Acquired Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Factor V Leiden

Clinical Findings, Pathophysiology, Lab and therapy

A

Clinical finding: Caucasians; prone to thrombophilia as a result of venous thrombi

Pathophysiology: A mutation in the Factor V gene results in a conformation change in Factor V that makes its activated form resistant to Activated Protein C inhibition; Patients are unable to inhibit Factor Va

Lab: PT, PTT, plt count—normal
Diagnostic FVL PCR test

Therapy: antithrombotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prothrombin 20210

Clinical Findings, Pathophysiology, Lab and therapy

A

Clinical Findings: Caucasians; At risk for Venous thrombosis; FVL mutation

Pathophysiology: A mutation in the prothrombin gene which leads to elevated prothrombin levels; Increased Factor II leads to thrombin formation which leads to excess thrombus formation

Lab: Prothrombin levels are high end of normal PCR is diagnostic

Therapy: antithrombotic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Protein C Deficiency

Clinical Findings, Pathophysiology, Lab and therapy

A

Clinical Findings: Recurrent DVT at a young age and PE
Homozygous—purpura fulminans, VT and DIC at birth
Heterozygous—skin necrosis within warfarin treatment

Pathophysiology: The diminishes capacity to destroy Factor Va and VIIIa results in an increased production of thrombin

Lab: PC Assay decreased

Therapy: warfarin; Liver transplant will “cure”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protein S Deficiency

Clinical Findings, Pathophysiology, Lab and therapy

A

Clinical Findings: cases of arterial thrombi; warfarin induced skin necrosis possible

Pathophysiology: conditions where C4b-binding protein are increased; results in decreased functionality of Protein S to be able to act as a cofactor for Protein C, thus limiting the bodies capacity to inhibit factor Va and VIIIa, resulting in increased production of thrombin

Lab: PS Assays (total and free)

Therapy: warfarin, liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
Antithrombin Deficiency
Clinical Findings (Homozygote, Heterozygote), Pathophysiology (Type I and II), Lab and therapy
A

Clinical Findings: Recurrent venous thrombosis.
Homozygote: Type I: not compatible with life
Type II: severe thrombotic tendencies at birth
Heterozygote: asymptomatic when young; progress to more of DVT, PE with age

Pathophysiology: Type I—reduced synthesis; Type II—functional defect results in decreased normal inhibition of serine proteases of the coagulation cascade, leading to excess fibrin formation

Lab: AT assays

Therapy: Treatment with heparin and AT concentrates; Coumadin for long-term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Arterial thrombi

A

Formed in the arteries where blood flow is rapid; termed “white thrombi” because they are composed mostly of fibrin and platelets. Typically form at sites where endothelium is disturbed. Portions of the thrombus can break off (embolus) and lead to myocardial or cerebral infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Venous thrombi

A

Formed in areas where blood flow is slow and disturbed. Composed mostly of RBCs and fibrin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antithrombin Deficiency Type I, II, III

Pathophysiology
Homozygotes
Heterozygotes

A

Pathophysiology: leads to inability to properly inhibit coagulation specifically serine proteases

Homozygotes: Type I: cannot survive, Type II: severe prenatal episodes
Heterozygotes: Symptomatic after puberty (DVT, PE, recurrence) Less severe in heparin binding site variant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Protein C Deficiency types

Homozygotes
Heterozygotes

Type I, II

A

Homozygotes: Thrombotic issues at birth (purpura fulminans)
Heterozygotes: Often asymptomatic until another risk factor presents: DVT, PE

Type I
Quantitative antigen quantity has decreased functional activity
Type II
Qualitative antigen quantity has normal functional activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Protein S Deficiency types I, II, III

Pathophysiology

Types I, II, III

A

Pathophysiology: leads to inability to properly inhibit coagulation (specifically FVa and FVIIIa)

Type I
Quantitative Total protein: decreased
Free protein S: decreased
Protein S activity decreased

Type II
Qualitative Total protein normal
Free protein S: normal
Protein S Activity decreased

Type III
Increased C4bp and normal amounts of PS
Total protein S: normal 
Free protein S: decreased 
Protein S Activity: decreased
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Deep Vein Thrombosis:

pathophysiology, lab testing, treatment.

