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Phase 3b > ACCS > Flashcards

ACCS Flashcards

1
Q

What is major trauma?

A

Serious and often multiple injuries where there is a strong possibility of death or disability

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2
Q

What is the injury severity score (ISS)?

A

Anatomic severity scale based on Abbreviated Injury Scale (AIS) and developed specifically to score multiple traumatic injuries - retrospective

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of major trauma?

A

Fall from < 2m
Followed by RTC

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4
Q

What are the commonest causes of preventable or potentially preventable deaths?

A

Bleeding
Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome - untreated bleeding
Cardiorespiratory arrest

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5
Q

What is the acronym for the initial assessment you should do in major trauma?

A

CABCDE
C = control catastrophic haemorrhage
A = airway with C-spine protection
B = breathing with ventilation
C = circulation with haemorrhage control
D = disability - neurological status
E = exposure/environment

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6
Q

What are the 4 main types of mechanisms that can lead to major trauma?

A

Blunt force injury
Penetrating trauma
Sports
Blast injuries/explosions

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7
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in an RTC?

A

Cervical spine injury
Blunt thoracic and cardiac injury
Hollow viscus perforating/solid organ injury
Pelvic/acetabular/femur/long bone injuries
Motorcycles - literally anything, PELVIS

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8
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in an assault?

A

Head injuries
Beware stamp to abdomen/chest

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a fall from a height?

A

Anything
Depends on how you fall

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of injury of a stabbing?

A

Follows track of the knife
Better outcomes

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a shooting?

A

Rare in UK
Type of weapon used and how far away weapon was changes mechanism of injury
Depends on bullets/kinetics
Bullet can tumble/cause displacement of tissues
Higher risk of damage further away from entry wound

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a sports injury?

A

Depends on the sport
May carry specific and recurrent risks

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13
Q

What risks of injury are there in rugby?

A

Splenic/renal ruptures
C-spine

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14
Q

What risks of injury are there in football?

A

Hamstring rupture

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in blast injuries/explosions?

A

Primary = blast disrupts gas filled structure
Secondary = impact airborne debris
Tertiary = transmission of body (thrown)
Quaternary = all other forces

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16
Q

What are the priorities in major trauma and what order are these in?

A
  1. Stop bleeding
  2. Prevent hypoxia
  3. Prevent acidaemia - lots of important systems require normonaemia
  4. Avoid traumatic cardiac arrest or treat correctly
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17
Q

What other key factors are there in major trauma?

A

Save time = save lives
Good pre-hospital care
Teamwork
Consultant led trauma team
Consultant led in-patient care
MDT approach
Early rehabilitation

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18
Q

What is the acronym for transfer of information in major trauma? What does this stand for?

A

A = age
T = time (when did it happen)
M = mechanism
I = injuries found/suspected
S = sigs (obs)
T = treatments

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19
Q

What is the management of catastrophic haemorrhage?

A

Figure out what/where is bleeding
Clear any clots obscuring bleeding source
Direct pressure +++++
Indirect pressure - occlude arterial flow more proximally
Torniquet (ensure bleeding stopped and no distal pulse)
Haemostatic agents

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20
Q

What is the NICE expected time frame for securing airway in major trauma?

A

45 minutes

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21
Q

How might you secure an airway in major trauma?

A

Rapid Sequence Induction (RSI) of anaesthesia

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22
Q

What are the absolute indications for intubation?

A

Inability to maintain and protect own airway regardless of conscious level
Inability to maintain adequate oxygenation with less invasive manoeuvres
Inability to maintain normocapnia
Deteriorating conscious level
Significant facial injuries
Seizures

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23
Q

What should you do in terms of airway in burns?

A

Consider whether airway is compromised or at risk

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24
Q

What signs might there be to show the airway may be compromised or at risk in burns?

A

Hypoxaemia/hypercapnia
Deep facial burns
Full thickness burns
Burns the throat

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25
Q

What are the relative indications for intubation?

A

Haemorrhagic shock, particularly in presence of evolving metabolic acidosis
Agitated patient (hypoxia and hypovolaemia can cause agitation)
Multiple painful injuries
Transfer to another area of hospital/expected clinical course

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26
Q

What are the criteria for high risk of c-spine injury in major trauma?

A

65 or older
Dangerous mechanism of injury - fall from height > 1m or 5 steps, axial load to head eg diving, bike collision
Paraesthesia in upper/lower limbs
Down’s syndrome/RA/spondylitis

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27
Q

What are the criteria for low risk of c-spine injury in major trauma?

A

Minor rear-end motor vehicle collision
Comfortable sitting
Ambulatory at any time since injury
No midline cervical spinal tenderness
Delayed onset of neck pain
Unable to actively rotate neck 45 degrees to L and R - only assess if low risk and no high risk factors

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28
Q

What are the criteria for no risk of c-spine injury in major trauma?

A

Have one of low risk factors and able to activity rotate neck 45 degrees to L and R

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29
Q

What should be done during A assessment?

A

Immobilise C-spine if high risk
Provide O2
Assess airway - look, listen, feel
Jaw thrust if c-spine immobilised not head tilt chin life
Proceed to RSI if indicated

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30
Q

What is the mnemonic for life threatening thoracic injury? What does it stand for?

A

ATOM FC
A = airway obstruction/disruption
T = tension pneumothorax
O = open pneumothorax
M = massive haemothorax
F = flail chest
C = cardiac tamponade

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31
Q

How might someone with tension pneumothorax present?

A

Diminished breath sounds
Hyperresonance
Distended neck veins
Deviated trachea (very late sign, often peri-arrest, not reliable)
Hypoxia
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Consistent history - blunt/penetrating trauma
Air hunger/agitation

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32
Q

How is a tension pneumothorax treated?

A

Needle thoracentesis 2nd IC mid-clavicular line or thoracostomy + large bore chest drain (preferred)

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33
Q

What is an open pneumothorax?

A

Wound to chest wall communicating with pleural cavity
>2/3 aperture of trachea (air more likely to go out of hole than trachea)
Air moves down pressure gradient to pleural space
Wound seals on expiration
Leads to tension pneumothorax

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34
Q

How is an open pneumothorax treated?

A

Seal chest

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35
Q

What is a massive haemothorax?

A

<1500ml blood in chest

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36
Q

How might someone with a massive haemothorax present?

A

Reduced air sounds
Hypo resonant
Consistent Hx

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37
Q

How do you treat a massive haemothorax?

A

Obtain IV access prior to decompression - to replace vol
> 1500ml blood or >200ml/hr consider urgent thoracotomy

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38
Q

What is a flail chest and what does it lead to?

A

Fracture of 2 or more ribs in 2 or more places
Floating section of ribs
Moves paradoxically during respiration
Ventilation failure

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39
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in cardiac tamponade?

A

Beck’s triad = hypotension, diminished heart sounds, distended neck veins

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40
Q

What is the cardiac box?

A

Superiorly - clavicle
Inferiorly - xiphoid
Laterally - nipples

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41
Q

When should you consider a cardiac wound?

A

Wound in cardiac box

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42
Q

How do you treat cardiac tamponade?

A

Resuscitating thoracotomy

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43
Q

Name 3 secondary suvery injuries

A

Simple pneumothorax
Aortic injuries
Diaphragmatic injuries
Fractured ribs
Lung contusion
Cardiac contusion

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44
Q

How are secondary survey injuries identified?

A

Imaging

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45
Q

What issues may you deal with during circulation assessment?

A

Sweaty/diaphroetic
Anxious/confused
Pallor/peripherally cool
Tachycardia/tachypnoea
>CRT
Narrow pulse pressure
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Arrest

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46
Q

What are the main sources of bleeding that will kill you within minutes to hours?

A

‘Blood on the floor and 4 more’
External haemorrhage
Chest
Abdomen
Pelvis
Long bones

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47
Q

What can cause abdominal bleeding?

A

Blunt force trauma/penetrating trauma to abdomen

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48
Q

What injuries can lead to abdominal bleeding?

A

Liver
Spleen
Retroperitoneal

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49
Q

What signs are there of abdominal bleeding?

A

Not always peritonitic but can be
If older less likely to show signs

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50
Q

How do you diagnose abdominal bleeding?

A

CT
All but most unstable patient

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51
Q

What are the indications for an emergency laparotomy?

A

Peritonism
Radiological evidence of free air
GI haemorrhage
Persistent/resistant haemodynamic instability

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52
Q

How do you treat potential pelvic bleeding?

A

Closing potential space
Use of binder -> mandatory in haemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients

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53
Q

What are the long bones?

