ACFT systems THUR Flashcards

1
Q

To adjust the VHF frequency in the GTN750 which knob do we use on the ACP

A

VHF2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 methods to active ICS

A

VOX
1st detent on cyclic trigger
ICS/TX toggle switch on ACP
PTT switches on cabin drop leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To monitor VHF what selection di we need to make on ACP

A

VHF2 push button in the extended position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many audio control panels are in the EC135

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How could LH pilot transmit VHF without touching flight controls

A

ICS/TX switch on the ACP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which radio can we use with just the battery master switch on

A

VHF2 (750)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Garmin 650 and 750 transceivers provide two way communication in the ____ frequency

A

VHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The active frequency on the 750 is always displayed in what colour

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What device is used to make SAT calls

A

750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the sat phone antenna located

A

Under the vertical stab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Position of rotary transmitter to transmit on sat phone

A

SAT/5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which radios can we use to transmit on the 282.8Mhz (UHF)

A

Tac1, Tac2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which radio is can we use to transmit on 118.85 (VHF-Nowra tower)

A

VHF1, VHF 2, TAC1, TAC2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Keystroke sequence to control unit TAC radio 2

A

Enter, enter 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where are the antennas located for the TAC radios

A

V/UHF 1 - fenestron
V/UHF 2 - top engine cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which radios can we use to transmit or relay communications on using the communication controller

A

TAC1, TAC2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which device do we use to enter the ATC issued transponder code

A

IFF control unit (not Garmin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EC135 system provides for ADS-B ________

A

Out only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Quickest way to enter the ATC emergency code of 7700 would be to use the _______

A

“OFF STBY NORM EMER” gated switch set to EMER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NMS1 is associated with which Garmin device

A

GTN-650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Whilst e route on a nav sortie, within what tolerance is the GTN650/750 certified to prove actual position

A

2nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Depressing the NMS2 switch on the slanted console will achieve what

A

Isolate power from the GTN750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To identify a VOR frequency tunes into the 650, what audio would be selected/adjusted on the ACP

A

NAV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the difference between NMS1 and NMS2

A

Screen size and NMS1 is available prior to avionics master switch on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

GTN’s can store up to __ flight plans

A

99

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Each flight plan can have upto ____ way points

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 phases for constructing flight plan in GTN

A

Departure
Enroute
Approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Free steering mode of the DG shall only be used under what flight rules?

A

VFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many DME stations can be track at one point

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many receivers in the DF system

A

6

31
Q

The ADF loop and sense antennae is located ____

A

Under the tail pylon

32
Q

Free steering allows the AHRS to be decoupled from the ____ for a heading solution, preventing discrepancy

A

Magnetometer

33
Q

To execute the Nowra NDB RWY 26 Approach the pilot would enter the NDB frequency where?

A

ADF control display unit

34
Q

When is the DF most likely to be used?

A

Search and rescue

35
Q

Primary purpose of weather radar

A

Thunderstorm avoidance

36
Q

Below what height is the weather radar inhibited

A

50ft AGL

37
Q

How is the marker beacon system tested

A

Hi-low-test switch on marker beacon control panel

38
Q

When crossing over the outer marker, which light would illuminate on the marker beacon panel

A

O

39
Q

The FLI normally appears in Lane ___of the VEMD

A

1

40
Q

The pointer parameter will automatically default to ___ for engine start up

A

TOT

41
Q

CPDS is the collective term for?

A

CAD and VEMD

42
Q

How will new caution be displayed? How to acknowledge?

A

Clear all other cautions, yellow bars. By pressing the reset on cyclic or select function on CAD

43
Q

Three operating modes of CPDS

A

Normal - 3 screen
Derivative - 2 screen
Back up - 1 screen

44
Q

Will using FIRE button shut off fuel, even without fire

A

Yes

45
Q

Low rotor below 97% audio warning

A

Pulsed tone

46
Q

Bat temp audio warning

A

Gong

47
Q

FIRE audio warning

A

Bell

48
Q

LOW FUEL 2 Light on the warning panel indicated how much fuel left?

A

28

49
Q

LOW FUEL 1 or 2 lights on the warning panel take precedence over?

A

CAD display

50
Q

How is the airspeed tendency shown in the PFD

A

Small yellow T

51
Q

How does BARO knob function?

A

Rotate for set the pressure

52
Q

What does the EXT button do?

A

Display weather radar overlay on ND

53
Q

What does PFD button do go PFD

A

display composite mode

54
Q

Indication on the PFD of decision height

A

Red flashing DH

55
Q

2 RADALT aural warnings

A

Decision height and 100ft

56
Q

Each dot on the VSI represents an increase of _____

A

500 ft/ m

57
Q

What does the red line at 97%rpm indicate on triple tach gauge? Audio warning

A

Low Nr warning
Pulsed tone

58
Q

Stability inputs are ___ but smaller in magnitude than autopilot inputs

A

faster

59
Q

stability inputs _____ be felt by the pilot

A

will not

60
Q

autopilot inputs ______ be felt by the pilot

A

will

61
Q

are stability inputs inner/outer loop

A

inner

62
Q

what system has the EC135 autopilot evolved too?

A

single pilot IFR

63
Q

what 3 systems comprise the EC135 AFCS s

A

autopilot, 3 axis SAS, PItch dampner

64
Q

what 2 components make up the Yaw SAS

A

Yaw SEMA
Fibre optic Gyro (FOG)

65
Q

where does YAW SEMA 1 receive its info from?

A

Fibre optic Gyro

66
Q

state the 3 major components of the p&r SAS

A

AHRS1- detects attitude changes

SAS computer 2000- converts AHRS info into electrical signals for the EHA

Pitch and Roll EHAs - accept signals from SAS computer thus stabilising the helicopter through pitch and roll axes

67
Q

describe the functions of the autopilot basic mode

A

maintains attitude

68
Q

what is meant by the term “3-axis autopilot”

A

pitch/roll/yaw inputs via actuators

69
Q

what are upper modes and coupled modes

A

upper modes control hold a selected reference pitch and/or roll

coupled modes receive information from navigation sources

70
Q

safety features of the EC135 autopilot system

A

redundancy, limited control authority, duplex signalling, monitoring and control laws, malfunction indications, functionality in the event of a partial failure

71
Q

what 5 additional components does the autopilot add in addition to those covered in the SAS section

A
  • autopilot module
  • autopilot mode selector
  • a roll SEMA
  • an additional roll SEMA
  • LVDT
72
Q

in order for the autopilot to function fully, what switches on the overhead console must be on

A

Avionic Master 1 and 2, Inverter 2

73
Q

what conditions are required to conduct a test on the auto pilot system

A

1)AP OFF
2)engines idle
3)avionic mast 1 and 2 on and inverter on
4)all SAS systems enabled
5)cyclic centred
6) collective locked