A

Patho: Development of venous thrombosis in the deep veins of lower limbs. Symptoms include localized pain, warmth, redness, and swelling

Lab Testing: Thrombin generation and fibrinolysis are often elevated in cases of DVT, D-dimer

Treatment includes anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pulmonary Embolism:

pathophysiology, lab testing, treatment

A

Patho: 50% of DVT cases lead to PE (termed venous thromboembolism—VTE), where a piece of the DVT breaks off and travels in circulation to the lungs, where it becomes lodged. Commonly fatal

Lab testing: venography or ultrasound confirmation

Treatment: anticoagulant therapy, such as heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heparin Cofactor II Deficiency

A

Low thrombotic risk; decreased inhibition of thrombin, typically only a problem if another deficiency is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hyperhomocysteinemia

A

Mutation for enzyme required for HC breakdown (CBS or MTHFR) results in increased HC; increased HC is associated with premature atherosclerosis and thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dysfibrinogenemia

A

Mutation that changes the structure of fibrinogen; decreases fibrinolytic activity because of 1) abnormal resistance to plasmin lysis or 2) reduced plasminogen activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Elevated Factor VIII

A

Increased Factor VIII levels increased thrombotic risk because of increased thrombin formation and/or diminished APC effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Factor XII Deficiency

A

Can be associated with thrombotic tendencies; thought to be the result because of Factor XII’s role in activation of fibrinolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Plasminogen Deficiency

A

The plasminogen deficiency can be either qualitative or quantitative. Less plasmin can be generated leading to decreased fibrinolytic capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)

A

vWF multimers cannot be properly cleaved; Ultralarge multimers directly agglutinate platelets causing thrombi

Deficiency in vWF cleaving proteases ADAMTS-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HIT (Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia)

A

antibody/heparin/PF4 binds to platelets and leads to platelet activation and clearance

HIT: thrombocytopenia without thrombosis
HITT: thrombocytopenia with thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HUS (Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome)

A

Thought to be a result of endothelial damage from bacterial toxin (typically form E. coli O157:H7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Malignancy

A

Thought to be the result of increased stasis, activation of blood coagulation and vascular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pregnancy/Oral Contraceptives

A

Quantitative changes to hemostatic proteins lead to increased thrombotic risk, stasis, and also changes in hormone levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Discuss each item as it relates to the Lupus Anticoagulant definition

A

An antibody that reacts/binds with phospholipids; prolongs hemostasis screening tests that utilize a phospholipid-based reagent (PT and PTT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Discuss each item as it relates to the Lupus Anticoagulant.

Naming confusion

A

Originally found in patients with lupus but more common with patients without lupus, associated with autoimmune diseases, drugs, infections.

Originally called anticoagulant because it prolonged screening tests like the PTT suggesting that it may have anticoagulant properties but later discovered that patient actually have thrombotic tendencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Discuss each item as it relates to the Lupus Anticoagulant.

Clinical manifestation, application and pathophysiology

A

Clinical Manifestations & Applications
Thrombotic in nature, increased risk for DVT, PE, arterial thrombosis, stroke

Pathophysiology
inhibition of endothelial cell anticoagulant processes and causing cells in contact with blood to acquire procoagulant phenotype; can interfere with protein C activation, inhibit heparin sulfate and prostacyclin release, and stimulate platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Discuss each item as it relates to the Lupus Anticoagulant.
Lab results and Diagnosis protocol

Implications in the Lab
Diagnostic Protocol
Confirmatory Procedures

A

Implications for the Laboratory:
PTT prolonged cuz LA antibody reacts with the phospholipids in the reagent. PT occasionally prolonged

Diagnostic Protocol
Screening procedures—two or more using single concentration of phospholipids
Demonstrate at least one prolonged phospholipid-based clotting test (PTT)
Demonstrate at least one additional prolonged LA screening test (PT)

Confirmatory procedures—modify abnormal screening procedure by altering phospholipid content of the test procedure, which demonstrates that the LA depends on phospholipid

28
Q

Dilute Russell’s Viper Venom Time (dRVVT)

Purpose/principle, Reagent, interpretation of results

A

Principle/Purpose: Also known as the Stypven Time; Reagent is added to patient plasma activating Factor and time to clot formation is measured.

Reagent: Russell’s viper venom, calcium chloride, and phospholipids

Interpretation of results: Ratio of patient’s clotting time to clotting time of normal control determined
Normal ratio is <1:2
Increased ratio suggests the presence of LA

29
Q

Plasma Clot time (PCT) for Lupus Anticoagulant

Purpose/principle, Reagent

A

Principle/Purpose: Reagent with a contact factor activator is added and the time to clot formation is measured (much like the PTT)

Reagent: contact activator

30
Q

Kaolin Clotting time (KCT) for Lupus Anticoagulant

Purpose/principle, Reagent, interpretation of results

A

Principle/Purpose: Kaolin is a substance that can activate contact factors; It is added to patient plasma and the time for the clot formation is measured

Reagent: kaolin (a neg charged particulate activator) instead of phospholipid

Interpretation of results: Test to control ratio of >1:2 indicates an inhibitor such as LA

31
Q

Discuss normal and abnormal bleeding disorders that can arise in newborns. Include a description of clinical manifestations and pathophysiology.

A

Neonates are at risk for coagulation issues naturally

The most common hemostatic problem is Vit K deficiency and immune thrombocytopenia

32
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

PT/PTT

A

Liver disease: PT, PTT, TT: increased because there is a lower amount of factors being produced

DIC: PT, PTT, TT: increased because of the consumption of factors

33
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

Platelet count

A

Liver Disease: decreased because of enlarged liver → enlarged spleen→ more platelets sequestered

DIC: decreased because of over activated and used up

34
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

D-dimer

A

Liver disease: normal: no clotting therefore no fibrinolysis

DIC: Increased: excessive breakdown of the clots that were forming

35
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

Blood Smear

A

Liver Disease: Macrocytes, target cells, acanthocytes

DIC: Schistocytes (RBC interacting with clots) and decreased platelets

36
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

Factor VIII assay

A

Liver Disease: Increased factor levels (acute phase reactant)

DIC: decreased because used up

37
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

Factor IX assay

A

Liver Disease: decreased (production)

DIC: decreased (used up)

38
Q

Discuss how each of the following lab tests could (or could not) be used to help differentiate liver disease and DIC.

Factor X assay

A

Liver Disease: decreased (production)

DIC: decreased (used up)

39
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

Clinical Manifestation and Pathophysiology

A

Clinical Manifestations
Bleeding: abrupt, hemorrhage, multiple sites

Pathophysiology
Inappropriate activation of thrombin that leads to a systemic activation of coagulation that consumes factors and inhibitors needed for hemostatic control

40
Q

Disseminated Intravasclar Coagulation

Lab Results and Treatment

A

Expected Lab Results
PT, PTT, TT elevated

Low fibrinogen

Platelet count decreased

DD abnormal

schistocytes RBCs are forced through fibrin clots, slicing them

Treatment Options
Eliminate the underlying cause; give RBCs, platelets, cryo or FFP
DO NOT USE FIBRIN INHIBITORS

41
Q

Liver Disease

Clinical Manifestations and Pathophysiology

A

Clinical Manifestations
Minimal bleeding except in severe disease states where ecchymoses and epistaxis are common

Pathophysiology
Liver is unable to keep up with its normal tasks of producing coagulation factors and removing activated factors
Most hemostatic proteins are synthesized in the liver and liver macs play a major role in the removal of activated hemostatic components

42
Q

Liver Disease

Lab Results and Treatment

A

Expected Lab Results
Platelet count decreased result of liver being enlarged→ enlarged spleen

