accs Flashcards

1
Q

rule out narrowing of coronary arteries under fluoroscopy

A

angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

best position to prevent aspiration

A

lateral flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

cohb normal

A

1-3% 5-12% for smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

chocolate abg

A

methb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for metHb

A

methylene blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

transudative pleural fluid

A

chf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

exudative pleural fluid

A

infection/inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the absolute contraindication for lung transplant

A

progressive neuromuscular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

c/t placement

A

2nd interspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hemothoracic placement

A

4/5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how to intubate with cervical/spinal precautions

A

modified jaw thrust/flex bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

vfib

A

shock at 360

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pvc

A

lidocaine/amio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

afib shock

A

start at 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how to diagnosie CF

A

sweat chrolide >60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

brady

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CXR tuburculosis

A

caviation in upper lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inhaled anesthetics

A

halothane, enflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

another name for auto peep

A

dynamin hyperinflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

magnesium

A

1.4-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

anion gap

A

3-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cortisol

A

10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

head injury with seizures give what

A

dilantin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MG meds

A

mestion/neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ast

A

5-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

alt

A

7-56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what can rule out pe

A

d-dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

stroke volume

A

50-100st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

stroke volume equation

A

HRxCO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cardiac index equation

A

co/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RBC

A

4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

hematocrit

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HB equation

A

RBC x 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

neutrophils show

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

lymphocytes show

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

eosinophils show

A

allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

troponin

A

<.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

platelet

A

150,000-400,00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

BNP greater can show

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

normal BNP

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

creatinine

A

.6-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BUN

A

6-24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ammonia

A

10-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CK-MB greater then10.5 show

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

INR

A

.8-1.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what do you see on an EKG with an MI

A

flipped t waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

higher the INR means

A

thinner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

lower INR means

A

thicker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

GFR

A

100-130

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the flow rate at which blood passes through the kidneys

A

GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

if GFR is less then 60 waht does that show

A

kidneys compromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

GFR is less then 15 what does that show

A

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

na

A

135-145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

CL

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

phospate

A

25-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

increase in phosphate shows

A

renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

calcium

A

88-104

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

spiral CT is the best choice to rule out

A

PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

central venous catheter should be in what location

A

right atrium or vena cava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

may be seen in patients exposed to chemicals, near drowning, etc

A

DAH diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cvp

A

2-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

pap

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pcwp

A

4-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

central sleep apnea med

A

dopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

another name for cisatracurium

A

nimbex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

another name for cisatracurium

A

cardiogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what drug increases cardiac contractility

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

IBW for males

A

50 + 2.3 (ht in inch-60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

IBW females

A

45.5 + 2.3(ht in inch - 60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

medications to lower pulmonary blood pressure

A

sildenafil (revatio) hydralazine (apresoline) and flolan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

treatment for ischemic strokes

A

thrombolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

most accurate lab for renal function

A

creatininer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

normal creatinine

A

.6-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

normal urine output

A

.5ml/hr/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

anuria

A

no urine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

oliquire

A

decrease in urine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

gi prophylaxis

A

VAP bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

for refractory hypoxia what should you do

A

inhaled prostacyclin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

COPD feeding is

A

high protein low carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

hormones produced by the ventricles of the heart

A

BNP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

protein

A

6-8.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CXR deep sulcus sign

A

Pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

copd pt s/p surgery requiring multi days on vent, think what ETT

A

cass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

stroke volume

A

50-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

hyperlucent fields on CXR

A

bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

SVR normal

A

1440

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

PVR normal

A

160-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

k

A

3.5-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

ICP

A

5-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

normal ET placement at what rib

A

4th rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

normal ET placement near heart

A

aortic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

normal ET placement at what t level

A

t4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Pulm art cath location

A

tip in the right lower lung field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what scan detects pulmonary emboli

A

v/q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

costophrenic angles on CXR

A

pleural effusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

flattened diaphragm on cxr

A

copd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

fluffy infiltrates on cxr

A

pulm edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

wedge shaped infiltrates

A

pulm edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

butterfly or bat wing on cxr

A

pulm edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

plate like or patchy infiltrates

A

ards/ atelectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

reticulogranular pattern

A

ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

concave border or interface

A

pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

consolidation or haziness

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

deep sulcus sign on CXR

A

pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

when you hear third space shifting what do you need to think of

A

renal fail, fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

hematocrit equation

A

HBG x 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

HGB equation

A

RBC x 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what two lab values will test for thyroid function