A

Femur, humerus, radius, fibula, tibia, metacarpals

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54
Q

What are the most important long bones to consider in major haemorrhage?

A

FEMUR
Humerus
Tibia

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55
Q

How do you treat potential long bone injuries?

A

Bring bones back to anatomical position - close potential space

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56
Q

What is permissive hypotension?

A

Want to maintain perfusion to vital organs so don’t want BP to peripheries too high
Can lose more blood, dilutes blood, lower clotting factors
Let hypotension until bleeding stopped

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57
Q

What is the best MAP to maintain in major trauma bleeding patients?

A

50mmHg
> 60mmHg death from bleeding
< 40mmHg death from hypoperfusion

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58
Q

What should you replace volume with in major blood loss?

A

Physiological fluids

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59
Q

What drug is very useful in major trauma bleeding?

A

Tranexamic acid
Prevents fibrinolysis and therefore helps prevent trauma induced coagulopathy

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60
Q

What are the indications for blood products in trauma?

A

Consistent
- Systolic BP < 90
- HR > 130
- Reduced GCS
- Obvious massive ongoing blood loss

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61
Q

What is the triangle of death from trauma?

A

Coagulopathy
Acidosis
Hypothermia

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62
Q

What can lead to coagulopathy?

A

Haemorrhage

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63
Q

What can lead to hypothermia?

A

Injury -> exposure -> hypothermia

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64
Q

What can lead to acidosis?

A

Haemorrhage -> hypoperfusion -> acidosis

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65
Q

How do you treat haemorrhage?

A

Stop bleeding
Pelvic binder
Splint long bone fractures
Permissive hypotension
Tranexamic acid 1g 10 min than 1g infusion
Emergent damage control surgery
Interventional radiology
Limit crystalloids

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66
Q

What is an acceptable systolic in major haemorrhage?

A

50-90

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67
Q

What needs to be assessed in disability?

A

Assessment of neurology in primary survey (before RSI)
Head injury assessment

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68
Q

How can you assess neurology?

A

A(C)VPU
Pupillary size and response
Motor score of GCS most predictive outcome
Sensory level if able (usually lower later on, earlier can find better)

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69
Q

What is the difference between a primary head injury and secondary head injury?

A

Primary = incident
Secondary = hypoxic injury/hypoperfusion - can be caused by interventions (make sure to adequately oxygenate), poor outcomes

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70
Q

What is the CPP trade off in head injury and major trauma?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP
Don’t want MAP too high incase of bleeding but need high enough to perfuse brain
When ICP > MAP brain no longer receives enough O2
Sympathetic nervous system activates + parasympathetic nervous system activates = Cushing’s triad

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71
Q

What systolic is better in a head injury?

A

> 100

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72
Q

What is Cushing’s reflex and when does it happen?

A

Bradycardia + hypertension + irregular bleeding pattern
Happens physiologically if raised ICP
Widening pulse pressure (increased difference between systolic and diastolic BP)
Triad = bradycardia, irregular respiration, widened pulse pressure

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73
Q

What are the main aims in dealing with a head injury?

A

Prevent secondary brain injury
Secure airway GCS < 8
Maintain normal everything else as long as systolic around 100

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74
Q

What do you do in exposure assessment?

A

Look for obvious limb threatening injuries
Ensure patient being kept warm
Consider a few bedside tests
Don’t forget pain - uncontrolled pain linked to PTSD from major trauma, difficult as can do weird things to BP and RR

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75
Q

How do the elderly differ from younger people?

A

Osteoporosis
Polypharmacy
Muscle wasting
Rigid and painful joints
Changes in proprioception
Less able to protect themselves if they fall
Respiratory differences
Cardiovascular differences

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76
Q

What respiratory differences do older people have?

A

Less able to adapt
Respiratory muscle weakness
Kyphosis thoracic spine
Chest wall rigidity
Impaired central response to hypoxia
Reduced alveolar gas exchange surface ares

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77
Q

What cardiovascular differences do older people have?

A

Reduced SV
SV product of pre-load (total body water often less in older people), afterload (total peripheral resistant rigid and non-compliant peripheral circulatory system), and contractility (cardiac power index, HR can’t do the same as normally does, cardiac muscle replaced by collagen)

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78
Q

What is important to remember about hypotension in older people?

A

150-160 systolic normal in elderly
Hypotensive for elderly patient could be 120

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79
Q

What polypharmacy medications may older people be on?

A

Anticoagulation
Cardiovascular drugs affecting heart and renal function
Long term steroids - impaired healing, suppressed adrenals so poorer response to trauma
Lots of nephrotoxic drugs
Opiates - constipation, UTIs, sedation
NSAIDs - bad for kidneys
B-blocker

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80
Q

What is the relationship between polypharmacy and falls?

A

More drugs on, more likely to have fall within the next 6 months

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81
Q

What is important to remember about head injuries and older patients?

A

Tolerate more blood in their head as smaller brains
Prognosis of severe brain injury decreases age > 65

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82
Q

Why are elderly patients at higher risk of cervical spine injuries?

A

Fixed joints
Softer bones

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83
Q

What is important to remember when immobilising an elderly patients c-spine?

A

Can be hazardous due to kyphosis
Maintain patients normal

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84
Q

What is the difference between thoracic injuries in the elderly and younger people?

A

Same injuries seen in younger patients as elderly
Otherwise minor injuries carry large risk to older patients
Decreased amount of force required to cause trauma to ribs

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85
Q

What is the relationship between rib fractures and mortality in the elderly?

A

> 3 rib fractures, each additional rib fracture has 10% mortality rate

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86
Q

What is the difference between thoracic injuries in children and thoracic injuries in elderly?

A

Children -> lung contusions, few factures
Elderly -> rib fractures

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87
Q

What is the difference in abdominal injuries in older people compared to younger?

A

Lower ribs and pelvic brim weaker
Abdominal examination unreliable
Pain not as well localised in elderly
CT scan lower threshold in elderly

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88
Q

Why is a dip stick not reliable in the elderly?

A

Likely to have physiological bateruria as urinary stasis

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89
Q

How do you diagnose a UTI in older people if a dip stick is not reliable?

A

New urinary symptoms or fever with change in urinary character or haematuria, or loin tenderness
Unexplained confusion + unexplained raised inflammatory markers

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90
Q

What is a FAST scan?

A

Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma
Important role in triage when managing multiple SIPs simultaneously or in a major incident - who gets priority

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91
Q

What is the trauma series in plain films?

A

AP chest, pelvis and c-spine
Extremity imaging can wait
CXR - portable, can use in resus, can see flail chest, massive pneumothorax, haemothorax

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92
Q

What kind of trauma is flail chest related to?

A

High impact trauma

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93
Q

When does flail chest occur?

A

3 or more contiguous ribs are fractured in 2 or more places

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94
Q

What other injuries is flail chest often associated with?

A

Pulmonary contusion/laceration
Pneumothorax
Haemothorax

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95
Q

What does a flail chest look like on examination?

A

Paradoxical chest movements

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96
Q

What does a widened mediastinum indicate?

A

Aortic injury - often dead

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97
Q

What should you look for if you find a pelvic fracture and why?

A

Another pelvic fracture
Ring so must break in at least 2 places

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98
Q

What other complications may you see after a pelvic injury?

A

Bladder/urethral rupture
Rarely perforation

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99
Q

What is AP compression?

A

Crush injury resulting in disruption of pubic symphysis and pelvis opens like a book
Pubic rami may be fractured in vertical orientation instead of disruption of pubis symphysis
May also get sacroiliac joint issues

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100
Q

What is a vertical sheer injury?

A

Results in vertical, unilateral fractures of pubic rami and vertical fracture of sacral foramina on the same side
Malgaigne (ipsilateral)/bucket handle (contra-lateral)

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101
Q

What is a lateral compression injury?

A

Lateral force causes sacral fracture with diastasis of pubis symphysis
Force results in oblique fractures of pubic rami bilaterally, impacted fractures of sacral foramina ipsilateral to the force, infolding of hemipelvis

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102
Q

What is a Jefferson fracture?

A

Fracture of C1
Space between odontoid peg of C2 and lateral masses of C2 widened on both sides
Lateral masses of C1 both laterally displaced and no longer align with lateral masses of C2
Often due to blunt force trauma to top of head

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103
Q

What is a hangman fracture?

A

Fractures of C2 (axis) may involve odontoid peg, vertebral body, or posterior elements
Results from high force hyperextension injury
Involves pedicles of C2 and often anterior displacement of body and peg of C2

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104
Q

What is a flexion teardrop fracture?

