs.

102
Q

SAN

A

Storage Area Network: A network designed to provide high-speed connection in server-to-storage and storage-to-storage environments. It’s used extensively in enterprise-level storage.

103
Q

CAN

A

Campus Area Network: A network that spans multiple LANs but smaller than a MAN, such as in a university or local business campus.

My Network+ N10-008 Deck (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions