ACOFP site review questions Flashcards

1
Q

ecg finding with hypokalemia

A

prominent U waves, flattened or inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and conduction disturbances.

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2
Q

ecg finding with hyperkalemia

A

peaked t waves

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3
Q

kawasaki’s findings

A

fever, conjunctivitis, dry/cracked lips, cervical L.A., swollen red hands/feet with peeling,skin

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4
Q

sarcoidosis blood test

A

ACE level (angiotensin-converting enzyme )

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5
Q

HTN, hypokalemia, weakness, muscle cramps, polydipsia/polyuria - are signs of what disease? what tests should you do?

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s Syndrome), check AM levels: aldosterone level will be high while renin will be low or undetectable. The potassium level may be low or normal, CT for adrenal adenoma

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6
Q

SIADH is hyponatremia with ______ urine osmolality and _____ serum osmolality

A

HIGH urine osmolality (concentrated urine) despite LOW serum osmolality (in fluid overload, less than 280 mOsm/kg) , Urine sodium typically above 20 mEq/L

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7
Q

Baseline variability on a fetal heart rate monitor predominantly reflects

A

integrity of the autonomic nervous system. (moderate variability is considered normal)

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8
Q

loss of heart rate variability on a fetal heart rate monitor predominantly reflects

A

hypoxemia

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9
Q

variable decelerations on a fetal heart rate monitor predominantly reflects

A

cord compression

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10
Q

early decelerations in fetal heart rate predominantly reflects

A

Head compression

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11
Q

in Type 2 diabetes, insulin levels will be ______

A

elevated (ie HYPERinsulinemia )

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12
Q

Acute anterior shoulder dislocation with neurovascular compromise (you are the team doctor at the game)- treatment is….

A

IMMEDIATE attempt at reduction to minimize risk of permanent sequelae

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13
Q

Malaria treatment

1) Uncomplicated (Central America/Caribbean)
2) uncomplicated Chloroquine- resistant (South America, south Asia, Africa, or unknown)
3) complicated (inpatient therapy)
4) Drug of choice for pregnancy prophylaxis or treatment

A

1) chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine

2) atovaquone-proguanil(Malarone) OR
Quinine+doxy or tetracycline or clinda

3) IV artesunate (preferred)
4) chloroquine

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14
Q

High-pitched decrescendo Blowing diastolic murmur left sternal border

A

Aortic regurgitation

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15
Q
Large anterior fontanelle
Macrocephaly, large forehead
Trident deformity of the hands
Low nasal bridge
Shortened extremities
A

Achondroplasia
(Most common cause of dwarfism)
Diagnosed by genetic testing

“Trident deformity” = Short stubby fingers with separation between middle and ring finger (think “Spock” live long and prosper!)

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16
Q

Treatment for viral pericarditis

A

ibuprofen 300-800 mg PO q8h x2wks plus colchicine 0.6 mg PO BID x 3 mo

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17
Q

BP medication you should not use in heart failure

A

Diltiazem due negative inotropic effects

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18
Q

ACEIs) are______________ in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis

A

contraindicated

Starting an ACE inhibitor in a patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis will cause the creatinine to increase dramatically since angiotensin II usually constricts the efferent arteriole and blocking it will cause the efferent arteriole to dilation and thus less filtration.

19
Q

EKG:

Delta waves are __________

Delta waves are most commonly associated with_______

A

Slurring of upstroke of QRS w shortened PR interval (< 120ms)

pre-excitation syndrome such as WPW

20
Q

1) SVT treatment in unstable/hypotensive patient
2) acute mgmt of symptomatic SVT in stable pt - 1st choice med if vagal maneuvers don’t work
3) 2nd and 3rd choice for acute SVT
4) long term choices for SVT

A

1) cardioversion with sedation
2) IV adenosine
3) IV CCB or BB

4) CCB. BB. DIG. Amiodarone
radio frequency catheter ablation

21
Q

•Mobitz type I (Wenkebach) second degree AV block is _________

A

progressive PR prolongation before the dropped beat. There is only one non-conducted P wave

22
Q

Mobitz type II second degree AV block is _____________

A

usually indicative of underlying disease of the His-Purkinje conduction system and is characterized by episodic and unpredictable failure of the node to conduct the impulse (or more than one impulse) from the atria to the ventricles. The PR interval does not change prior to or after the dropped beats. There may be more than one non-conducted P wave.