A

Fracture of c-spine caused by sudden pull of anterior longitudinal ligament on the anterior, inferior aspect of vertebral body following extreme hyperextension of neck
Very unstable, high risk of slipping, bad results

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105
Q

What is a burst fracture?

A

From axial loading most often secondary to motor vehicle accidents and falls
Usually produced by a comminuted, vertical fracture through vertical body
Anterior wedging
Convexity to posterior vertebral surface
Fragments may be retropulsed into spinal canal injuring the cord

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106
Q

How do you tell how old blood is on a CT scan?

A

Hyperacute (first hour) appear isodense to adjacent cortex with a swirled appearance due to mixture of clot, serum, and ongoing clotted blood
Acute - high attenuation to brain parenchyma (6-24 hours) bright
Chronic - clot starts to degrade and density drops

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107
Q

Which types of head injury are highly related to encephalitis, meningitis, and epilepsy?

A

Skull fractures with depression
Pneumocephalus skull fractures

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108
Q

When should you CT in major trauma?

A

Gold standard of imaging
Polytrauma indications
- Haemodynamic instability
- Mechanism of injury -> more than one system/body part, RTC with fatalities
- Findings on plain film/FAST scan are inconclusive or suggestive on injury
- Obvious severe injury

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109
Q

What is important to remember about significant injuries in more than one body region?

A

Likely to be more so look for more!

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110
Q

What is V/Q mismatch?

A

Ventilation and perfusion not the same throughout both lungs therefore patient becomes hypoxic
Issue with delivering O2 into the blood stream

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111
Q

What are the 3 main causes of respiratory failure?

A

Alveolar collapse
Oedema
Bronchoconstriction

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112
Q

What can cause alveolar collapse?

A

Pneumonia
Anaesthesia
Lying down
Pneumothorax

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113
Q

What can cause bronchoconstriction?

A

Asthma
COPD

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114
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Type 1 = O2 between 12 and 8, low pO2 and normal/low pCO2
Type 2 = low O2, high CO2

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115
Q

How does type 1 respiratory failure occur?

A

Breathing harder to increase O2 but normal/low CO2
CO2 can drop as breathing harder
As exhaust from breathing harder, CO2 can normalise (one of the criteria in acute life threatening asthma)
Still able to effectively ventilate as can clear CO2 but failing to oxygenate

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116
Q

How does type 2 respiratory failure occur?

A

Can’t breath as fast as body telling you to as you exhaust
Not getting rid of CO2 fast enough
Failure of ventilation and oxygenation

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117
Q

What does a high CO2 mean?

A

Poor ventilation

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118
Q

What does a low O2 mean?

A

V/Q mismatch

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119
Q

What is EPAP?

A

Expiratory pressure applied
Prevents alveolar collapsing helping to treat respiratory failure
Pushes fluid back into blood in oedema

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120
Q

What is EPAP for?

A

Low O2/V/Q mismatch

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121
Q

What is EPAP also known as?

A

CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure)

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122
Q

What is IPAP?

A

Inspiratory pressure so you take a bigger tidal volume and bigger minute volume

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123
Q

What is IPAP used for?

A

High CO2
Poor ventilation

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124
Q

What is BiPAP?

A

EPAP + IPAP

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125
Q

What is BiPAP treatment for?

A

Type 2 respiratory failure

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126
Q

What is Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV)?

A

BiPAP
CPAP

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127
Q

What are the indications for NIV?

A

Collapsed alveoli
Oedema - LVHF pulmonary oedema

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128
Q

What is NIV not used for?

A

Asthma
Pneumothorax
Agitation
Airway loss

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129
Q

Why is NIV not used for asthma?

A

Can push too much air in which has no way of leaving due to bronchiole constriction, can cause alveolar rupture

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130
Q

What is the definition of a patient who is critically ill?

A

Patient at high risk for developing actual or potential life-threatening health problems

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131
Q

What is see-saw breathing?

A

Anterior chest wall inwards and downwards as abdomen expands

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132
Q

How to you assess airway?

A

Look, listen, feel

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133
Q

What should you look for when assessing airway?

A

Working hard - usage of accessory muscles
See saw breathing
Blue colour

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134
Q

What should you listen for when assessing airway?

A

Snoring noises - tongue falls back into pharynx
Extra noises
Wheeze/stridor
Gurgling

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135
Q

What should you feel for when assessing airway?

A

Can you feel air being moved?

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136
Q

How do you treat a compromised airway?

A

Head tilt, chin lift
Jaw thrust if concerns about stability of c-spine
Gentle suction for gurgling and secretions
Airway adjuncts if still struggling
Recovery position, nasal airway, intubation
Careful of gag reflex

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137
Q

How do you assess breathing?

A

Look, listen, feel

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138
Q

What should you look for when assessing breathing?

A

RR
Difficulty breathing (dyspnoea)
Sats
Cyanosis
Symmetry of chest expansion

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139
Q

What should you listen for when assessing breathing?

A

Air entry
Added sounds - crackles, wheeze

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140
Q

What should you feel for when assessing breathing?

A

Trachea
Symmetry of chest expansion
Percussion
Generally before listening

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141
Q

How do you treat breathing issues?

A

High flow O2 - reservoir mask/non-rebreathe + 15L/min O2
If resp absent or inadequate bag and mask ventilation

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142
Q

How do you assess circulation?

A

Look, listen, feel

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143
Q

What should you look for when assessing circulation?

A

Perfusion - sats, peripheral cyanosis, CRT
Bleeding
Other organ perfusion - brain = reduced level of consciousness, kidney = urine output adequate?

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144
Q

What should you listen for when assessing circulation?

A

Heart sounds

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145
Q

What should you feel for when assessing circulation?

A

Pulses - peripheral and central, rate, rhythm, volume
BP - hypotension

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146
Q

What is the definition of hypotension?

A

Low if SBP < 90
Low if SBP > 40 lower than normal - use more for older people
MAP > 65

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147
Q

How do you treat circulation issues?

A

Fluid challenge unless HF or major haemorrhages
Large bore IV access and appropriate bloods
2 x 250ml fluid challenge rapidly
Repeat obs -> if no change then further fluid challenge
Restoration of tissue perfusion

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148
Q

How do you assess disability?

A

Level of consciousness - AVPU/GCS
Pupils
Glucose

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149
Q

How do you do exposure?

A

Focussed clinical examination
Based on past history of patient

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150
Q

What do you do after completing a full A->E assessment?

A

Are ABCDE stable -> if not start again
Full assessment + management plan if stable

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151
Q

What should the ongoing management of a stable patient be?

A

Ongoing observations
Review of notes, charts, and investigations
IV Abx if required
IV fluids
Further investigations -> CXR, ECG, CT abdo?
Discussion with seniors

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152
Q

At what NEWS2 score should you escalate a patient to the surgical reg?

A

NEWS2 > 7

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153
Q

What should you do if a patients NEWS2 score is > 7?

A

Escalate to surgical reg
Immediate medical review
Hourly fluid monitoring
Sepsis screen
Contact critical care outreach team
2222 if immediate assistance required

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154
Q

What occurs in shock?

A

Circulatory failure
Tissue hypoperfusion
Energy deficit
Accumulation of metabolites

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155
Q

What are the 3 main categories of shock?

A

Fluid
Pump
Pipes

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156
Q

What can cause shock related to fluids and how is it treated?

A

Hypovolaemia/haemorrhage
Replace fluids

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157
Q

What are the 2 different types of pump issues causing shock?

A

Obstructive
Cardiogenic

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158
Q

What can cause obstructive causes of shock?

A

Tension pneumothorax
PE
Tamponade

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159
Q

What can cause cardiogenic shock?

A

Ischaemia
Arrhythmias
Other

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160
Q

How is cardiogenic shock treated?

A

Inotropes but difficult to manage

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161
Q

What can cause shock related to the pipes?

A

Septic
Distributive -> neurogenic/endocrine
Anaphylactic

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162
Q

How do you treat shock related to pipes?

A

Vasopressor
Septic + fluids

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163
Q

How do you treat shock?

A

Call for help
ABC
O2
Treat the underlying cause

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164
Q

What can cause reduced GCS?

A

CNS - seizure, infection, SOL, CVA
CVR - low CO state
Resp - hypoxia, hypercapnia, CO poisoning
MET - uraemia, hepatic encephalopathy, hypoglycaemia, hypo/hypernatraemia, hypothyroidism, hypothermia
Pharm - opiates, benzos, tricyclics, alcohol

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165
Q

How do you manage a patient who has reduced GCS?

A

ABCDE
C-spine immobilisation
Assess level of consciousness - AVPU, GCS, glucose
Neurological examination secondary survey
CT

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166
Q

What should you do in a neurological examination secondary survey?

