ACES Flashcards

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1
Q

In the United States, Public Law 111-256 (Rosa’s Law) changed all references to “mental retardation” in federal laws to “intellectual disability.”

Onset during the developmental period that includes both intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

A

Intellectual Developmental Disorders

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2
Q

changed all references to “__________” in federal laws to “intellectual disability.”

A

Mental retardation

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3
Q

(reasoning, problem solving, planning, abstract thinking, judgment, academic learning, and learning from experience) confirmed by both clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing.

A

Deficits in intellectual functions

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4
Q

Intellectual Developmental Disorders result in failure to meet developmental and sociocultural standards.

Onset of intellectual and adaptive deficits during the developmental period.

A

B. Deficits in adaptive functioning

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5
Q

What is the primary basis for defining specifiers and factor determines the level of support required for an individual ?

A

Adaptive functioning

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6
Q

Overly high scores due to out-of-date test norms

A

Flynn effect

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7
Q

Communication, language, and/or motor or sensory function disorders

A

disorders can affect test scores

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8
Q

Using clinical evaluation and individualized, culturally appropriate, psychometrically sound measures

A

adaptive functioning assessed?

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9
Q

Adaptive functioning is assessed using both ________ and ________, culturally appropriate, psychometrically sound measures.

A

clinical evaluation; individualized

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10
Q

What are the following are associated difficulties with this heterogeneous condition of Intellectual Developmental Disorders?

A
  • Social judgment
  • Assessment of risk
  • Self-management of behavior and emotions
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11
Q

● overall general population prevalence of approximately 10 per 1,000; however.

● Global prevalence varies by country and level of development, being approximately 16 per 1,000 in middle-income countries and 9 per 1,000 in high-income countries.

A

Prevalence Intellectual Developmental Disorders

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12
Q

What developmental milestones may be delayed and identifiable within the first 2 years of life in severe cases of intellectual developmental disorders?

A
  • Motor milestones
  • Language milestones
  • Social milestones
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13
Q

What term is used for children younger than 5 years who have deficits that will eventually meet the criteria for intellectual developmental disorder

A

Global developmental delay

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14
Q

Syndromes are associated with intellectual developmental disorders?

A

Down Syndrome
Rett syndrome
Sanfilippo syndrome

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15
Q

● Genetic and Physiological:

Prenatal etiologies include genetic syndrome.

Perinatal causes include a variety of labor and delivery–related events leading to neonatal encephalopathy.

A

Risk and Prognostic Factors of IDD

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16
Q

What gender is more likely to be diagnosed with intellectual developmental disorders, both mild and severe?

A

Males

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17
Q

What are the conditions frequently co-occur with intellectual developmental disorders?

A
  • Mental disorders
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Epilepsy
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18
Q

This category is reserved for individuals OVER the age of 5 years when assessment of the
degree of intellectual developmental disorder.

A

Unspecified Intellectual Developmental Disorder (Intellectual Disability)

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19
Q

Persistent difficulties in the acquisition and use of language across modalities

Language abilities are substantially and quantifiably below those expected for age, resulting in functional limitations in effective communication, social participation, and academic achievement.

Onset of symptoms is in the early developmental period.

The difficulties are not attributable to hearing or other sensory impairment, motor dysfunction.

A

language disorder

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20
Q

(word knowledge and use) in Language disorder.

A

Reduced vocabulary

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21
Q

(ability to put words and word endings together to form sentences in language disorder.

A

Limited sentence structure

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22
Q

ability to use vocabulary and connect sentences to explain or describe a topic in language disorder

A

Impairments in discourse

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23
Q

● can be adept at accommodating to their limited language.
● may appear to be shy or reticent to talk.
● Affected individuals may prefer to communicate only with family members
● may co-occur with speech sound disorder

A

Associated Features language disorder

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24
Q

At what age does language disorder typically emerge?

A

Early developmental period

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25
Q

What age language disorder is diagnosed, It remains stable and typically persists into adulthood that is likely regarding its stability and persistence over time?

A

from 4 years of age

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26
Q

● Children with receptive language impairments have a poorer prognosis.
● Genetic and physiological. Language disorders are highly heritable.

A

Risk and Prognostic Factors of language disorder

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27
Q

This distinction may be difficult to make before 4 years of age.

A

Normal variations in language

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28
Q

Hearing impairment needs to be excluded as the primary cause of language difficulties.

A

Hearing or other sensory impairment

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29
Q

What condition is often characterized by language delay as the presenting feature pf language disorder

A

Intellectual disability (intellectual developmental disorder)

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30
Q

Which neurological disorder may be considered in the differential diagnosis of language disorder?

A

Epilepsy

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31
Q

Language regression, characterized by loss of speech and language in a child younger than 3 years, is often indicative of which disorder?

A

Autism spectrum disorder

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32
Q

What are the following disorders is language disorder strongly associated with?

A
  • Specific learning disorder
    • Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
    • Autism spectrum disorder
    • Developmental coordination disorder
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33
Q

Interference with speech intelligibility

A

speech sound disorder

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34
Q

At what age should typically developing children have overall intelligible speech according to the provided information?