23
Q

Third degree or complete AV block is __________

A

The P waves are completely dissociated from the QRS complexes.

The P waves (atrial activity) are said to “march through” the QRS complexes at their regular, faster rate. The QRS complexes (ventricular activity) also occur at a regular, but slower rate. There are two independent rhythms occurring simultaneously.

24
Q

What are Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

A

nifedipine, isradipine, felodipine, nicardipine, amlodipine

…. “ DihydropyridINES end in ‘PINE!!”

25
Q

What are nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

A

Diltiazem and verapamil

“NON dihydropyridines do NOT end in “pine”

26
Q

Blue toe syndrome is

A

characterised by tissue ischaemia secondary to cholesterol crystal or atherothrombotic embolisation. It leads to the occlusion of small vessels. Cyanosis of the digits may have several etiologies ranging from trauma to connective tissue disease

27
Q

specificity being the ability of a screening test to detect a

A

true negative, being based on the true negative rate, correctly identifying people who do not have a condition

28
Q

sensitivity being the ability of a screening test to detect

A

a true positive, being based on the true positive rate, reflecting a test’s ability to correctly identify all people who have a condition

29
Q

CHF
Potassium goal
Magnesium goal

A

K>4.0

Mg >2.0

30
Q

Veltassa (patiromer) is used for

A

Hyperkalemia

31
Q

Bupropion is contraindicated in which disorder

A

eating disorder/ bulimia or anorexia

32
Q

warfarin and life threatening bleeding

A

Start a 4-factor Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC, this is better than FFP) + Vitamin K 10mg IV (not IM)

33
Q

1st 3 steps in BLS?
ratio compressions/breaths in adult?
rate of compressions/minute?

A

first check a pulse, if no pulse -> CAB (Compressions first, followed by clearing of the Airway and rescue Breaths)
30 compressions at a rate of 100 compressions per minute to 2 breaths

34
Q

Which anemias could falsely elevate A1c

A

Iron deficiency anemia, b12/folate def (associated with decreased red cell turnover exposes the cell to glucose for a longer period of time,)

35
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis SCFE (“scifee”)

Most common in…..

A

Fat teenage boys!

Overweight males 12-16 yrs old

36
Q

Legg calve Perthes disease

Most common in….

A

Boys 4-10yrs

Avascular necrosis of proximal femoral epiphysis

37
Q

Rheumatic heart disease affects which valve most commonly

A

Mitral STENOSIS

38
Q

“Slapped cheek” rash

A

Erythema infectiosum

(Fifth disease). caused by Parvovirus B19

39
Q

Diaper rash

A) skin fold are spared

B) skin fold are affected

A

A) Diaper (irritant)dermatitis

B) candidal dermatitis

40
Q

Classic triad of

NEPHRITIC syndrome

A

HTN

HEMATURIA

DEPENDENT EDEMA

41
Q

Most common cause of NEPHROTIC syndrome

A

FSGC
Focal segmental GlomeruloSclerosis

This is most common glomerular disease leading to ESRD

42
Q

Most common cause of drug induced lupus - list top 3

A

Procainamide (IV anti-arrhythmic)
Hydralazine
Minocycline

43
Q

What is Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

A

is a temporary heart condition that develops in response to an intense emotional or physical experience. It’s also known as stress cardiomyopathy or broken heart syndrome.

44
Q

The rapid-acting insulin analogs (insulin lispro, lispro-aabc, aspart, faster aspart, and glulisine) have __________onset and __________ duration of action than regular insulin for pre-meal coverage

A

faster

shorter

they are better than regular insulin for postprandial coverage

(Rarely use regular insulin anymore)