A

Vitals
Gross neurological deficit
Head to toe examination in A-E approach
CN II-XII
TPR CS

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167
Q

What does TPR CS stand for?

A

Tone, Power, Reflexes, Coordination, Sensation

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168
Q

What are the risks of head bleeds?

A

Airway at risk
Secondary brain injury
Uncal herniation

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169
Q

What can cause secondary brain injuries?

A

Hypo/hyperperfusion
Autoregulation loss/CO2 reactivity loss
Vasospasm
Oedema/inflammation
Metabolic dysfunction
Excitotoxicity
Oxidative stress
Necrosis/apoptosis

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170
Q

What is the symptom of uncal herniation and why?

A

Mydriasis
Pressure on CN III

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171
Q

What can be done to treat raised ICP? Saying

A

Blood
Brain
Box

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172
Q

What can be done to the blood to treat raised ICP?

A

Head up to 30 degress
MAP = 90
Hypercapnia and hypoxia increased CBV
Avoid hypoxia
Aim for normocarbia

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173
Q

What can be done for the brain in raised ICP?

A

Mannitol/hypertonic saline
O2 consumption (temperature/seizures)
NMBD
Glucose

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174
Q

What can be done for the box in raised ICP?

A

Craniotomy/craniectomy

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175
Q

What are the 3 components of anaesthesia?

A

Hypnosis
Analgesia
Muscle relaxation

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176
Q

What are the 3 levels of hypnosis?

A

Awake -> local anaesthetics
Sedated -> sedation
Asleep -> general

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177
Q

What are the local techniques?

A

Local -> minor surgery, laceration or wound repair
Regional -> target specific nerves, usually for post-op pain relief
Neuroaxial -> subarachnoid block (spinal)/epidural, or intraoperative and postoperative use

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178
Q

What is the difference between a spinal anaesthetic and an epidural anaesthetic?

A

Spinal (/subarachnoid) -> needle into CSF in subdural space, through ligaments and dura, local anaesthetic injected as bolus lasts around 2 hours
Epidural -> needle into extradural space, catheter passed, local anaesthetic delivered as infusion

179
Q

When can you use a spinal/epidural intraoperatively?

A

Incision below highest nerve root affected by the block -> normally below T10 dermatome
Incisions above this level require GA and lumbar epidural insufficient pain relief post op

180
Q

How do local anaesthetics work?

A

Reversibly block Na+ channels
Inhibit generation of action potentials within nerve cells
Small diameter and unmyelinated nerve fibres blocked first

181
Q

What is the order of block with local anaesthetics and what is the effect?

A

B fibres -> autonomic (vasodilatation)
C and A delta fibres -> pain and temperature
A beta fibres -> light touch and pressure
A alpha and A gamma fibres -> motor and proprioception

182
Q

What is local anaesthetic often combined with and why?

A

Adrenaline
Adrenaline causes vasoconstriction therefore reduced bleeding, prolonged local anaesthetic effect through reduced absorption from tissues

183
Q

What agents are there for local anaesthetic?

A

Lidocaine
Bupivicaine

184
Q

When is lidocaine best used and why?

A

Immediate onset, 15 minute duration
Small procedures -> laceration repair, chest drains, big cannulae

185
Q

When is bupivicaine best used and why?

A

Spinal/epidural (also regional)
10 minute onset
2 hours anaesthesia
12-24 hours anaglesia

186
Q

What is the definition of a sedation drug?

A

Any drug given to reduce anxiety (anxiolysis), reduce consciousness, reduce irritability (of the airway), induce amnesia

187
Q

Name a short-term sedation and when it may be used

A

IV midazolam
Endoscopy
Regional anaesthesia

188
Q

Name a long-term sedation and when it may be used

A

Infusions IV propofol +/- alfentanil
Intensive care
Intubated patients for theatre or transfer

189
Q

What are hypnotic drugs used for?

A

Induction and maintenance of anaesthesia

190
Q

Name 3 inhalational anaesthetics and what they are used for

A

Generally used to maintain anaesthesia especially in adults
Isoflurane -> cheapest
Desflurane -> wears off quickly
Sevoflurane -> used to induce (in children) and/or maintain anaesthesia

191
Q

Name 3 IV anaesthetic inducers and when they are used

A

Propofol -> quick onset, commonest, anti-emetic, fast redistribution so rapid recovery of consciousness (preferred)
Thiopenthal -> quick, emergencies
Ketamine -> CVS instability, analgesia

192
Q

How is intubation carried out?

A

Induction -> muscle relaxation -> intubation

193
Q

Why are muscle relaxants required for intubation?

A

Glottis relaxed for intubation, muscles relaxed enough for surgery, patients don’t fight ventilators

194
Q

What are the 2 types of muscle relaxant?

A

Non-depolarising and depolarising

195
Q

Name a non-depolarising muscle relaxant and when they are used

A

Atracurium
Rocunorium (rapid onset)
Vecuronium
120-180s onset
Routine and emergency anaesthesia

196
Q

Name a depolarising relaxant and when it is used

A

Suxamethonium
30s onset
Emergencies

197
Q

How do non-depolarising muscle relaxants work?

A

Competitively inhibit Ach by blocking binding site and preventing depolarisation and contraction

198
Q

How does suxamethonium work?

A

2 Ach molecules that bind to both Ach sites simultaneously
Non-competitive
Causes contraction and then keeps pore open preventing further contraction

199
Q

What can be used to reverse neuromuscular blocks and where does it not work?

A

Anticholinesterases eg neostigmine
Doesn’t work for suxamethonium as just causes more build up of ACH
Sugammadex reverses suxamethonium

200
Q

What are the 2 methods of managing an airway?

A

Spontaneous breathing
Controlled ventilation

201
Q

Name a method of basic airway management

A

Airway manoeuvres - head tilt, chin lift, jaw thrust
Bag-mask ventilation
Guedel airway (oropharyngeal) for BMV aid
Nasopharyngeal - for BMV air

202
Q

Name a complex airway method

A

Laryngeal mask
Endotracheal - theatre, ITU
Tracheostomy - ITU

203
Q

Name a definitive airway

A

Cuffed tube below vocal cords creating a seal and preventing aspiration - correctly positioned ET tube or tracheostomy

204
Q

When is NIV used?

A

Supplemental O2 falling - resp failure

205
Q

When is CPAP used?

A

T1RF

206
Q

What is T1RF?

A

pCO2 low/normal
pO2 normal
Caused by problem with inadequate oxygenation
Due to alveolar collapse eg pneumonia or fluid in alveoli eg LVHF

207
Q

What is CPAP?

A

Continuous positive airway pressure
Maintains minimum airway pressure
Holds alveolar open and/or fluid forced out of lung

208
Q

What is BiPAP used for?

A

T2RF

209
Q

What is T2RF?

A

pCO2 high, pO2 low
Inadequate ventilation
Alveolar expansion limited eg COPD, musclular dystrophy

210
Q

Name 2 types of invasive ventilation

A

Endotracheal tube
Tracheostomy

211
Q

What are the 2 types of ventilation that invasive ventilation can achieve?

A

Volume control
Pressure control

212
Q

What is volume control ventilation?

A

Pressure increases
Target volume reached
Ventilator stops
Expiration occurs

213
Q

Where is volume control ventilation used?

A

Theatres

214
Q

What is pressure control ventilation?

A

Pressure constant
Target time reached
Ventilator stops
Expiration occurs
Protects lungs from too high pressure (ITU, children)

215
Q

Where is pressure control ventilation used?

A

Theatres
ITU almost exclusively

216
Q

How do anticholinergics work?

A

Inhibit Ach therefore inhibiting vagus nerve (parasympathetic) leading to increased HR
Treats bradycardia

217
Q

Name an anticholinergic

A

Atropine -> crosses BBB, quick acting
Glycopyrrolate -> doesn’t cross BBB, slower acting

218
Q

How do beta-adrenoceptor agonists work?

A

Stimulate beta receptors in myocardial cells leading to increased HR and contractility

219
Q

Name a beta-adrenoceptor agonist

A

Dobutamine - used in HR, ITU

220
Q

How do alpha agonists work?

A

Stimulate alpha receptors found in peripherals, causes vasoconstriction increasing BP
Can cause reduced HR in response to increased BP

221
Q

Name a peripheral acting vasoconstrictor given via cannula

A

Phenylephrine
Metaraminol

222
Q

Name a central acting vasoconstriction given via central line

A

Noradrenaline

223
Q

How does ephedrine work?