A

t4 tsh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

ventilation is determined by what in HFOV

A

delta p and frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what xray can determine masses or pulm lesions

A

oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

off balance K+ can lead to what

A

cardiac dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what xray determines pleural effusion

A

lateral decubitus

116
Q

what can relax the heart muscle during an MI

A

nitro

117
Q

precedex

A

dexmedetomidine

118
Q

what reverses ativan/versed

A

romazicon (flumazenil)

119
Q
A
120
Q

romazicon reverses what

A

benzos

121
Q

when can tb pts come out of isolation

A

until afb is done x 3 days

122
Q

tx for tb

A

inh, ethambutol

123
Q

what med should you avoid giving to a pt with thermal injuries

A

succs

124
Q

meds that lower pre load

A

digitalis (digoxin)

125
Q

normal PAP

A

9-18

126
Q

PCWP normal

A

4-12

127
Q

what tube ventilates each lung

A

double lumen, endobronchial, carlens tube

128
Q

what ETT will reduce VAP and prevents cuff channel formation

A

polyeurethane cuffed ETT

129
Q

what MMHG should you set CASS at

A

20

130
Q

what reverses vecuronium

A

neostigmine

131
Q

ve equation

A

RR x VT

132
Q

what is coumadin

A

blood thinner

133
Q

prone position is contraindicated with

A

copd, paralyzed, pulm hemmorrhage

134
Q

nasally intubated at

A

26-28

135
Q

pulm art pressure greater then what suggest PHTN

A

25t

136
Q

average output of urine

A

600-1800

137
Q

if you see terminology like third spacing, fluid shifting what med should you give

A

aldactaline

138
Q

wedge shaped infiltrates on CXR

A

PE

139
Q

air bronchograms on CXR

A

pneumonia

140
Q

what is a contraindication of a heart cath

A

high INR

141
Q

fent

A

sublimaze

142
Q

dilaudid

A

hydromorphone

143
Q

tx for central sleep apnea

A

dopram

144
Q

if you have a pt with increasing ICP despite hyperventilation what drug should you use

A

mannitol

145
Q

if a pt is having a cholinergic crisis with MG what should you give

A

atropine

146
Q

levels to look at to know if ETT is in the right place

A

t4 4th rib level with aortic notch

147
Q

normal INR

A

.8-1.3

148
Q

what med do you nebulize with TB

A

isoniazid (INH)

149
Q

what disease can you see diplopia or ptosis with

A

MG

150
Q

tensilon test is for

A

MG

151
Q

what test do you pay attention to when giving heparin

A

PTT

152
Q

what test do you pay attention to when giving coumadin

A

PT

153
Q

what does pentobarbital (nembutal) used for

A

high ICP

154
Q

what is the name of the bougie that has ventilation and oxygenation ports

A

airway exchange cath

155
Q

good trach for a pt with trachial malacia

A

foam cuff

156
Q

good trach for abnormal airway

A

distal

157
Q

precedex

A

dexmetomidinep

158
Q

prop

A

dipravan

159
Q

aerosolized med for HIV

A

pentamadine

160
Q

if you have a pt that is actively bleeding but also has a PE what is your tx choice

A

IVC filter

161
Q

HFOV what adjust oxygenation

A

map and %insp

162
Q

HFOV what adjust ventilation

A

amp and frequency

163
Q

1 hz =

A

60 RR

164
Q

HFOV amplitude

A

VT

165
Q

HFOV frequency

A

RR

166
Q

a decrease in frequency in HFOV does what with VT

A

increase

167
Q

an increase in frequency in HFOV does what with VT

A

decreases

168
Q

normal bias flow

A

40l/min

169
Q

to decrease PACO2 in HFOV what 3 things to do

A

increase amplitude, decreases frequency, increase insp time

170
Q

+ cultures “coccus” treat with

A

think “icillian”