A

4 years

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35
Q
  • Persistent difficulty with speech sound production that interferes with speech intelligibility.
  • The disturbance causes limitations in effective communication.
  • Onset of symptoms is in the early developmental period.
  • The difficulties are not attributable to congenital or acquired conditions.
A

Speech Sound Disorder Diagnostic Criteria

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36
Q

should be considered in the differential diagnosis of speech sound disorder, involving variations in speech influenced by regional, social, or cultural/ethnic factors?

A

Normal variations in speech

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37
Q

What condition may result in abnormalities of speech due to hearing impairment or deafness?

A

Structural deficits

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38
Q

Speech impairment may be attributable to a motor disorder, such as cerebral palsy.

A

Dysarthria.

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39
Q

Limited use of speech may be a sign of this

A

Selective mutism

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40
Q

Disturbances in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that are inappropriate for the individual’s age and language skills.

• Sound and syllable repetitions.
• Sound prolongations of consonants as well as vowels.
• Words produced with an excess of physical tension.

  • The disturbance causes anxiety about speaking or limitations in effective communication.
  • The onset of symptoms is in the early developmental period.
  • The disturbance is not attributable to a speech-motor or sensory deficit.
A

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering)

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41
Q

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (Stuttering) (e.g., pauses within a word).

A

Broken words

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42
Q

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (filled or unfilled pauses in speech).

A

Audible or silent blocking

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43
Q

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (word substitutions to avoid problematic words).

A

Circumlocutions

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44
Q

Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder (e.g., “I-I-I-I see him”).

A

Monosyllabic whole-word repetitions

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45
Q

When is dysfluency often absent in individuals with childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering)?

A

During oral reading singing talking to inanimate objects or to pets.

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46
Q

How might individuals with childhood-onset fluency disorder attempt to avoid dysfluencies?

A

Through linguistic mechanisms

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47
Q

Which of the following associated features is commonly observed in childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering), where the speaker may anticipate the problem with fear?

A

Fearful anticipation of the problem

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48
Q

By what age does childhood-onset fluency disorder typically occur for 80%–90% of affected individuals?

A

Age 6

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49
Q

What is the age range for the onset of childhood-onset fluency disorder, also known as developmental stuttering?

A

2 to 7 years

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50
Q

Dysfluencies of speech may be associated with a hearing impairment or other

A

sensory deficit

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51
Q

The disorder distinguished because of this, that occur frequently in young children.

A

Normal speech dysfluencies

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52
Q

What condition must childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering) be distinguished from, which are normal dysfluencies frequently occurring in young children?

A

Normal speech dysfluencies

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53
Q

When differentiating childhood-onset fluency disorder from Tourette’s disorder, what distinguishing feature should be considered?

A

Vocal tics and repetitive vocalizations

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54
Q

If onset of dysfluencies is during or after adolescence, it is an ?

A

adult-onset dysfluency

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55
Q

Impairment of the ability to change communication to match context or the needs of the listener manifestations of persistent difficulties in the social use of verbal and nonverbal communication in?

A

social (pragmatic) communication disorder

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56
Q

When do the symptoms of social (pragmatic) communication disorder typically onset?

A

In the early developmental period

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57
Q

What is the most common associated feature of social (pragmatic) communication disorder?

A

Language impairment

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58
Q

At what age is social (pragmatic) communication disorder considered rare among children?

A

Younger than 4 years

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59
Q

By what age should most children have developed adequate speech and language abilities to allow identification of specific deficits in social communication?

A

Age 4 or 5 years

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60
Q

Which condition is the primary diagnostic consideration for individuals presenting with social communication deficits, overlapping with symptoms of social (pragmatic) communication disorder?

A

Autism spectrum disorder

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61
Q

What disorder may cause impairments in social communication and functional limitations due to its primary deficits?

A

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

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62
Q
  • Persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction across multiple contexts, - Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests.
  • Highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in focus.
  • Hyper- or hyporeactivity to sensory input or unusual interest in sensory aspects of the environment.
  • Symptoms must be present in the early developmental period.
  • Symptoms cause clinically significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of current functioning.
  • These disturbances are not better explained by intellectual developmental disorder or global developmental delay.
A

Autism Spectrum Disorder

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63
Q

In Autism spectrum disorder for example, from abnormal social approach and failure of normal back-and-forth conversation.

A

Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity

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64
Q

In Autism spectrum disorder for example, abnormalities in eye contact and body language or deficits in understanding and use of gestures.

A

Deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviors used for social interaction

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65
Q

In Autism spectrum disorder for example, difficulties in sharing imaginative play or in making friends.

A

Deficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships

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66
Q

What is an example of stereotyped or repetitive motor movements, use of objects, or speech

A

flipping objects

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67
Q

What is an examples of Insistence on sameness, inflexible adherence to routines

A

Greeting rituals

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68
Q

Fixed beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence.

A

Delusions

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69
Q

Belief that one is going to be harmed, harassed by an individual, organization, or other group.

A

Persecutory delusions

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70
Q

Belief that certain gestures, comments, environmental cues, directed at oneself.

A

Referential delusions

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71
Q

When an individual believes that they has exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame.

A

Grandiose delusions

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72
Q

Individual believes falsely that another person is in love with him or her.