PT, PTT,TT increased lower amount of factors being produced

Fibrinogen assay decreased lower amount of factors being produced

DDimer Normal

FDPs increased liver is unable to remove them in circulation

Blood Morph acanth, target cells, macrocytes changes in RBC membrane lipids

Treatment Options
Replacement therapy as needed

43
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency

Clinical Manifestations and Pathophysiology

A

Clinical Manifestations
Bleeding, HDN in newborns bleeding in the skin or from mucosal surfaces, circumcision

Pathophysiology
Not enough Vit K for Vit K dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) to be properly synthesized, unable to participate in fibrin formation. Caused by dietary insufficiency, prolonged antibiotic therapy.

44
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency

Lab Results and Treatment

A

Expected Lab Results

Platelet count normal

PT, PTT increased II, VII, IX, X are all vitamin K deficient

TT and Fibrinogen Assay Normal

DDimer normal

Protein C & S decreased

Blood smear normal RBCs

Treatment Options
Administer Vitamin K, replacement of normal flora in GI tract

45
Q

Primary Fibrinogenolysis

Clinical Manifestations and Pathophysiology

A

Clinical Manifestations
DIC like bleeding symptoms

Pathophysiology
Plasminogen becomes inappropriately activated to plasmin without thrombin generation

46
Q

Primary Fibrinogenolysis

Lab Results and Treatment

A

Expected Lab Results
PT, PTT, TT elevated plasmin degrades fibrinogen and other factors

Fibrinogen decreased

Platelet count normal

FDPs increased

DDimer normal

Treatment Options
Epsilon aminocaproic acid (EACA)—a plasmin inhibitor

47
Q
Oral Anticoagulants (ex. coumadin)
Mode of action, reason for use, lab monitoring, results
A

Mode of action: Prevents liver from using Vit K therefore prevent carboxylation of factors so they can’t bind to calcium and are rendered useless

Reason for use: Long term treatment of DVT and PE—pill

Lab monitoring:
PT—increased
INR—used to monitor oral anticoag dosing

Results:
Low/no oral anticoagulants: 1.0
Therapeutic Range: 2.0-4.0
Critical Value: 5.0

48
Q
Oral Anticoagulants (ex. coumadin)
potential complications, antidote, source
A

Potential complications
Bleeding: increased dose
Thrombosis: possible at start of the treatment, Vit K dependent factors (PS and PC) are inhibited before the rest therefore excess fibrin made and skin necrosis

Antidote: Heparin and coumadin till PS and PC and other proteins are replaced

Source:Vitamin K shot

49
Q

Unfractionated Heparin

Mode of action, reason for use, lab monitoring,

A

Mode of action: Given intravenously because can’t be absorbed via intestines

Reason for use: To prevent further thrombosis; presurgical; to treat inpatients with DVT

Lab monitoring: PTT—increased proportionally with dose
Anti-Xa assay—new way of monitoring heparin

50
Q

Unfractionated Heparin

potential complications, antidote, source

A

Potential complications: Bleeding—dose too high cuz to much fibrin inhibition
Thrombocytopenia—heparin induced
Osteoporosis and Resistance—long time use

Antidote: Decrease dose or discontinue it cuz short half life
Normal in few hours

Source: Intestines of pigs or cow lungs

51
Q

Explain why some hospital patients are receiving oral anticoagulants and heparin therapy simultaneously.

A

Heparin is given because it has an immediate effect. It is given intravenously so they must transition to oral anticoagulants so the hospital patients are on both of them since the oral anticoagulants take 3-5 days to take affect.

52
Q

What is the INR? How is it calculated? How are the results interpreted (include a discussion of normal, therapeutic, and therapeutic ranges)?