171
Q
  • cultures think what for treatmetn
A

“mycin:

172
Q

normal o2 index for ecmo

A

40

173
Q

Heliox another name is

A

flolan/prostaglandin

174
Q

normal hertz for HFOV

A

5-6

175
Q

normal bias flow in HFOV

A

40l/min

176
Q

if paco2 is off by a little bit what do we adjust

A

vt

177
Q

if paco2 is off by alot what should we adjust

A

rr

178
Q

cstat equation

A

vt/plat-peep

179
Q

cdyn

A

vt/pip-peep

180
Q

starting dose for nitric

A

20

181
Q

if you have rebound hypertension or hypoxemia

A

increase dose

182
Q

tensilon test

A

mg

183
Q

anticholinesternase therapy another names

A

neostigmine/mestinonin

184
Q

1st degree heart block

A

pr interval prolonger

185
Q

2nd degree heart block

A

p wave occasional missing QRS

186
Q

3rd degree

A

no correlation between p and QRS

187
Q

n resp quotent on indirect calometry

A

1.2

188
Q

what serum protein shows exudative

A

> .5

189
Q

what serum protein shows transudatiev

A

<.5

190
Q

amount available for a squeeze with heart

A

pre load

191
Q

normal PVR

A

20-200

192
Q

normal svr

A

800-1600

193
Q

pulmonary afterload is

A

PVR

194
Q

force the right ventricle must overcome to produce pulm blood flow

A

PVR

195
Q

force the left ventricle must overcome to produce systemic blood flow

A

SVR

196
Q

hydromorphone

A

dilaudid

197
Q

naloxone

A

narcan

198
Q

lorazapam

A

ativan

199
Q

midazolam

A

VERSED

200
Q

diazepam

A

valiu

201
Q

diprivan

A

prop

202
Q

dexmedetomidine

A

precedex

203
Q

formula for MAP

A

diastolic + diastolic + systolic /3

204
Q

formula for CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure)

A

map-icp

205
Q

increase in PAP does what with PCWO

A

decrease

206
Q

an increase in PAP and decrease in PCWP means what problem

A

pulm vasculature

207
Q

what does nipride do

A

pulm vasodialator

208
Q

nipride does what with v/q mismatch

A

increases (nipride dilates the pulm vasculature)

209
Q

what is a side affect of anectine

A

increased ICP and malignant hyper

210
Q
A
211
Q

best order for parameters for weaning

A

rsbi, nif (mip), vc, ve

212
Q

hypotension does waht with SV

A

decreases

213
Q

hypotension does what with svr

A

decreases

214
Q

deep sulcus sign

A

pneumo

215
Q

when dapson is used orally what can it cause

A

methemaglobin

216
Q

what can treat fungal infection

A

fluconazole (diflucan)

217
Q

what is your first reaction to a vent alarm

A

manual ventilation, and then problem solve

218
Q

presence of protein in pleural fluid means what

A

indicated exudative pleural effusion

219
Q

fluid coming from outside the pleural space in a pleural effusion

A

treansudative

220
Q

tea colored urine can present with waht

A

rhabdo

221
Q

if a pts breath does not return to baseline on your wavefor

A

increase flow rate or decrease rr

222
Q

what is helpfl with you have impared vision of epiglottis when intubating

A

gum elastic bougie

223
Q

video assist device requres what

A

rigid stylet

224
Q

normal WOB

A

<1 joules

225
Q

Increase in pap what does

A

increases right heart pressure

226
Q

increase in hematocrit does what to the blood

A

increase in blood viscosity

227
Q

increase in d- dimer does what for clotting

A

increase

228
Q

increase in platelets does what for clotting

A

increases clotting ability

229
Q

systolic pulm art pressure exceeding what is a clear indication of PHTN

A

25

230
Q

normal anion gap

A

3-11

231
Q

anion gap equation

A

NA+ - (CL- + HCOB3)

232
Q

order of a leaking/ruptured cuff

A
  1. stopcock on pilot. 2. blunted needle in pulot end. 3. clamp pilot line. 4. replace
233
Q

how do you wean in nitric

A

reduce by 10 every 2 hours until at less then 10 go by 2

234
Q

indications for heliox

A

airway tumors, obstructions, asthma, post ex stridor

235
Q

two methods for heliox delivery by NRB

A

80/20 (1.8) and 70-30 (1.6)