A

Erotomanic delusions

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73
Q

A major catastrophe will occur.

A

Nihilistic delusions

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74
Q

Preoccupations regarding health and organ function.

A

Somatic delusions

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75
Q

Belief that one’s thoughts have been “removed” by some outside force.

A

Thought withdrawal

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76
Q

Alien thoughts have been put into one’s mind.

A

Thought Insertion

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77
Q

Manipulated by some outside force.

A

Delusions of control

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78
Q

Perception-like experiences that occur without an external stimulus.

A

Hallucinations

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79
Q

Occur while falling asleep.

A

Hypnagogic

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80
Q

Waking up.

A

Hypnopompic

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81
Q

Typically inferred from the individual’s speech.

A

Disorganized thinking

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82
Q

Individual may switch from one topic to another.

A

Derailment

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83
Q

Answers to questions may be obliquely related or completely unrelated.

A

Tangentiality

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84
Q

Ranging from childlike “silliness” to unpredictable agitation.

A

Grossly disorganized

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85
Q

A marked decrease in reactivity to the environment.

A

Catatonic behavior

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86
Q

Resistance to instructions.

A

Negativism

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87
Q

A complete lack of verbal and motor responses.

A

Mutism and Stupor.

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88
Q

Reduction in the expressions of emotions (eye contact, intonation of speech).

A

Diminished emotional expression

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89
Q

Decrease in motivated self- initiated purposeful activities.

A

Avolition

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90
Q

Manifested by diminished speech output.

A

Alogia

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91
Q

Decreased ability to experience pleasure from positive stimuli.

A

Anhedonia

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92
Q

Apparent lack of interest in social interactions

A

Asociality

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93
Q

What is the minimum duration required for the presence of delusions in delusional disorder?

A

1 month

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94
Q

Which criterion distinguishes delusional disorder from schizophrenia?

A

Duration of symptoms

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95
Q

Applies when the central theme of the delusion is that another person is in love with the individual.

A

Erotomanic type

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96
Q

Having made some important discovery.

A

Grandiose type

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97
Q

Individual’s delusion that his or her spouse or lover is unfaithful.

A

Jealous type

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98
Q

Individual’s belief that he or she is being conspired against.

A

Persecutory type

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99
Q

Involves bodily functions or sensations

A

Somatic type

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100
Q

When no one delusional theme predominates

A

Mixed type

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101
Q

Dominant delusional belief not described in the specific types.

A

Unspecified type

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102
Q

Which phase of delusional disorder is defined as a period in which the symptom criteria are fulfilled for the first episode, with the disorder currently at its peak?

A

First episode, currently in acute episode

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103
Q

Which phase of delusional disorder refers to a period during which there is improvement after a previous acute episode, but the defining criteria of the disorder are only partially fulfilled?

A

First episode, currently in partial remission

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104
Q

Which phase of delusional disorder indicates a period after a previous episode during which no disorder-specific symptoms are present?

A

First episode, currently in full remission

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105
Q

symptoms must be present (at least one of these) for the diagnosis of brief of _______

  • Hallucinations
  • Delusions
  • Disorganized speech
  • Grossly disorganized behavior
A

psychotic disorder

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106
Q

What is the required duration for an episode of brief psychotic disorder?

A

At least 1 day but less than 1 month

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107
Q

What condition must be ruled out before diagnosing brief psychotic disorder?

A

Major depressive disorder with psychotic features

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108
Q

Which specifier for brief psychotic disorder indicates that symptoms occur in response to markedly stressful events?

A

With marked stressor

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109
Q

Which specifier for brief psychotic disorder should be used if the symptoms do not occur in response to markedly stressful events?

A

Without marked stressor

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110
Q

Which specifier for brief psychotic disorder indicates that the onset is during pregnancy or within 4 weeks postpartum?**

A

With postpartum onset

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111
Q

Which specifier for brief psychotic disorder should be used if the patient meets the criteria for catatonia associated with another mental disorder?

A

With catatonia

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112
Q

For a diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder, how many of the following symptoms must be present for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period, and which three are essential?

A

At least one of the following: Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech

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113
Q

What is the required duration for an episode of schizophreniform disorder?

A

At least 1 month but less than 6 months

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114
Q

Which conditions must be ruled out to diagnose schizophreniform disorder?

A

Schizoaffective disorder and depressive or bipolar disorder with psychotic features

115
Q

What must not be the cause of the disturbance to diagnose schizophreniform disorder?

A

The physiological effects of a substance

116
Q

Which specifier for schizophreniform disorder requires the presence of at least two of the following features: onset of prominent psychotic symptoms within 4 weeks of the first noticeable change in usual behavior?

A

With good prognostic features

117
Q

Which specifier for schizophreniform disorder is applied if two or more of the features for a good prognosis have not been present?

A

Without good prognostic features

118
Q

Which specifier for schizophreniform disorder should be used if the patient meets the criteria for catatonia associated with another mental disorder?

A

With catatonia

119
Q

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia, how many symptoms must be present for a significant portion of time during a 1-month period, and which three are essential?