A

Calculation: Patient PT results in seconds/mean of PT reference range in seconds)
ISI: International Sensitivity Index—this number is assigned to thromboplastin reagent the closer it is to 1.0 the purer it is

Results
Normal (around 1.0)—patient not on oral anticoagulants
Therapeutic (2.0-4.0)
Critical (>5.0) Dose of oral anticoagulants too high

53
Q

Low Molecular Weight Heparin

Mode of action, indications for use, lab monitoring, potential complications

A

Mode of Action: Catalyzes the interaction of Antithrombin with Factor Xa, leading to increased inhibition of thrombin and other serine protease

Indications for Use: An alteration to unfractionated heparin for patients with thrombosis to treat current condition

Lab Monitoring: PTT not recommended; anti-Xa assay preferred

Potential Complications: Rare; reduced occurrence of HIT (compared to UFH) and fewer adverse complication

54
Q

Thrombolytic therapy

Mode of action, indications for use, lab monitoring, potential complications, examples

A

Mode of Action: Plasminogen activators used to lyse thrombi in vivo

Indications for Use: Myocardial infarction, acute stroke, PE, DVT, peripheral arterial occlusion

Lab Monitoring: TT is prolonged and can be used to monitor therapy; FDPs and DDimer would be elevated if therapy is working

Potential Complications: Lysis of normal fibrin clots can lead to bleeding

Examples: Streptokinase, anything with kinase

55
Q

Antiplatelet therapy

Mode of action, indications for use, lab monitoring, potential complications, examples

A

Mode of Action:Inhibits platelet function

Indications for Use: Current or at-risk arterial thrombosis patients; in dental implant procedures

Lab Monitoring: Platelet count might be monitored to watch for thrombocytopenia caused by certain drugs; Platelet aggregation and PFT tests would be abnormal

Potential Complications: Platelet like bleeding (petechiae, oozing), Thrombocytopenia

Examples: COX-1 inhibitors (Asprin), ADP receptor inhibitors (ex: Plavix), phosphodiesterase inhibitors; GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors

56
Q

What effect do thrombolytic agents have on lab results?

A

Increased: PT, PTT, TT, FDP, Plasmin
Decreased: Fibrinogen, Plasminogen, α2-antiplasmin

57
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

Antithrombin III

A

Chromogenic is a coupled enzymatic reaction with thrombin in the presence of heparin. Thrombin activity is inversely proportional to the amount of AT-III in plasma, p-nitroaniline is measured at 405nm. Normal 85-122%

58
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

Protein C

A

Deficiencies associated with Vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, DIC and oral anticoagulant therapy
Measures p-nitroaniline, amount directly proportional to amount of activated protein C.

59
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

Protein S

A

Measures the free protein S fraction. Clotting time prolonged in the presence of increased levels of protein S. Associated disease states include liver disease, diabetes mellitus, pregnancy, DIC, and oral anticoagulant therapy

60
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

Plasminogen

A

Coupled enzymatic reaction, utilizing streptokinase. Measures activity of p-nitroaniline. Useful in determining effectiveness of plasminogen therapy

61
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

Antiplasmin

A

Measures circulating α2-antiplasmin, useful in determining efficacy of fibrinolytic therapy. Normal levels 80-120%

62
Q

Discuss laboratory tests used in the evaluation of hypercoagulable states:

D-dimer

A

Detects unique breakdown products of fibrin; useful as a screen/negative predictor of DVT

63
Q

Electromechanical Methodology

A

Measures the time for clot formation by detecting changes in the reaction mixture

Fibrometer detects the completion of an electrical circuit that occurs when fibrin forms between two electrodes

64
Q

Optical Density Methodology

A

Detects changes in optical density that occur when fibrin forms

65
Q

Chromogenic Methodology

A

An enzyme (such as an activated coagulation factor) cleaves a chromogenic substrate that releases a chromophore tag; color intensity is measured spectrophotometrically and is directly proportional to the concentration of the chromophore tag.

66
Q

Antithrombin Deficiency Type I, II, III

A

Type I
Quantitative Concentration: decreased
Heparin cofactor: decreased
Progressive AT: decreased

Type II (Active Site Defect)
Qualitative Concentration: normal
Heparin Cofactor: decreased
Progressive AT: decreased

Type II (Heparin-binding Site Defect)
Qualitative Concentration: Normal
Heparin Cofactor: decreased
Progressive AT: normal