236
Q

in HFOV 1 ht equals how many RR

A

60

237
Q

what are the two things that helo with oxygenation in hFOV

A

map and % insp

238
Q

what are the two things that help with ventilaiton in HFOV

A

amp and freq

239
Q

normal bias flow in HFOV

A

40l/min (this adjsut map)

240
Q

in hfov a decrease in frequency does what with VT

A

increases

241
Q

in HFOV a increase in frequency does what with VT

A

decrease

242
Q

to decrease PACO2 in HFOV what should you do (

A

increase in amp (this will decrease frequency) or vise versa, increase in % time

243
Q

when you are in APRV and you are having hypoxia issues what can you adjust

A

increase p high, increase t high or recruitment

244
Q

APRV does what with v/q mismatch

A

increases due to pulm dialation

245
Q

weanin in APRV

A

drop p high by 1-2 and increase t high by .5 by every 1 drop in p high(drop and stretch)

246
Q

in GCS for eye opening what is the order

A
  1. spont
  2. speech
  3. pain
  4. o
247
Q

in GCS for verbal what is the order

A
  1. oriented
  2. confused
  3. inapp
  4. incomp
    1.0
248
Q

in GCS for motor what is the order

A
  1. commands.
  2. loc to pain
  3. wdrwls from pain
  4. flexion to pain
  5. extention to pain
    1.0
249
Q

what is the reversal agent versed adn ativan

A

flumazenl (romazicon

250
Q

reversal agent for paralytic

A

cholinesterase inhibitors like peostigmine, pyridostigmine

251
Q

what do inotropes do

A

increase strength of heart contraction

252
Q

drugs that can affect methb

A

dapsone, nitric, nitroprusside, benzocaine, lidocaine

253
Q

cf can cause what other issues

A

GI

254
Q

in cardiogenic shock what happens to vp, hr, bp, co

A

increased cvp, hr decreased co bp

255
Q

an increase in physiologic deadspace does what with ETCO2

A

decrease

256
Q

if you have a pt in renal failure that already has high + what is a good lasix to give that will spare the k+

A

aldactalone

257
Q

normal proteint

A

6-8.5

258
Q

what can cause a decrease in protein

A

infection, tb, diarrhea

259
Q

normal blood albumin

A

3.5-5

260
Q

normal urine albumin

A

10-100

261
Q

if albumin is increased what does that show

A

liver fail, shock, dehydration

262
Q

if albumin is decreased what does that show

A

diarrhea, burn, infection

263
Q

bnp above what indicates CHF

A

300

264
Q

inr higher then normal means blood is what

A

less likely to clot

265
Q

normal INR for valve replacement pts

A

3

266
Q

s/s of high bilirubin

A

dark tea colored urine

267
Q

normal bilirubin

A

.2-1.2

268
Q

s3 heart sounds indicates

A

chf

269
Q

s4 heart sound indicates

A

mi/cardiomegaly

270
Q

air bronchograms on CXR

A

pneumonia

271
Q

peep does what to PAP and CVP

A

increases

272
Q

peep does what with Co

A

decreases

273
Q

anectine can cause what

A

malig hyperthermia

274
Q

nipride does what with v/q mismatch

A

incerases

275
Q

nipride does what with pulm vasculature

A

dialates

276
Q

increase in PAP with decrease in PCWP is what problem

A

pulm vasculature

277
Q

normal platelet count

A

150,000-400,000

278
Q

pwcp does what in CHF/pulm edema

A

increases

279
Q

common pathologies causing pneumonia for CF pts

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa staph a

280
Q

lateral decubitus xray

A

pleural effusion

281
Q

another name for flolan

A

prostaglandins

282
Q

what is iloprost(ventavis)

A

pulm vasodialator

283
Q

what should you caution for with iloprost

A

platelets less then 50,000 and hypotension

284
Q

what are some vasodialators

A

hydralazine, labetalol, metoprolol, nicardipine, sodium nitroprusside, nitro

285
Q

aprv what with QS/QT

A

decrease

286
Q
A