A

At least two of the following: Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech

120
Q

How long must continuous signs of the disturbance persist for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A

At least 6 months

121
Q

What must be significantly impaired since the onset of the disturbance for a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

A

Level of functioning in one or more major areas (e.g., work, self-care)

122
Q

Which conditions must be ruled out to diagnose schizophrenia?

A

Schizoaffective disorder and depressive or bipolar disorder with psychotic features

123
Q

If mood episodes have occurred during the active phase symptoms of schizophrenia, what must be the case for a proper diagnosis?

A

They must be shorter in duration than the psychotic symptoms

124
Q

Which specifier for schizophrenia indicates a time period in which the symptom criteria are fulfilled during the first episode?

A

First episode, currently in acute episode

125
Q

Which specifier for schizophrenia indicates a period of time during which an improvement after a previous episode is maintained during the first episode?

A

First episode, currently in partial remission

126
Q

Which specifier for schizophrenia indicates a period of time after a previous episode during which no disorder-specific symptoms are present during the first episode?

A

First episode, currently in full remission

127
Q

Which specifier for schizophrenia indicates that there have been multiple episodes and the individual is currently in an acute episode?

A

Multiple episodes, currently in acute episode

128
Q

An uninterrupted period of illness during which there is a major mood episode (major depressive or manic) concurrent with Criterion A of schizophrenia

A

Criterion A of schizoaffective disorder

129
Q

What is the significance of the major depressive episode in schizoaffective disorder according to Criterion A?

A

It must include Criterion A1: Depressed mood

130
Q

They must be present for 2 or more weeks in the absence of a major mood episode during the lifetime duration of the illness

A

Criterion B of schizoaffective disorder require regarding delusions or hallucinations

131
Q

They are present for the majority of the total duration of the active and residual portions of the illness?

A

Criterion C of schizoaffective disorder specify about the symptoms of a major mood episode

132
Q

Which subtype of schizoaffective disorder applies if a manic episode is part of the presentation, with major depressive episodes possibly also occurring?

A

Bipolar type

133
Q

Which subtype of schizoaffective disorder applies if only major depressive episodes are part of the presentation?

A

Depressive type

134
Q

For a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder in adults, how long must there be periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet the full criteria for hypomanic or major depressive episodes?

A

At least 2 years

135
Q

In children and adolescents, how long must there be periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms that do not meet the full criteria for hypomanic or major depressive episodes for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder?

A

At least 1 year

136
Q

During the required 2-year period (or 1-year period for children and adolescents) for cyclothymic disorder, how long must the hypomanic and depressive periods be present?

A

For at least half the time

137
Q

During the specified period for cyclothymic disorder, what is the maximum amount of time an individual can be without symptoms?

A

No more than 2 months at a time

138
Q

Which criteria must never have been met for a diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder?

A
  • Criteria for a manic episode
    • Criteria for a major depressive episode
    • Criteria for a hypomanic episode
139
Q

Which specifier can be applied to cyclothymic disorder?

A

With anxious distress

140
Q

Severe recurrent temper outbursts that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation or provocation?

A

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)

141
Q

They are inconsistent with developmental level

A

DMDD : Criterion B

142
Q

How frequently must the temper outbursts occur on average to meet Criterion C of DMDD?

A

Three or more times per week

143
Q

It is persistently irritable or angry most of the day, nearly every day

A

DMDD : Criterion D

144
Q

For how long must Criteria A to D have been present to diagnose DMDD according to Criterion E?

A

12 months

145
Q

In how many settings must Criteria A and D be present to meet Criterion F of DMDD?

A

At least two of three settings

146
Q

At what age must the symptoms of DMDD not be first diagnosed, according to Criterion G?

A

Before age 6 years or after age 18 years

147
Q

What is the maximum age at onset for symptoms of DMDD, according to Criterion H?

A

Before 10 years

148
Q

How many of the following symptoms must be present during the same 2-week period to meet Criterion A for Major Depressive Disorder?

A

Five

149
Q

Which symptom of Major Depressive Disorder involves markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities?

A

Criterion 2

150
Q

What is the minimum change in body weight in a month required by Criterion 3 of Major Depressive Disorder?

A

More than 5% of body weight

151
Q

Which symptom of Major Depressive Disorder involves feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt nearly every day?

A

Criterion 7

152
Q

What must never have occurred for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder according to Criterion E?

A

Hypomanic episode & Manic episode

153
Q

How long must an individual experience depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, to meet Criterion A of Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?

A

At least 2 years

154
Q

What symptoms must be present, while depressed, to meet Criterion B of Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?

A

Low energy or fatigue

155
Q

According to Criterion C of Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia), how long can an individual be without symptoms in Criteria A and B during the 2-year period of disturbance?

A

Up to 2 months at a time

156
Q

For how long must criteria for a major depressive disorder be continuously present to consider a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia) according to Criterion D?

A

2 years

157
Q

What age defines “Early onset” for Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?

A

Before age 21 years

158
Q

What age defines “Late onset” for Persistent Depressive Disorder (Dysthymia)?

A

Age 21 years or older

159
Q

Which specification indicates that full criteria for a major depressive episode have not been met in at least the preceding 2 years?

A

With pure dysthymic syndrome

160
Q

Which specification indicates that full criteria for a major depressive episode have been met throughout the preceding 2-year period?