A

Combined alpha and beta adrenoceptor agonist therefore simultaneously raising HR and BP
Adrenaline also works like this but v potent

224
Q

What are the maintenance fluids for adults roughly?

A

30ml/kg/day

225
Q

What can be used for volume replacement?

A

Hartmann’s
Saline

226
Q

What can be given for blood loss?

A

Blood

227
Q

What can be given for hypoglycaemia?

A

Dextrose 10%

228
Q

What is a vasocath?

A

Filter acting like a kidney
Into central vein and filters blood

229
Q

What can be treated with a vasocath?

A

Fluid overload
Severe metabolic acidosis
Uraemia
Poisoning
Hyperkalaemia

230
Q

What can be given for mild pain?

A

Paracetamol
NSAID

231
Q

When should you be cautious with paracetamol?

A

Liver failure
Low weight (elderly and children)

232
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

Inhibit COX enzyme therefore preventing production of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid
Phospholipase A2 -> arachidonic acid -> leukotrienes/prostaglandins
COX1 -makes protective prostaglandins -> protecting gastric mucosa, platelet aggregation
COX2 - infammatory prostaglandins
Increase leukotriene production = exacerbation of asthma

233
Q

What are the S/E of NSAIDs?

A

Peptic ulcers
AKI
Blood thinning

234
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

Inhibits thromboxane A2 preventing platelet aggregation

235
Q

What can be given for moderate pain?

A

Codeine
Tramadol

236
Q

What can be given for severe pain?

A

Morphine

237
Q

What are the S/E of opiates?

A

CNS - sedation, miosis
CVS - bradycardia, hypotension
Respiratory - bardypnoea, apnoea
GI - N&V, constipation
Urinary - retention
Skin - urticaria

238
Q

What type of opioids should you give pre-op?

A

Weak, strong, modified release

239
Q

What opioids should you give intra-op?

A

Rapid onset/offset, ultrashort acting, long acting

240
Q

What opioids should you give post-op?

A

Oral, IV, transdermal

241
Q

What opioids are given in critical care?

A

Non-cumulative infusions

242
Q

Name a weak opioid and it’s benefit

A

Codeine
Tramadol
Low dose, slow release morphine

243
Q

Name a strong opioid

A

Morphine
Oxycodone
Methadone
Buprenorphine

244
Q

Name a modified release opioid

A

Fentanyl patch
Morphine sulphate tablets
Oxycontin

245
Q

What are the benefits of fentanyl and alfentanil?

A

Fentanyl more potent
Alfentanil works more rapidly but stops working more rapidly
Alfentanil best known for low accumulation for background pain relief

246
Q

How does remifentanil work?

A

Ultrashort acting with rapid onset/offset
Metabolised differently to other opioids
Very wide therapeutic index

247
Q

Which opioids can be given intrathecally?

A

Diamorphine
Fentanyl

248
Q

What receptors does tramadol work on?

A

Noradrenaline
Opioid
Serotonin

249
Q

What receptors are involved in stimulating the vomiting centre?

A

Serotonin - 5HT-3
Dopamine - D2
Histamine - H1

250
Q

Where are serotonin 5HT3 and dopamine D2 receptors?

A

Solitary tract nucleus
Higher centres
Chemoreceptor trigger zone
GI tract

251
Q

Where are histamine H1 receptors found?

A

Cerebellum
Solitary tract nucleus
Chemoreceptors trigger zone

252
Q

Name an anti-emetic that works on the serotonin 5HT3 receptor

A

Ondansetron

253
Q

Where does ondansetron work?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone
GI tract

254
Q

How does ondansetron work?

A

Prevents stimulation of vagus nerve by emetogenic stimuli in the gut

255
Q

What are the S/E and cautions with ondansetron?

A

Constipation, diarrhoea, headaches, prolonged QT interval

256
Q

What are the indications for ondansetron?

A

CTZ stimulation -> drugs
Visceral stimuli -> gut infection, radiotherapy
PONV
Vomiting after acute opioid administration

257
Q

Name a D2 receptor antagonist anti-emetic

A

Metaclopramide
Domperidone

258
Q

Where do D2 receptor antagonist anti-emetics work?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone
Upper GI tract

259
Q

How do D2 receptor antagonist anti-emetics work?

A

Prokinetic
Relaxes pylorus, reduces low oesophageal sphincter tones, increases gastric peristalsis

260
Q

What are the S/E of D2 receptor antagonist anti-emetics?

A

Diarrhoea, extrapyramidal with metaclopramide eg acute dystonia (domeridone doesn’t cross BBB so no extrapyramidal S/E)

261
Q

Where can D2 receptor antagonists be used?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone stimulation eg drugs, decreased gut motility eg opioids, diabetric gastroparesis
Metaclopromide -> long term opioid use (opioids cause gastric stasis)
Domperidone -> premedication for PONV

262
Q

What are the CI of D2 receptor antagonists?

A

GI obstruction
Perforation

263
Q

Name a H1 receptor antagonist anti-emetic

A

Cyclizine
Cinnarizine
Promethazine

264
Q

Where doe H1 receptor antagonists work?

A

Vomiting centre
Vestibular system

265
Q

What are the S/E of H1 receptor antagonists?

A

Drowsiness
Dry mouth
Blurred vision (anticholinergic effect)
Transient trachycardia after IV

266
Q

What can H1 receptor antagonists be used for?

A

Motion sickness
Vertigo
Cyclizine -> PONV, motion sickness, vomiting after acute opioid administration
Prochlorperazine -> vertigo

267
Q

Where should H1 receptor antagonists be avoided?

A

Prostatic hypertrophy as can precipitate urinary retention

268
Q

What patient RF are there for PONV?

A

Female
Previous PONV
History of travel sickness
Non-smoker

269
Q

What are the surgical RF for PONV?

A

ENT
Gynae
GI

270
Q

What are the anaesthetic RF for PONV?

A

Peri-operative opioid use
Gastric insufflation during intubation
Volatile anaesthetics
NO2 use
Duration of anaesthesia

271
Q

What are the risks of OSA?

A

Difficult airway
Aspiration risk

272
Q

How can you diagnose OSA?

A

STOP BANG scoring
Sleep studies

273
Q

What is the STOP BANG score?

A

For OSA
Snoring
Tiredness
Observed apnoea
Blood pressure - hypertension?
BMI
Age > 50
Neck circumference > 43.18cm in men or > 40.64cm in women
Gender - male?
Low risk < 3
Moderate 3-4
High > 5

274
Q

What should you do with patients with suppressed adrenal axis?

A

Worried about bodies natural response to stress and getting through surgery
If major surgery -> supplement steroids, IV hydrocortisone for 24 hours after surgery, then resume oral steroids as soon as can tolerate (continue IV if can’t)
If minor -> continue taking PO steroids

275
Q

How do you manage thromboprophylaxis with an epidural?

A

Worry of haematoma
No prophylaxis 12 hours prior to procedure
After > 4 hours of procedure can give prophylactic LMWH
Wait 12 hours after last dose of LWMH before epidural removal

276
Q

What is the DASI score?

A

Duke Activity Status Index score
Scoring based on ability to do certain activities, the higher they score, the higher the functional status
Gives you their METs

277
Q

What are METs?

A

Ratio of working metabolic rate relative to resting metabolic rate
Eg activity of 4 METs is burning 4x the amount of energy than at rest
Higher the METs the better the functional status

278
Q

What are the features of previous MI on ECG?

A

Q waves
ST depression

279
Q

Why is it important to check U&E pre-operatively?

A

Check kidney function for clearance of anaesthetic medications
Electrolyte abnormalities - giving fluids

280
Q

Why are ACEi stopped before surgery?

A

Can cause persistent hypotension that doesn’t respond to vasopressors

281
Q

What is the risk of anaesthesia and IHD?

A

MI
Low cardiac output due to reduced HR and BP (anaesthetic effect) therefore poor perfusion to heart

282
Q

Which are you more worried about in terms of anaesthetics - stenotic or regurgitation and why?

A

Stenotic -> fixed cardiac output

283
Q

Why does low blood volume lead to hypoxia?

A

Less perfusion to the lungs
V/Q mismatch

284
Q

What is shock?

A

State of inadequate organ perfusion

285
Q

What is haemorrhagic shock?

A

Acute reduction in effective intravascular volume due to bleeding

286
Q

Which fluids should not be used for fluid resucitation and why?

A

Hypotonic fluids and dextrose (+colloids)
They won’t stay intravascularly where it is required

287
Q

What is DIC?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Inappropriate activation of coagulation pathways causing intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors leaving patient more prone to bleeding

288
Q

How much would you expect one unit of blood to increase the Hb by?

A

10 g/L

289
Q

What is a major haemorrhage?