A

With persistent major depressive episode

161
Q

Which specification indicates that full criteria for a major depressive episode are currently met, but there have been periods of at least 8 weeks in at least the preceding 2 years with symptoms?

A

With intermittent major depressive episodes, with current episode

162
Q

What is the minimum number of symptoms that must be present in the final week before the onset of menses to meet Criteria A for PMDD?

A

Five symptoms

163
Q

Symptoms listed under what disorder?

  • Marked affective lability (e.g., mood swings)
  • Marked irritability or anger or increased interpersonal conflicts
  • Marked depressed mood, feelings of hopelessness, or self-deprecating thoughts
A

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

164
Q

According to the diagnostic criteria, how soon after the onset of menses should symptoms of PMDD start to improve?

A

Within a few days

165
Q

When should symptoms of PMDD become minimal or absent to meet the diagnostic criteria?

A

The week after menses

166
Q

How frequently must the symptoms in Criteria A–C occur to meet the diagnostic criteria for PMDD?

A

In at least half of menstrual cycles in the preceding year

167
Q

The emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat. More often associated with surges of autonomic arousal necessary for fight or flight, thoughts of immediate danger, and escape behaviors

A

Fear

168
Q

The anticipation of future threat. Obviously, these two states overlap n more often associated with muscle tension and vigilance in preparation for future danger and cautious or avoidant behaviors

is anticipation of future threat.

A

Anxiety

169
Q

It is an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes, and during which time four or more of a list of 13 physical and cognitive symptoms occur

feature prominently within the anxiety disorders as a particular type of fear response.

A

Panic attacks

170
Q

How many of the following symptoms must be present to meet Criterion A for Separation Anxiety Disorder?

A

Three symptoms

171
Q
  • Recurrent excessive distress when anticipating or experiencing separation
    • Persistent reluctance to go out, away from home, or to school
    • Fear of being alone or without major attachment figures
A

Criterion A for Separation Anxiety Disorder

172
Q

According to the diagnostic criteria, how long must the fear, anxiety, or avoidance persist to meet Criterion B?

A

At least 4 weeks in children and adolescents, typically 6 months or more in adults

173
Q

Clinically significant distress or impairment in various areas of functioning

A

Separation Anxiety Disorder Criterion C

174
Q

According to Criterion D, the symptoms of Separation Anxiety Disorder should not be better explained by:

A

Another mental disorder

175
Q

Consistent failure to speak in specific social situations

A

Selective Mutism

176
Q

According to Criterion B, how does the disturbance affect individuals with Selective Mutism?

A

It interferes with educational or occupational achievement

177
Q

How long must the duration of the disturbance be to meet Criterion C?

A

At least 6 months

178
Q

According to Criterion D, why does the individual fail to speak in specific social situations?

A

Not attributable to a lack of knowledge of, or comfort with, the spoken language required

179
Q

According to Criterion E, what condition should not better explain the disturbance of Selective Mutism?

A

A communication disorder

180
Q

Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation

A

Criterion A of Specific Phobia

181
Q

According to Criterion B, how does the individual typically react when exposed to the phobic object or situation?

A

They experience immediate fear or anxiety

182
Q

Actively avoiding or enduring the phobic object or situation with intense fear or anxiety

A

Criterion C of Specific Phobia

183
Q

According to Criterion D, how should the fear or anxiety be in relation to the actual danger posed by the specific object or situation?

A

It should be out of proportion

184
Q

It causes clinically significant distress or impairment

A

Criterion F Specific Phobia

185
Q

The unique combination of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up a specific disorder

A

clinical description

186
Q

Maria should recover quickly with no intervention necessary. Without treatment, John will deteriorate _____

A

Prognosis

187
Q

when the majority of symptoms that experts would agree are part of the disorder are present

A

Prototype

188
Q

Three new cases of bulimia have been reported in this county during the past month and only one in the next county. ____________

A

Incidence

189
Q

refers to a breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning. That the behavior must be associated with distress to be classified as abnormal adds an important component and seems clear: the criterion is satisfied if the individual is extremely upset.

A

Psychological dysfunction

190
Q

behavior is out of the individuals control, something that they do not want to do

A

Harmful dysfunction

191
Q

disorder tends to last a long time, often a lifetime

A

chronic course

192
Q

a psychological disorder characterized by marked and persistent fear of an object or situation

A

Phobia

193
Q

What are 3 steps of a psychological disorder ?

A

psychological dysfunction, distress or impairment, atypical response

194
Q

percentage of people within a population who have a specific mental disorder

A

Prevalence

195
Q

The number or rate of new cases of a particular condition during a specific time.

A

incidence

196
Q

receives PhD, PsyD and Ed.D. conduct research into the cause and treatment of psychological disorders and diagnose, assess and treat these disorders.

A

clinical psychologists and counseling psychologists

197
Q

percentage of males and females who have the disorder

A

Sex ratio

198
Q

behavior causes personal discomfort

A

personal distress

199
Q

Biological, psychological, and social influences all contribute to a variety of disorders. ____________

A

etiology.

200
Q

How many people in the population as a whole suffer from obsessive-compulsive disorder?

A

prevalence

201
Q

DSM stands for ?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorder

202
Q

The pattern a disorder follows can be chronic, timelimited, or episodic. _______

pattern of development and change of a disorder over time

A

Course

203
Q

psychologist who treats people with adjustment problems and vocational issues from relative healthy people

A

counseling psychologists

204
Q

a breakdown in emotional functioning.

a breakdown in behavioral functioning

a breakdown in cognitive functioning.

A

psychological dysfunction

205
Q

Elizabeth visited the campus mental health center because of her increasing feelings of guilt and anxiety. _______________

A

presenting problem

206
Q

Interferes with ability to function on a daily basis

A

maldaptive behavior

207
Q

A scientific study of psychological disorders

A

Psychopathology

208
Q

a psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected.

A

Psychological disorder

209
Q

Amanda is 12 years old, and her sister Samantha is 5 years old. While riding in a car with their parents, the girls witness a major automobile accident where a number of people are injured. The girls react very differently to the accident. This is probably due to

A

developmental differences.

210
Q

life events, in combination with an inherited tendency, that trigger a disorder.

A

“stress” in diathesis-stress model,

211
Q

The idea that our inherited tendencies influence the probability that we will encounter stressful life events is a characteristic of the

A

reciprocal gene-environment model

212
Q

an inherited tendency or condition that makes a person susceptible to developing a disorder.

A

“diathesis” in diathesis-stress model

213
Q

The most accurate way to think of genes is that they

A

set boundaries for our development

214
Q

Jan’s husband, Jinx, was an unemployed jerk who spent his life chasing women other than his wife. Jan, happily divorced for years, cannot understand why the smell of Jinx’s brand of aftershave causes her to become nauseated. Which influence best explains her response

A

Either behavioral & emotional

215
Q

interaction of an inherited tendency and events in a person’s life.

A

In diathesis-stress model, psychopathology result

216
Q

Inga is a charming and intelligent young lady who is well-liked by family and friends. Approximately _____ of Inga’s enduring personality traits and cognitive abilities can be attributed to genetic influence.

A

50%

217
Q

The procedures referred to as quantitative genetics are used to determine the

A

effects of multiple genes.

218
Q

influenced by many genes, with each individual gene contributing a relatively small effect.

A

behavior and personality as polygenic means that both are

219
Q

The most recent estimates are that genetics contribute approximately _______ to the development of personality characteristics such as shyness or activity level.

A

30-50%

220
Q

The model that describes the development of psychopathology as a combination of an inherited predisposition and the events that have occurred in the individual’s life is called

A

Diathesis- stress

221
Q

Some people may be genetically predisposed to seek out difficult relationships. These difficult relationships may contribute to their experience of depression. This is an example of the

A

reciprocal gene-environment model

222
Q

Most psychological disorders appear to be influenced by many individual genes rather than caused by one single gene. a process referred to as influence.

A

Polygenic

223
Q

Nathan, age 16, finds it more difficult than his 7-yearold sister to adjust to his parents’ recent separation. This may be explained by what influences?

A

Developmental

224
Q

John has inherited a personality trait that makes him more likely to keep to himself than to socialize. As a result, he does not have many friends and spends a lot of time alone. If John were to develop depression, the model that would probably best explain this situation and the cause of his depression is

A

reciprocal gene-environment

225
Q

The fact that some phobias are more common than others (such as fear of heights and snakes) and may have contributed to the survival of the species in the past suggests that phobias may be genetically prewired. This is evidence for which influence?

A

biological

226
Q

diathesis-stress model, monozygotic twins raised in the same household will

A

not necessarily have the same disorders because of potential differences in their stress.

227
Q

Social influences in the multidimensional model include

A

the fact that illness usually gets attention.

228
Q

The multidimensional integrative approach to pathology includes causal factors from which fields?

A

Genetics
Psychology
Neuroscience

229
Q

In a landmark study by Caspi et. al. (2003), researchers studied the stressful life events and genetics of 847 individuals. For individuals who had at least four stressful life events, the risk of major depression

A

doubled if they possessed two short alleles of the gene being studied.

230
Q

Behavioral influences in the multidimensional model include

A

conditioned Responses

231
Q

First-degree family members of individuals with major depressive disorder have a risk for major depressive disorder two- to fourfold higher than that of the general population. Relative risks appear to be higher for early-onset and recurrent forms. Heritability is approximately 40%, and the personality trait neuroticism accounts for a substantial portion of this genetic liability

A

Genetic and physiological

232
Q

• Significant weight loss when not dieting or weight gain
• Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
• Recurrent thoughts of death

A

Major depressive disorder

233
Q

A more chronic form of depression, can be diagnosed when the mood disturbance continues for at least 2 years in adults or 1 year in children.

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

234
Q

Depressed affect and at least four of the other eight symptoms of a major depressive episode associated with clinically significant distress or impairment that persists for more than 4 days, but less than 14 days, in an individual whose presentation has never met criteria for any other depressive or bipolar disorder, does not currently meet active or residual criteria for any psychotic disorder, and does not meet criteria for recurrent brief depression

A

Short-duration depressive episode

235
Q

möst reproducible finding in the epidemiology of major depressive disorder has been a higher prevalence in

A

Female

236
Q

represents the classic condition in this group of disorders. It is characterized by discrete episodes of at least 2 weeks’ duration (although most episodes last considerably longer) involving clear-cut changes in affect, cognition, and neurovegetative functions and inter-episode remissions.