A

50% blood loss within 3 hours
Bleeding in excess of 150ml/min
Loss of more than one blood volume within 24 hours

290
Q

Name 3 complications of a massive transfusion

A

Hypothermia
Electrolyte imbalances
Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia
Immune haemolysis
Depleted oxygenation (stored blood reduces ability to oxygenate, gets better over time)
Wrong blood
Blood transfusion specific S/E
Overload

291
Q

How does a massive transfusion cause hypocalcaemia?

A

Contains citrate which is added to blood products to prevent coagulation
This binds to calcium causing a reduction in calcaemia

292
Q

What are the starvation rules for theatre?

A

No solids consumed for 6 hours prior to anaesthesia
Oral clear fluids + oral meds up to 2 hours before surgery (omit any medications not allowed)

293
Q

Which diabetic drug does not need to be omit before surgery and why?

A

Metformin -> low risk of hypoglycaemia/normoglycaemic ketoacidosis which are S/E of starvation on other diabetic drugs

294
Q

What is VRII?

A

Variable rate IV insulin infusion + dextrose
5% dextrose + 50 units rapid acting insulin -> adjusted by taking BMs every hour than changed accordingly
If BM > 14 then dextrose changed to saline

295
Q

Why might BM be elecated in an unwell surgical patient?

A

Part of stress response
Cortisol + adrenaline released -> stimulate gluconeogenesis and decreased glucose metabolism

296
Q

What are the risks of hyperglycaemia in a diabetic patient?

A

Wound healing, infection risk
AKI - dehydrated, polydipsia
Risk of DKA

297
Q

What are the criteria for a diagnosis of DKA?

A

Hyperglycaemia > 11
Ketonaemia > 3 (ketonuria 2+ on urin dipstick)
Acidosis pH < 7.3

298
Q

What parameters indicate severe DKA?

A

pH < 7.15
GCS < 12
Pregnancy
Severe hypotension
Hypoxia, brady/tachycardia
Severe K+ abnormalities

299
Q

Why is there hypokalaemia in DKA?

A

Push K+ into cells as giving insulin

300
Q

At what rate should you give insulin in DKA?

A

0.1 units per kg per hour

301
Q

What is the sepsis 6?

A

BUFALO
Blood cultures
Urine output
Fluids
Abx
Lactate
O2

302
Q

What is MAP and how is it calculated?

A

Average arterial pressure throughout one cardiac cycle
MAP = DP + 1/3(SP - DP)

303
Q

What is sepsis and what is septic shock?

A

Sepsis -> systemic inflammatory response associated with sepsis
Septic shock -> sepsis with evidence of hypoperfusion of organs (circulatory failure) eg tachypnoea, confusion/reduced GCS, AKI etc)

304
Q

What is the qSOFA score?

A

Identifies high risk patients for in-hospital mortality with suspected infections outside of ICU
Altered metal status (GCS < 15), RR > 22, systolic < 100
>2 is high risk

305
Q

What is the definition of shock?

A

Acute circulatory failure with inadequate tissue perforation causing cellular hypoxia

306
Q

Name 3 types of shock

A

Haemorrhagic + hypovolaemic
Distributive
Cardiogenic
Anaphylactic
Neurogenic

307
Q

What type of shock is septic shock?

A

Distributive (leaky capillaries)

308
Q

How can you manage an AKI?

A

Maintain adequate BP
Maintain adequate fluids
O2
Monitor U&Es
Monitor electrolytes

309
Q

When are vasopressors dangerous to use?

A

When someone is fluid depleted as will under perfuse tissues
(Flight/flight response, vasodilation required)

310
Q

What are the benefits of epidurals?

A

Continuous pain relief
Good for lower body pain relief
Quick recovery
Probably requires a lot of opiates for the pain so therefore reduced risk of urticaria, constipation, respiratory depression, N&V etc as has epidural instead

311
Q

What are the risks of epidurals?

A

Blocks sympathetic nervous system -> vasodilation -> low BP
Loss of bladder control temporarily/urinary retention
Inadequate pain relief
Post-puncture headache
Temporary/permanent nerve damage
Infection (abscess)
Haematoma (pushes on spinal cord - permanent paralysis)
Motor blocks
S/E of opiates

312
Q

What happens if local anaesthetic gets into a blood vessel?

A

Blocks nerves so
-Arrhythmias
-Cardiac arrest
-Seizures
-LOC

313
Q

What are the CI to an epidural?

A

Absolute -> patient refusal, allergy to local, technical difficulties (eg ankylosing spondylitis, previous scoliosis surgery), active site infection
Relative -> thrombophilia, bleeding risk, severe cardiac disease, raised ICP, previous back surgery to site

314
Q

When should you avoid NSAIDs?

A

Asthma (unless take it regularly)
Dehydration
Renal impairment
Older people
Gastric problems
Pregnancy

315
Q

When should you avoid tramadol?

A

Epilepsy
Lowers the seizure threshold

316
Q

What opiates can be used in kidney failure?

A

Tramadol
Oxycodone

317
Q

When should you not give oramorph?

A

Renal impairment
Cannot absorb opiates/cannot tolerate oral intake -> recent bowel surgery

318
Q

Name 3 types of O2 mask

A

NRB
Nasal cannulas
Tracheostomy
Venturi

319
Q

What % O2 are you delivering to a patient if you give 15l/min O2 via non-rebreathe mask with a reservoir bag?

A

85-90%

320
Q

Why is glucose often high in patients that are quite unwell even if they do not have diabetes?

A

Release of cortisol and adrenaline as part of stress response

321
Q

What can cause low capillary blood glucose?

A

Diabetes -> too much insulin, physical activity, alcohol
Acute liver failure

322
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol overdose? Include dose and administration

A

N-acetylcysteine IV
150mg/kg over 1 hour in 200ml 5% dextrose
Then 50mg/kg over 4 hours in 500ml 5% dextrose
Then 100mg/kg over 16 hours in 1L 5% dextrose

323
Q

What is the definition of status?

A

Patient been fitting for > 5 minutes

324
Q

What drugs could you give for a patient where you cannot get IV access for a patient in status?

A

Community -> 10mg buccal midazolam
Hospital -> rectal diazepam

325
Q

If a patient is still fitting after midazolam/diazepam what drug would you give (with IV access)?

A

IV lorazepam (4mg given in small doses at a time to avoid s/e)

326
Q

What is the S/E of lorazepam you are most worried about in fitting?

A

Respiratory depression

327
Q

If benzodiazepines don’t work for a fitting patient what can you given next?

A

Phenytoin/keppra/valproate

328
Q

What do you need to know about a patient before giving phenytoin?

A

Heart problems -> can cause arrhythmias (ECG)
Pregnant -> teratogenic in first trimester
Allergies
If already on phenytoin -> once giving loading dose could put into toxic levels of phenytoin

329
Q

When is keppra perferred?

A

Practically -> all the time
Exams -> women of childbearing age

330
Q

Name 3 causes of seizures

A

Metabolic -> hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, hypocalacaemia, low magnesium
Space occupying lesions -> primary/secondary brain tumours, haemorrhagic stroke
Drugs/alcohol -> overdose/withdrawal
Eclampsia
Epilepsy -> undiagnosed/subtherapeutic treatment/non-compliance/intercurrent illness
Infections -> intra-cranial (encephalitis/meningitis/brain abscess)/systemic
Non-epileptic seizures
Head trauma

331
Q

Name 3 complications of seizures

A

Irreversible brain injury -> hypoxia
Death
DIC
Cognititive dysfunction
Metabolic acidosis/dehydration/hypoglycaemia
Muscle breakdown -> rhabdomyolysis therefore AKI and hyperkalaemia
Injury

332
Q

What is the recommended limit of alcohol per week?

A

14 units per week with 2 days of abstinence

333
Q

What are the features of early alcohol withdrawal?

A

Hand tremors, weating, tachycardia, N&V, headaches, anxiety, irritability, restlessness

334
Q

What are the features of delirium tremens?

A

Acute confusion, agitation, delusions, lilliputian visual hallucinations, tremors
Autonomic -> tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia, ataxia, arrhythmias

335
Q

How do you manage delirium tremens?

A

Continuation of care, big clock, well lit room
Pabrinex (thiamine) IV
Chlordiazepoxide (oral benzo)

336
Q

What are the features of wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Ataxia, confabulation, ophthalmoplegia (CN VI)

337
Q

Name 3 RF for ischaemic heart disease

A

Hypertension
Hypercholesterolaemia
Diabetes
Smoking
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Family history
Ethnic background

338
Q

What tools can be used to standardise risk of acute cardiac events?

A

HEART score

339
Q

If someone has had an MI 2 hours ago, would you expect any cardiac enzyme levels to be raised on this initial sample?

A

Yes, can be raised within 6 hours of chest pain

340
Q

What 2 drugs do you give for pain relief during an MI?

A

GTN spray
IV morphine

341
Q

Do you give O2 in an MI and why?

A

No
Shown to give worse outcomes

342
Q

What ECG changes might you see in an anterior MI?

A

ST segment elevation with Q waves in (V1-6)
Hyperacute T waves
Reciprocal ST depression in inferior leads (III and aVF)

343
Q

What ECG changes might you see in a lateral MI?

A

ST elevation in lateral leads (I, AVL, V5-6), reciprocal ST depression in inferior leads (III, aVF)

344
Q

What ECG changes might you see in an inferior MI?

A

ST elevation in inferior leads II, III, and aVF
Hyperacute T waves
Reciprocal ST depression in aVL
Progressive development of Q waves in II, III, aVF

345
Q

What ECG changes might you see in a posterior MI?

A

V1-3 horizontal ST depression, tall broad R waves (>30ms), upright T waves, dominant R waves V2

346
Q

How quickly does PCI need to occur?

A

Within 2 hours of presentation

347
Q

Name 2 drugs commonly used for thrombolysis

A

Streptokinase
Alteplase

348
Q

What other drugs should be considered during the emergency treatment of acute coronary syndromes?

A

Aspirin
Ticagrelor
Fondaparinux

349
Q

What bedside chemical test is important to do within a few minutes of the arrival of a semi-conscious/unconcious patient?

A

Blood glucose -> easily reversible cause

350
Q

Name 3 intracranial causes of reduced conscious level

A

Haemorrhage
Infarction
Infection
Tumour
Post-ictal state
Head trauma
Psychiatric

351
Q

Name a CVS cause of reduced conscious level

A

Shock
Hypertension

352
Q

Name an infectious cause of reduced conscious level

A

Sepsis

353
Q

Name 3 metabolic causes of reduced conscious level

A

Hypo/hyperosmolar state
Hypo/hyperglycaemia
Hypoadrenalism
Hypothyroidism
Hypopituitarism
Electrolyte abnormalities
Hypercapnia

354
Q

Name drug/toxin causes of reduced conscious level

A

Sedatives
Analgesics
Alcohol

355
Q

Name a physical injury cause of reduced conscious level

A

Hyper/hypothermia
Electrocution
Head injury

356
Q

What does the typical rash in an allergic reaction look like?

A

Urticarial rash
Swollen, pale-red, or skin-coloured bumps
Blanching

357
Q

What are the respiratory symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Wheezing
Reduced airway patency
SpO2
Angioedema
RR increased
Voice alterations
Chest tightness
Coughing

358
Q

What are the ENT symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Conjunctivitis
Rhinitis
Headaches

359
Q

What are the GI symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Difficulty swallowing
N&V
Diarrhoea
Abdominal pain

360
Q

What are the skin symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Itching
Redness/flushing
Urticaria

361
Q

What is the mechanism of an anaphylactic reaction?

A

Actions of mediators released from mast cells and basophil degranulation triggered by IgE or non-IgE mediators
Histamine + PAF released which acts of smooth muscle causing symptoms

362
Q

What is the difference between anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid reactions?

A

Anaphylaxis -> IgE mediated immune response
Anaphylactoid -> mimics anaphylaxis but non-IgE mediated

363
Q

What is refractory anaphylaxis?

A

No improvement in respiratory or cardiovascular symptoms despite 2 appropriate doses of IM adrenaline

364
Q

What is a biphasic anaphylactic reaction?

A

2 phase anaphylactic event where you get return of symptoms without re-exposure to the allergen
2nd reaction can be less severe, more severe, or the same

365
Q

What test can be used to diagnosed anaphylaxis and when can it be taken?

A

Blood test measuring tryptase level -> marker of mast cell degranulation
Within 3 hours of reaction

366
Q

How are pre-hospital trauma alerts structured?

A

ATMIST
A - age and gender
T - time of incident/time of arrival
M - mechanism of injury
I - suspected injuries
S - signs and symptoms
T - treatment given thus far

367
Q

What does the primary trauma survey consist of?

A

CABCDE
C - catastrophic haemorrhage
A - airway + c-spine controle
B - breathing
C - circulation and haemorrhage control (not catastrophic)
D - disability/glucose
E - everything else

368
Q

What should you be aware of in younger people with shock?

A

BP will be maintained for a long time as they have better physiological reserve
Might just see tachycardia

369
Q

What are the life-threatening chest injuries? ATOM FC

A

Airway obstruction/aortic disruption
Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive haemothorax
Flail chest
Cardiac tamponade

370
Q

How does tension pneumothorax cause shock?

A

Rise in pressure in thorax reduces the amount of blood returning from the body to the heart as the blood cannot force its way into the thorax, reduction in pre-load, therefore reduction in afterload, therefore reduced perfusion to organs = shock

371
Q

What is CO maintained by?

A

CO = HR x SV

372
Q

How is a tension pneumothorax treated?

A

Insertion of large bore needle into 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line (avoid neurovascular bundle)

373
Q

How is an open pneumothorax treated?

A

Application of a 3-way dressing to the wound to allow for exhalation from the lungs but prevent air being breathed in through the opening in the chest wall

374
Q

What is a massive haemothorax?

A

Blood volume of greater than 1000ml within the thoracic cavity

375
Q

What is a flail chest?

A

3 or more contiguous ribs are fractured in 2 or more places
Injuries cause a segment of the chest wall to move independently of the red of the chest wall
Causes paradoxical breathing and leads to ineffective ventilation, pulmonary contusion, and hypoventilation

376
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Fluid/blood builds up in the space between the heart and the pericardium
Prevents heart from pumping blood around the body properly

377
Q

How does tranexamic acid work?

A

Anti-fibrinolytic, prevents breakdown of blood clots therefore reducing bleeding

378
Q

Why should you not give crystalloid fluids in a massive haemorrhage?

A

Dilution of O2 carrying capacity (haemoglobin)
Dilution of clotting factors

379
Q

What are the benefits of splinting a fracture?

A

Pain relief, reduced blood loss (long bones), if displaced can cause ischaemia and neuropathy by compromising neurovascular function, optimises outcomes

380
Q

What are the land marks for chest drain insertion?

A

‘Safe triangle’
Anterior border of latissimus dorsi, lateral border of pec major, line superior to horizontal level of nipple and apex below the axilla

381
Q

Name 3 risk factors for a PE that are in the wells score

A

Surgery in last 4 weeks/long periods of immobilisation
Clotting disorders FH/personal Hx
DVT signs and symptoms
Previous PE/DVT
Haemoptysis
Cancer treatment/active cancer in the last 6 months
Oral contraceptive
Pregnancy
Recent long distance travel

382
Q

What is the difference between sensivity and specificity?

A

Sensitivity -> tests ability to designate an individual with a disease as +ve
Specificity -> ability to designate an individual who doesn’t have a disease as negative

383
Q

What does it mean if a test has high sensitivity but low specificity?

A

Can rule out disease if -ve, but if +ve not certain that this is definitely the diagnosis

384
Q

What scores can be used to determine peoples risk of bleeding vs risk of clotting?

A

CHADVASC = risk of clotting
HAS-BLED = risk of bleeding

385
Q

What should you ask in a poisoning history?

A

When? What? How much? Anything else with it eg alcohol/street drugs? Why? Where? Who was with them? Collateral information?

386
Q

What should you ask about mental health during a poisoning history?

A

High risk were actions? Actions around self-harm? Help seeking?
Previous self-harm/suicide attempt? Mental health background?
Intentions and feelings now?
Support available?
Home situation?
Capacity?

387
Q

What examination should you do during a poisoning assessment?

A

ABCDE
Ensuring - pupils, temperature, glucose

388
Q

What initial investigations should you do in a poisoning situation?

A

ECG
Blood gas

389
Q

What should you look for in an ECG in a poisoning situation?

A

Conduction delays and ischaemia
QT interval

390
Q

What should you look for in an blood gas in a poisoning situation?

A

Anion gap
Osmolar gap

391
Q

What is an anion gap?

A

(Na + K) - (HCO3 + Cl)
Normal < 18

392
Q

What is an osmolar gap?

A

Measured serum osmolality - calculated osmolality
Calculated = 2 x (Na + K) + glucose + urea
Normal < 10

393
Q

What is the mnemonic for causes of a metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap? What does it stand for?

A

CATMUDPILES
- Carbon monoxide, cyanide
- Alcoholic ketacidosis
- Toluene
- Metforming, methanol
- Uraemia
- DKA
- Paracetamol, paraldehyde
- Iron, isoniazid, inborn errors of metabolism
- Lactic acidosis
- Ethanol, ethylene glycol
- Salicylates

394
Q

How can metabolic acidosis result in a high anion gap?

A

Accumulation of organic acids
Impaired H excretion

395
Q

What can cause a high osmolar gap?

A

Mannitol
Methanol
Ethylene glycol
Sorbitol
Polyethylene glycol
Propylene glycol
Glycine
Maltose

396
Q

What drugs can prolong QT interval?

A

Most anti-depressants particularly SSRIs
Lithium
Clarithromycin, erythromycin
Amiodarone

397
Q

What are the 4 stages of a paracetamol overdose?

A

Stage 1 (days 0-1)
Stage 2 (days 1-3) - liver injury develops
Stage 3 (days 3-5) - hepatotoxicity peaks, rapid and severe hepatic failure
Stage 4 (days 5-8) - recovery stage for those who survive stage 3

398
Q

What symptoms might someone experience in stage 1 of a paracetamol overdose?

A

N&V, abdominal pain, sweating, general discomfort, pale colour
LFTs may be normal

399
Q

What symptoms might someone experience in stage 2 of a paracetamol overdose?

A

Upper RQ pain
Raise in LFTs (ALT, AST, bilirubin, INR)

400
Q

What symptoms might someone experience in stage 3 of a paracetamol overdose?

A

Encephalopathy
Hypoglycaemia
Glucose
Lactate
Phosphate abnormalities
Coma and death

401
Q

What can be given if it is within 1 hour of an overdose?

A

Activated charcoal

402
Q

What bloods should you do for a paracetamol overdose?

A

U&E, LFT, INR, FBC, clotting, paracetamol concentration

403
Q

How does activated charcoal work?

A

Binds to poison in the GI tract and stops it from being absorbed into the blood stream

404
Q

What is the difference between a staggered overdose and therapeutic excess?

A

Staggered overdose -> taking overdose over 1 hour or more
Therapeutic excess -> treating themselves above the recommended limit

405
Q

Why are bloods taken after 4 hours?

A

To demonstrate risk of toxicity after 24 hours
4 hours is peak of paracetamol levels

406
Q

How long does it take for paracetamol toxicity to occur?

A

24-72 hours

407
Q

Which patients might be at particular risk of liver damage?

A

Alcoholics, malnutrition
Enzyme inducers -> carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, St John’s Wort
Underlying liver disease
Multiple previous paracetamol overdoses
CF
Immunosuppression eg HIV

408
Q

How do you decide if someone who has taken a paracetamol overdose requires NAC?

A

Nomogram

409
Q

When would you start NAC prior to seeing the paracetamol level?

A

Staggered overdose/therapeutic excess
If close to 8 hours/waiting for result will take you past 8 hours before seeing paracetamol level
Don’t know when they took it (unconscious/confused)

410
Q

Why should NAC be given within 8 hours where possible?

A

A lot less effective when over 8 hours from ingestion
Almost 100% effective if started within 8 hours

411
Q

Why does a previous paracetamol overdose put people at higher risk of liver damage?

A

Glutathione reductase level reduced

412
Q

How does NAC work?

A

NAPQI = toxic metabolite of paracetamol
Further metabolised by glutathione reductase and then excreted
Increased NAPQI concentrations saturating glutathione reductase leaving the toxic metabolite
NAC stimulates glutathione synthesis

413
Q

Why does NAPQI damage to liver?

A

Results in loss of activity of critical hepatic proteins and therefore hepatic cell death

414
Q

What scoring systems can be used to evaluate self-harm risk?

A

SAD PERSONS

415
Q

What criteria is used for consideration of a liver transplant after a paracetamol overdose?

A

King’s college criteria

416
Q

What is the King’s college criteria?

A

Arterial pH < 7.3 or all of the following
PT > 100s
Creatinine > 300
Grade III or IV hepatic encephalopathy

417
Q

What are the symptoms of an opioid overdose?

A

Reduced consciousness, respiratory depression, miosis
Reduced BP and HR

418
Q

What is the antidote for opioid overdose?

A

Naloxone

419
Q

What are salicylates?

A

Aspirin/other NSAIDs

420
Q

What occurs in mild salicylate toxicity?

A

Irritate gastric lining
Ototoxicity

421
Q

What occurs in moderate/severe salicylate toxicity?

A

Mixed metabolic respiratory alkalosis + metabolic acidosis

422
Q

How does salicylate overdose lead to respiratory alkalosis?

A

Stimulate cerebral medulla = hyperventilation = respiratory alkalosis

423
Q

How does salicylate overdose lead to metabolic acidosis?

A

Metabolism = anaerobic metabolism = lactic acid = metabolic acidosis
Also have acidic effects themselves
Hyperventilation worsens in response to acidosis until body can no longer compensate

424
Q

How does salicylate overdose lead to pyrexia?

A

Metabolism = anaerobic metabolism = heat production = pyrexia

425
Q

What are the symptoms of a mild salicylate toxicity?

A

N&V
Epigastric pain
Tinnitus
Dizziness
Lethargy

426
Q

What are the symptoms of a moderate salicylate toxicity?

A

Sweating
Fever
Dyspnoea

427
Q

What are the symptoms of a severe salicylate toxicity?

A

Confusion
Convulsions
Coma

428
Q

What are the bedside Ix for a salicylate overdose?

A

Obs
ECG -> arrhythmias
BM
ABG

429
Q

What are the lab Ix for a salicylate overdose?

A

Plasma salicylate conc + paracetamol
FBC, U&E, LFTs, coag, CK

430
Q

What is the management for a salicylate overdose?

A

No antidote, supportive care
Moderate to severe consider ICU admission
If within 1 hour then active charcoal
IVI, K+ replacement
Bicarb, cooling measures, haemodialysis

431
Q

Why give bicarb in salicylate overdose?

A

Reduces transfer of salicylates into CNS and enhances urinary excretion (aka urine alkalinisation -> monitor urine pH, aim pH > 7.5)
Can lead to hypokalaemia

432
Q

What are the complications of salicylate overdose?

A

ARDS -> bilat pulmonary oedema with hypoxia, intubation + ventilation
Seizures -> benzos
Drug induced hepatitis
Cardiac arrest -> prolonged QT, polymorphic ventricular tachycardia and/or ventricular fibrillation

433
Q

Name 3 drugs that are anti-cholinergics

A

Ipratropium/tiotropium
Oxybutynin
TCA
Low potency anti-psychotics
Ach receptor antagonists

434
Q

What symptoms of an overdose/S/E of anti-cholinergics can you get?

A

Increased HR and BP
Pyrexia
Dilated pupils
Decreased bowel sounds
Decreased sweating

435
Q

How do tricyclic antidepressants work?

A

Increased effect (reuptake inhibition) of serotonin (5-HT receptors) and noradrenaline (NA receptors)
Decreased effect (post-synaptic receptor antagonists of histamine (H1 receptors), A-1 adrenoceptors, acetylcholine receptors

436
Q

What are the symptoms of toxicity/side effects of TCA?

A

Serotonin -> nausea, GI upset, sexual dysfunction
Noradrenaline -> tachycardia, tremors
Antihistamine -> sedation, weight gain
Anticholinergic -> dry mouth, blurred vision, confusion, constipation, tachycardia, urinary retention
Alpha-1 adrenergic -> postural hypotension, drowsiness, dizziness
Acts o fast Na channels in myocardial cells - Na channel blockage = cardiac arrhythmias, convusionals, coma

437
Q

What bedside Ix can be done for TCA overdose?

A

Obs
ECG
BM
Blood case -> can cause mixed acidosis

438
Q

What lab Ix can be done for TCA overdose?

A

FBC, U&E (hypokalaemia in overdose), magnesium + bone profile, LFT, paracetamol + salicylate levels

439
Q

What is the management of TCA overdose?

A

Supportive
Metabolic acidosis = give sodium bicarbonate
Hypokalaemia = give K+

440
Q

What are the symptoms of benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Agitation, euphoria, blurred vision, slurred speech, ataxia, slate-grey cyanosis

441
Q

What is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumenazil

442
Q

When should you be careful/not use flumenazil and why?

A

Long term benzo abusers -> induce withdrawal (including seizures)

443
Q

How does flumenazil work?

A

Competitively binds to benzodiazepines
Half-life shorter than benzos so may require multiple doses/infusion

Phase 3b (6 decks)

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