A

Major Depressive disorder

237
Q

A well-established risk factor for the onset of major depressive disorder, and high levels appear to render individuals more likely to develop depressive episodes in response to stressful life events.

A

Neuroticism

238
Q

Depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least two years in adults and 1 year in children and adolescents, as characterized by at least two of the following: appetite changes, insomnia or hypersomnia, low energy or fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration, hopelessness.
*

A

Persistent depressive disorder

239
Q

used in situations in which the clinician chooses to communicate the specific reason that the presentation does not meet the criteria for any specific depressive disorder.

A

Other specified depressive disorder

240
Q

Depressed affect and at least one of the other eight symptoms of a major depressive episode associated with clinically displus.sk significant distress or impairment persist for at least 2 weeks in an individual whose presentation has never met criteria for any other depressive or bipolar disorder, does not currently meet active or residual criteria for any psychotic disorder, and does not meet criteria for mixed anxiety and depressive disorder symptoms.

A

Depressive episode with insufficient symptoms:

241
Q

In DMDD, The diagnosis should not be made for the first time before

A

age 6 years or after age 18 years

242
Q

Five (or more) of the following symptoms have been present during the same 2-week period and represent a change from previous functioning: at least one of the symptoms is either
(1) depressed mood or
(2) loss of interest or pleasure

A

Major Depressive Disorder

243
Q

include disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder (including major depressive episode), persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), premenstrual dysphoric disorder, substance/medication-induced depressive disorder, depressive disorder due to another medical condition, other specified depressive disorder, and imspecified depressive disorder.

A

Depressive Disorders

244
Q

The presence of at least two of the following symptoms during the majority of days of a major depressive episode or persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia):
1. Feeling keyed up or tense.
2. Feeling unusually restless.
3. Difficulty concentrating because of worry.
4. Fear that something awful may happen.
5. Feeling that the individual might lose control of himself or herself

A

With anxious distress

245
Q

In DMDD, Criteria A and D are present in at least how many setting?

A

2 of 3

246
Q

presence of sad, empty, or irritable mood, accompanied by somatic and cognitive changes that significantly affect the individual’s capacity to function. What differs among them are issues of duration, timing, or presumed etiology.

A

Depressive Disorders

247
Q

Concurrent presence of depressed mood and at least four other symptoms of depression for 2-13 days at least once per month (not associated with the menstrual cycle) for at least 12 consecutive months in an individual whose presentation has never met criteria for any other depressive or bipolar disorder and does not currently meet active or residual criteria for any psychotic disorder.

A

Recurrent brief depression

248
Q

Children presenting to clinics with features of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder are predominantly

A

Male

249
Q

This category applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristic of a depressive disorder that cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in the depressive disorders diagnostic class

A

Other Specified Depressive Disorder

250
Q

This category applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristic of a depressive disorder that cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in the depressive disorders diagnostic class

A

Other Specified Depressive Disorder

251
Q

Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day and/or loss of interest or pleasure in all or almost all activities for at least two weeks, in addition to four or more of the following: significant weight changes, insomnia or hypersomnia, psychomotor agitation or retardation, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, poor concentration, or recurrent thoughts of death.

A

MAJOR DEPRESSIVE DISORDER

252
Q

used in situations in which the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that the criteria are not met for a specific depressive disorder, and includes presentations for which there is insufficient information to make a more specific diagnos

A

Unspecified Depressive Disorder

253
Q

Essentially all major nonmood disorders increase the risk of an individual developing depression. Major depressive episodes that develop against the background of another disorder often follow a more refractory course

A

Course modifiers

254
Q

Referring to the presentation of children with persistent irritability and frequent episodes of extreme behavioral dyscontrol, is added to the depressive disorders for children up to 12 years of age

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

255
Q

In the majority of menstrual cycles, at least five symptoms (affective lability, irritability or anger, depressed mood, anxiety, anhedonia, concentration difficulties, lethargy, change in appetite, hypersomnia or insomnia, overwhelm, physical symptoms) must be present in the final week before the onset of menses, start to improve within a few days after the onset of menses, and become minimal or absent in the week postmenses.

A

PREMENSTRUAL DYSPHORIC DISORDER

256
Q

Many children with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder have symptoms that also meet criteria for

A

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and for an anxiety disorder

257
Q

A prominent and persistent mood disturbance characterized by depressed mood or markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all or almost all, activities, which developed during or soon after substance intoxication or withdrawal

A

SUBSTANCE/MEDICATION-INDUCED DEPRESSIVE DISORDER

258
Q

Adverse childhood experiences, particularly when there are multiple experiences of diverse types, constitute a set of potent risk factors for major depressive disorder. Stressful life events are well recognized as précipitants of major depressive episodes, but the presence or absence of adverse life events near the onset of episodes does not appear to provide a useful guide to prognosis or treatment selection

A

Temperamental

259
Q

A prominent and persistent mood disturbance characterized by depressed mood or markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities, which is the direct pathophysiological consequence of another medical condition.

A

DEPRESSIVE DISORDER DUE TO ANOTHER MEDICAL CONDITION

260
Q

higher rate of suicide attempts and suicidal ideation in the past 12 months

A

suicide risk associated w panic attacks

261
Q

A. Panic attacks or anxiety is predominant in the clinical picture.
B. There is evidence from the history, physical examination, or laboratory findings that the disturbance is the direct pathophysiological consequence of another medical condition.
C. The disturbance is not better explained by another mental disorder.
D. The disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of a delirium.
E. The disturbance causes clinically significant dist

A

Anxiety Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition

262
Q

In S/M-Induced Anxiety Disorder, this specifier applies if criteria are met for intoxication with the substance and the symptoms develop during intoxication

A

With onset during intoxication

263
Q

A. Consistent failure to speak in specific social situations in which there is an expectation for speaking (e.g., at school) despite speaking in other situations.

B. The disturbance interferes with educational or occupational achievement or with social communication.

C. The disturbance is not better explained by a communication disorder (e.g., childhoodonset fluency disorder) and does not occur exclusively during the course of autism spectrum disorder, schizophrenia, or another psychotic disorder

A

Selective mutism

264
Q

Refers to recurrent unexpected panic attacks.

A

Panic disorder

265
Q

The onset of selective mutism is usually before age ________, but the disturbance may not come to clinical attention until entry into school, where there is an increase in social interaction and performance tasks, such as reading aloud.

A

5 years

266
Q

Include disorders that share features of excessive fear and anxiety and related behavioral disturbances.

A

Anxiety disorders

267
Q

Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation (e.g., flying, heights, animals, receiving an injection, seeing blood). Note: In children, the fear or anxiety may be expressed by crying, tantrums, freezing, or clinging.

A

Specific phobia

268
Q

In S/M-Induced Anxiety Disorder, Symptoms may appear either at initiation of medication or after a modification or change in use

A

With onset after medication use

269
Q

Separation anxiety disorder in children may be associated with an increased risk for suicide

A

suicide risk of Separation Anxiety disorder

270
Q

Developmentally inappropriate and excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the individual is attached

A

Separation Anxiety Disorder

271
Q

approximately _______ of individuals with specific phobia fear more than one situation or object

A

75%

272
Q

In separation anxiety disorder, the fear, anxiety, or avoidance is persistent, lasting at least ______ in children and adolescents and typically ________ in adults

A

4 weeks in children; 6 or more months in adult

273
Q

A. Panic attacks or anxiety is predominant in the clinical picture. B. There is evidence from the history, physical examination, or laboratory findings of both (1) and (2):

  1. The symptoms in Criterion A developed during or soon after substance intoxication or withdrawal or after exposure to a medication.
  2. The involved substance/medication is capable of producing the symptoms in Criterion A.

C. The disturbance is not better explained by an anxiety disorder that is not substance/ medication-induced. Such evidence of an independent anxiety disorder could include the following:

A

Substance/Medication-Induced Anxiety Disorder

274
Q

This category applies to presentations in which symptoms characteristic of an anxiety disorder that cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning predominate but do not meet the full criteria for any of the disorders in the anxiety disorders diagnostic class.

A

Other Specified Anxiety Disorder

275
Q

Marked fear or anxiety about two (or more) of the following five situations:

  1. Using public transportation (e.g., automobiles, buses, trains, ships, planes). 2. Being in open spaces (e.g., parking lots, marketplaces, bridges).
  2. Being in enclosed places (e.g., shops, theaters, cinemas).
  3. Standing in line or being in a crowd.
  4. Being outside of the home alone.
A

Agoraphobia

276
Q

Individuals with specific phobia are up to 60% more likely to make a suicide attempt than are individuals without the diagnosis

A

suicide risk associated w Specific Phobia

277
Q

In selective mutism, The duration of the disturbance is at least

A

1 month (not limited to the first month of school).

278
Q

often characterized by socialevaluative concerns, fulfilling criteria for social anxiety disorder, that are associated with the fear that the individual makes other people uncomfortable (e.g., “My gaze upsets people so they look away and avoid me”), a fear that is at times experienced with delusional intensity. This symptom may also be found in non-Asian settings.

A

taijin kyofusho

279
Q

In S/M-Induced Anxiety Disorder, this specifier applies if criteria are met for withdrawal from the substance and the symptoms develop during, or shortly after, withdrawal.

A

With onset during withdrawal

280
Q

Excessive anxiety and worry (apprehensive expectation), occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of events or activities (such as work or school performance). The individual finds it difficult to control the worry.

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

281
Q

Marked fear or anxiety about one or more social situations in which the individual is exposed to possible scrutiny by others. Examples include social interactions (e.g., having a conversation, meeting unfamiliar people), being observed (e.g., eating or drinking), and performing in front of others (e.g., giving a speech).

A

Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia)

282
Q

a breakdown of cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning

A

Psychological Dysfunction

283
Q

deviates from the average

A

Abnormal

284
Q

The meaning of the Acronym DSM is:

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders